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Course Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following refers to a series of characters used to verify a users identity?

a) token serial number
b) userID
c) password
d) security ticket

A

C

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2
Q

Which type of access control allows owners to specify who can access their files?

a) mandatory
b) discretionary
c) relational
d) administrative

A

B

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3
Q

What is the risk of relying solely on proximity cards for access to a secure facility?

a) lost or stolen card may allow an unauthorized person to gain access
b) a proximity card is too easy to duplicate or forge
c) a proximity card does not record time of departure
d) electrical power failure may deny access to all users

A

A

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4
Q

Which of the following access control types gives “UPDATE” privileges on SQL database objects to specific users or groups?

a) content dependent access control
b) discretionary access control
c) directory access control
d) data control language access control

A

B

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5
Q

How is misuse detection different from intrusion detection?

a) an intrusion detection system will prevent all attacks by employees and insiders
b) intrusion detection relies on statistical measures to detect unusual behavior
c) in misuse detection the perpetrator has at least on valid account on one of the systems in the network
d) it uses a collection of known attacks to detect intrusion

A

C

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6
Q

The three primary methods for authentication of a user to a system or network are?

a) passwords, tokens and biometrics
b) authorization, identification, and tokens
c) passwords, encryption and identification
d) identification, encryption and authorization

A

A

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7
Q

An access system that grants users only those rights necessary for them to perform their work is operating on which security principle?

a) discretionary access
b) least privilege
c) mandatory access
d) separation of duties

A

B

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8
Q

Three principal approaches for managing access control are

a) discretionary access control, mandatory access control and role based access control
b) discretionary access control, mandatory access control and layer based access protocol (LBAP)
c) mandatory access control, layer based access protocol, and target based access protocol
d) role based access control, layer based access protocol, and target based access protocol

A

A

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9
Q

To which form of access control is a rule based control mechanism usually related?

a) discretionary access control
b) task initiated access control
c) subject dependent access control
d) token oriented access control

A

A

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10
Q

Which one of the following can be used to increase the authentication strength of an access control system?

a) multi-party
b) two factor
c) mandatory
d) discretionary

A

B

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11
Q

What role does biometrics have in logical access control?

a) identification
b) authorization
c) authentication
d) confirmation

A

C

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12
Q

At what stage of the application development process should the security department first become involved?

a) prior to implementation
b) prior to user acceptance testing (UAT)
c) during unit testing
d) during requirements development

A

D

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13
Q

When purchasing proprietary software from a vendor, source code escrow can be used to protect against

a) system data loss
b) vendor bankruptcy
c) copyright violation
d) legal liability

A

B

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14
Q

All of the following are purposes of the change control management process except ensuring that changes are:

a) authorized
b) effective
c) documented
d) correct

A

B

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15
Q

Security of an automated information system is most effective and economical if the system is

a) optimized prior to addition of security
b) customized to meet the specific security threat
c) subjected to intense security testing
d) designed originally to provide the necessary security

A

D

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16
Q

Programmed procedures which ensure that valid transactions are processed accurately and only once are referred to as:

a) data installation controls
b) application controls
c) operations controls
d) physical controls

A

B

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17
Q

which one of the following is an example of hyperlinks spoofing?

a) compromising a web domain name service reference
b) connecting the user to an unexpected website
c) executing hypertext transport protocol (HTTP) secure GET commands
d) starting the users browser on a secured page

A

B

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18
Q

Configuration management ensures that all changes to a computer system take place in an identifiable and controlled environment and that the changes:

a) to application software cannot bypass system security features
b) do not adversely affect implementation of the security policy
c) to the operating system are always subjected to independent validation and verification
d) in technical documentation maintain an accurate description of the Trusted Computer Base (TCB)

A

B

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19
Q

Why do vendors publish MD5 hash values when they provide software patches for their customers to download from the Internