CP 2017 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following documents describes the systems and policies, defines authority, and identifies requirements in the laboratory? A. Documentary Records B. Quality Manual C. Quality Procedures D. Work Instructions
A
B
2
Q
In laboratory flow charts, what do diamonds indicate? A. Beginning or end B. Decision C. Input D. Operation
A
B
3
Q
What is the recommended font and size of the body text in laboratory documents following ISO formats? A. Arial 11 B. Calibri 12 C. Sans serif 11 D. Times New Roman 12
A
A
4
Q
which waste container should needles and blades be placed? A. Yellow B. Green C. Black D. Red
A
D
5
Q
According to the new DOH Inspection Tool for Clinical Laboratories, how many automated tests can one medical technologist handle in an eight-hour shift? A. 30 B. 50 C. 70 D. 100
A
D
6
Q
The Ishikawa Fish Bone Diagram is used in which laboratory managerial task? A. Budget planning B. Inventory management C. Resource management D. Root cause analysis
A
D
7
Q
Which law forms the legal basis in the regulation and operation of clinical laboratories in the Philippines? A. RA 7719 B. RA 4688 C. RA 9165 D. RA 8504
A
B
8
Q
Mobile clinical laboratories shall be licensed as part of the main clinical laboratory and shall collect specimens only. It will be allowed to operate as such as long as it is within \_\_\_\_ km radius from the main laboratory. A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200
A
B
9
Q
Which of the following cannot be performed by a secondary clinical laboratory? A. Blood typing B. Routine clinical chemistry C. Microbiology D. Quantitative platelet determination
A
C
10
Q
Which of the following situations is compulsory drug testing considered unlawful? A. Precondition for employment in the government
B. Rape suspect who has a violation in the Revised Penal Code
C. An organ donor
D. When the HIV status is relevant in the resolution of a provision in the Family Code of the Philippines
A
A
11
Q
In the immunochromatographic method for malaria testing, which of the following plasmodial enzyme is being tested? A. Glucose dehydrogenase B. Lactate dehydrogenase C. Glucokinase D. Peroxidase
A
B
12
Q
Which non-treponemal serologic test for syphilis requires heating to eliminate non- specific reactions? A. RPR B. VDRL C. USR D. TRUST
A
B
13
Q
What is the positive end point in non-treponemal serologic tests for syphilis? A. Aggregation B. Flocculation C. Fluorescence D. Turbidity
A
B
14
Q
In which situation is the performance of a treponemal serologic test for syphilis not indicated?
A. To confirm a reactive non-treponemal screening test
B. To confirm infection in the face of a negative non-treponemal test
C. To confirm infection in the latent phase
D. To confirm a non-reactive non-treponemal screening test
A
D
15
Q
In which immunoassay is a reporter label not required? A. Precipitation immunoassay B. Particle immunoassay C. Radioimmunoassay D. Enzyme immunoassay
A
B
16
Q
What is the signal detection system in chemiluminescence immunoassay? A. Nephrometry B. Spectrophotometry C. Particle counting D. Photon counting
A
D
17
Q
What is the usual CD4:CD8 ratio? A. 1:2 B. 2:1 C. 2:3 D. 3:2
A
B
18
Q
The classical complement pathway is activated by which molecule? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. Bacterial cell walls
A
B
19
Q
Which of the following will not express MHA Class II antigens? A. B cells B. Activated T cells C. Macrophages D. Platelets
A
D
20
Q
The assay of which molecule will determine monoclonality of T cells? A. Immunoglobulin side chains B. TCR C. CH50 D. Heavy chain
A
B
21
Q
The total CD3+ count is the most accurate way to enumerate T cells.
A. True
B. False
A
A
22
Q
Which of the following best describes the flow cytometry profile of NK cells? A. CD3(-), CD16(+), CD56(+) B. CD3(+), CD16(+), CD56(+) C. CD3(+), CD16(-), CD56(+) D. CD3(+), CD16(+), CD56(-)
A
A
23
Q
Which of the following is the most common inherited immunodeficiency disease? A. Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia B. Common variable immunodeficiency C. Selective IgA deficiency D. Severe combined immunodeficiency
A
C
24
Q
Chediak-Higashi syndrome, an autosomal recessive condition caused by defective neutrophil degranulation, does not present with which of the following? A. Neutropenia B. Thrombocytosis C. Recurrent infections D. Oculocutaneous albinism
A
B
25
```
Which abnormality is characterized by vacuolization of leukocyte cytoplasm by fat vacuoles?
A. Alder-Reilly anomaly
B. Jordan anomaly
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Pelger-Huet anomaly
```
B
26
Friedewald formula:
A. LDL (mg/dL) = [Total cholesterol] – [HDL – Triglycerides / 5]
B. IDL (mg/dL) = [Total cholesterol] – [HDL – VLDL/5]
C. VLDL 9 mg/dL) = [Total cholesterol] – [HDL – IDL/5]
D. HDL (mg/dL) = [Total cholesterol] – (IDL – LDL / 5]a
A
27
```
The best method to separate lipoprotein classes
A. Electrophoresis
B. Ultracentrifugation
C. Polyanion precipitation
D. Affinity chromatography
```
B
28
```
Which of the following cardiac troponins is most cardio-specific?
A. Troponin I (cTnI)
B. Troponin T (cTnT)
C. Troponin C (TnC)
D. All are equally cardio-specific.
```
A
29
```
Levels of this enzyme rise within 3-6 hours of myocardial infarction, peak at 20-24 hours, and return to normal within 72 hours in the absence of ongoing injury.
A. Myoglobin
B. Lactate Dehydrogenase
C. CK-MB
D. Troponins
```
C
30
```
Flipped Lactate Dehydrogenase (LD) isoenzyme ratio occurs in myocardial infarction over around a 36-hour period, wherein
A. LD2:L1 > 1
B. LD3:LD4 > 1
C. LD1:LD2 > 1
D. LD4:LD3 > 1
```
C
31
The following statements are true regarding Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST) EXCEPT:
A. Its activity in hepatocytes is lower than Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT).
B. Ithasbothcytoplasmicandmitochondrialforms.
C. Its level is disproportionately elevated compared to ALT in alcohol-induced liver
disease.
D. Its level becomes higher than ALT as liver fibrosis progresses and cirrhosis sets in.
A
32
In electrophoresis, this / these will confirm that the specimen is cerebrospinal fluid. A. 2 albumin bands
B. Prealbuminband
C. No band in the albumin region
D. 2 bands in the alpha-1 region
B
33
This is a screening test for steatorrhea.
A. SerumTocopherol
B. SerumVasoactiveIntestinalPolypeptide C. Serum Secretin
D. Serum Carotenoid
D
34
In patients with hyperglycemia, levels of which of the following serum electrolytes may need to be corrected for every 100 mg/dL of glucose above normal?
A. Sodium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium D. Magnesium
A
35
True about serum amylase and lipase in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis EXCEPT
A. Serum lipase is more specific for the diagnosis
B. Serum lipase levels remain elevated for a longer duration than amylase
C. Persistent serum level elevations in both analytes may signify ongoing disease
activity or development of complications such as pseudocyst
D. Serum lipase is more useful in the workup of patients with concomitant chronic
renal failure, since amylase levels tend to be increased in these patients even without pancreatitis
D
36
Formula for the computation of plasma osmolality
A. {4 x [Na] (mmol/L)} + {2 x Chloride (mmol/L} + {BUN (mg/dL)/2}
B. {2 x [Na] (mmol/L)} + {Glucose (mg/dL)/18} + {BUN (mg/dL)/2.8}
C. {2 x [Na] (mmol/L)} + {3 x Chloride (mmol/L)} + {BUN (mg/dL)/4}
D. {4 x [Na] (mmol/L)} + {Glucose (mg/dL)/10} + {BUN (mg/dL)/8}
B
37
Subclinical hyperthyroidism is defined by this set of function test results
A. High Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH), T4, and T3 levels
B. Low TSH, low T4, high T3
C. Low TSH, normal T4 and T3
D. High TSH, normal T4 and T3
C
38
The gold standard for assessing the entire hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis
A. ACTH stimulation test
B. Insulin tolerance test
C. Glucagon stimulation test
D. Low-dose dexamethasone stimulation test
B
39
```
Which among these proteins is considered to be the best indicator of change in nutrition status because of the rapid dynamics of its synthesis and clearance and its exquisite sensitivity to intake of adequate nutrition and alterations in hepatic function?
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Prealbumin
D. Transferrin
```
C
40
Reference method for creatinine measurement
A. High-Performance Liquid Chromatography
B. Alkaline Picrate method
C. Enzymatic method (Amidohydrolase or Iminohydrolase)
D. Isotope Dilution-Mass Spectrometry (IDMS)
D
41
```
Which of the following metabolites is the most sensitive and specific for Pheochromocytoma?
A. Vanillylmandelic acid
B. Homovanillic acid
C. Metanephrine
D. Normetanephrine
```
C
42
Deficiency of this enzyme is the most common cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) and is the analyte of interest in newborn screening for this disease using capillary heel blood on paper filter disks.
A. 11-Deoxycortisol
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone C. Pregnanetriol
D. 21-Hydroxylase
D
43
```
Mutation in which a series of nucleotides moves to another location in the DNA sequence.
A. Conversion
B. Translocation
C. Transposition
D. Repeat expansion
```
C
44
This is TRUE of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in the human genome.
A. Majority of them have functional consequences.
B. They occur in the population at a frequency of <1%.
C. Their most frequent site of occurrence is in the exon.
D. In most cases, a SNP has two alternative forms or alleles.
D
45
Melting point (Tm) of DNA is the temperature at which
A. 50% of double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) is converted to ssDNA.
B. DNA is completely degraded into its constituent nucleotides.
C. dsDNA unwinds.
D. The primer dissociates from the target DNA sequence.
A
46
```
This pathway repairs small non-helix-deforming adducts such as those produced by methylation, oxidation, reduction, or fragmentation such as that induced by ionizing radiation.
A. Double-stranded break repair
B. Nucleotide excision repair
C. Base excision repair
D. Mismatch repair
```
C
47
```
A gene polymorphism may produce altered amino acid sequences if this particular region of the DNA is affected.
A. Promoter region
B. Intron-exon junctions
C. Enhancer region
D. Exon
```
D
48
```
This polymerase chain reaction (PCR) uses 2 pairs of amplification primers and 2 rounds of PCR. The products of the 1st round of PCR are then subjected to a 2nd round of amplification using the 2nd set of primers which anneal to a sequence contained in the product amplified by the 1st primer set.
A. Multiplex PCR
B. Nested PCR
C. Rapid-cycle PCR
D. End-point quantitative PCR
```
B
49
```
In this study, amplified simple tandem repeats [STRs] (di- and trinucleotide repeat sequences scattered throughout the human genome) of a patient’s tumor are compared with the amplified STRs from the same patient’s non-neoplastic tissue.
A. Loss of Heterozygosity (LOH)
B. Microsatellite instability
C. Microarray
D. Comparative Genomic Hybridization
```
A
50
```
This refers to the differential expression of a gene in an offspring, depending on whether it was inherited from the mother or the father, or sometimes on other epigenetic influences.
A. Uniparental disomy
B. Genomic imprinting
C. Variable penetrance
D. Variable expressivity
```
A
51
```
In asymptomatic bacteriuria in men, a single voided urine specimen with isolation of a single bacterial species in a quantitative count of ____ CFU/ml is considered positive.
A. >104
B. >105
C. >106
D. >107
```
A
52
```
Which of the following microorganisms cannot cause a culture-negative urinary tract infection?
A. Ureaplasma urealyticum
B. Chlamydia sp.
C. Mycoplasma hominis
D. Klebsiella sp.
```
D
53
```
The laboratory diagnosis of hemolytic-uremic syndrome caused by E. coli O157:H7 requires the use of which medium?
A. Sorbitol-MacConkey agar
B. Alkaline peptone water
C. Thiosulfate bile salt sucrose agar
D. Mueller-Hinton agar
```
A
54
```
Which of the following best describes Moraxella catarrhalis?
A. Gram negative cocci
B. Gram positive cocci
C. Gram negative bacilli
D. Gram negative bacilli
```
A
55
```
Which of the following is the gold standard in the diagnosis of Chlamydia pneumoniae infection?
A. Culture
B. Immunofluorescence
C. PCR
D. Serology
```
A
56
```
Which of the following is the most common cause of fungal endocarditis?
A. Aspergillus
B. Candida
C. Fusarium
D. Mucor
```
B
57
```
Which of the following is least expected in the CSF of patients with bacterial meningitis?
A. Marked leukocytosis
B. Markedly depressed glucose
C. Low protein
D. Bloody appearance
```
D
58
HSV encephalitis causes necrosis and hemorrhage in which part of the cerebrum? A. Temporal
B. Parietal
C. Frontal
D. Occipital
A
59
```
Which of the following viruses will produce intracytoplasmic inclusions only?
A. HSV
B. CMV
C. Rabies
D. Measles
```
C
60
Which of the following is the causative agent of AIDS-associated Kaposi sarcoma? A. HHV6
B. HHV8
C. HIV
D. CMV
B
61
```
Which of the following proteins is not included in the diagnosis of HIV-AIDS via Western blot?
A. p24
B. gp41
C. p19
D. gp120/160
```
C
62
```
What type of host is man with Plasmodium infection?
A. Final
B. Intermediate
C. Dead end
D. Paratenic
```
B
63
```
Hemoglobin S trait is protective against which plasmodial species?
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. P. ovale
D. P. malariae
```
A
64
```
Which plasmodial species is associated with fimbriated erythrocytes on smears?
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. P. ovale
D. P. malariae
```
C
65
```
Which protozoan parasite is characterized by fractured central karyosome and a single flagellum that appears attached to the wall of the organism at several points?
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Chilomastix mesnili
C. Dientamoeba fragilis
D. Trichomonas hominis
```
C
66
```
Achalasia and Romana sign are associated with which parasite?
A. Leishmania
B. Trypanosoma
C. Balantidium
D. Cryptosporidium
```
B
67
```
Which of the following parasites is considered as a risk factor in the development of cholangiocarcinoma?
A. Trichinella spiralis
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Fasciolopsis buskii
D. Toxocara canis
```
B
68
The ova of Taenia saginata and Taenia solium are indistinguishable by microscopy.
A. True
B. False
A
69
```
Which of the following is characterized by this key finding – an invaginated scolex with a double row of hooklets which are acid-fast and birefringent?
A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Dipylidium caninum
```
B
70
```
Which Schistosoma species is characterized by ova with lateral spine?
A. S. japonicum
B. S. hematobium
C. S. intercalatum
D. S. mansoni
```
D
71
```
Which of the following is considered as a direct method in the determination of specific gravity of urine?
A. Urinometry
B. Refractometry
C. Chemical reagent strip
D. None of the above
```
A
72
```
Which of the following conditions is characterized by rancid urine odor?
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Tyrosinemia
C. Isovaleric academia
D. Methionine malabsorption
```
B
73
```
Which of the following variables in the urine strip depends on error of indicator principle?
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Ketone
D. Bilirubin
```
A
74
```
Which of the following is the preferred stain for urine eosinophils?
A. New methylene blue
B. Prussian blue
C. Hansel stain
D. Brilliant red-O
```
C
75
```
Which urine component will have a characteristic maltese cross appearance in polarized light microscopy?
A. Renal tubular epithelial cells
B. Oval fat bodies
C. Transitional epithelial cells
D. Yeast cells
```
B
76
```
The cyanohemoglobin method in the determination of hemoglobin is read at which spectrophotometric wavelength?
A. 520 nm
B. 540 nm
C. 560 nm
D. 580 nm
```
B
77
The cyanohemoglobin method in the determination of hemoglobin can detect all forms of hemoglobin.
A. True
B. False
B
78
What is the expected flow cytometric characteristic of lymphocytes?
A. Low forward scatters, low side scatter
B. High forward scatters, low side scatter
C. Low forward scatters, high side scatter
D. High forward scatters, high side scatter
A
79
What is the expected flow cytometric characteristic of neutrophils?
A. Low forward scatters, low side scatter
B. High forward scatters, low side scatter
C. Low forward scatters, high side scatter
D. High forward scatters, high side scatter
D
80
```
Which of the following variables is calculated by multiplying the percent reticulocytes by the red blood cell count?
A. Absolute reticulocyte count
B. Corrected reticulocyte count
C. Reticulocyte production index
D. None of the above
```
A
81
```
The metabisulfite sickling test requires at least ___ percent HbS to be positive.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
```
B
82
```
The Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test is used to detect the presence of which molecule?
A. HbS
B. Fetal hemoglobin
C. HbBarts
D. HbH
```
B
83
```
Which special stain shows block positivity in ALL, often encircling the nucleus in a “rosary bead” fashion?
A. Sudan black
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Chloroacetate esterase
D. Periodic acid Schiff
```
D
84
```
Which of the following is the expected profiler of plasma cells?
A. CD19(-), CD20(-), CD45(-)
B. CD19(-), CD20(-), CD45(+)
C. CD19(+), CD20(+), CD45(-)
D. CD19(+), CD20(+), CD45(+)
```
B
85
```
What is the French-American-British (FAB) Classification of a leukemia with t(15;17)?
A. M1
B. M2
C. M3
D. M4
```
C
86
```
Which of the following is considered as a classic peripheral blood smear finding in pyruvate kinase deficiency?
A. Echinocytes
B. Schistocytes
C. Elliptocytes
D. Stomatocytes
```
A
87
```
Which erythrocyte disorder is characterized by diminished expression of decay accelerating factor and membrane inhibitor of lysis?
A. Fanconi anemia
B. Sideroblastic anemia
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
D. Pure red cell aplasia
```
C
88
```
Which of the following is expected to have a high LAP score?
A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
C. Neonatal sepsis
D. Polycythemia vera
```
D
89
```
What is the underlying cause of the formation of HbE?
A. Point mutation
B. Frameshift mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Missense mutation
```
A
90
Which of the following is the best diagnosis for a patient with the following findings?
MCV 50, elevated RBC count, severe anemia, normal HbA2 fraction
A. Alpha thalassemia trait
B. Beta thalassemia trait
C. Hemoglobin H disease
D. Alpha thalassemia with concomitant iron deficiency
A
91
```
According to a DOH administrative order, what is the maximum processing fee an institution can charge for one unit of packed RBC?
A. P2000
B. P1800
C. P1500
D. P1200
```
C
92
```
Correct identification of the blood donor is essential at which point(s) in the donation process?
A. At reception
B. Prior to medical assessment
C. Immediately before venipuncture
D. All of the above
```
D
93
```
In the testing for transfusion transmitted infections, which of the following tests has the shortest window period?
A. Serology
B. NAT
C. CLIA
D. None of the above
```
B
94
```
According to the World Health Organization, what percent of the population should become regular donors to sustain the transfusion needs of a community?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
```
A
95
The request of a physician for fresh whole blood is an automatic trigger for an investigation by the Hospital Blood Transfusion Committee.
A. True
B. False
A
96
```
At a pH range of _____, chemical groups on antigens and antibodies are oppositely changed, providing optimal ionic forces of attraction for most blood group antibodies.
A. 5.5 to 6.5
B. 6.5 to 7.5
C. 7.5 to 8.5
D. None of the above
```
B
97
Which of the following is an indication for irradiated RBC?
A. To prevent febrile non-hemolytic reactions
B. To present graft vs host disease
C. To prevent the transmission of transfusion-associated viruses
D. All of the above
B
98
Which of the following is true about random donor platelets?
A. It contains more than 5.5 x 1010 platelets per unit.
B. It should be prepared from whole blood within 10 hours of collection
C. It should be store at 4-6 degrees Celsius with constant agitation.
D. It should be transfused slowly but within 4 hours.
A
99
```
What is the expected shelf life of fresh frozen plasma when stored at -20 to -24 degrees Celsius?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 1 year
```
A
100
Which of the following blood components is mismatched with its ideal weight/volume?
A. Whole blood – 405ml to 495ml in 63ml anticoagulant
B. Packed RBC – 230ml to 330ml
C. Platelet concentrate – 70ml to 90ml
D. Fresh frozen plasma – 150ml to 250ml
C
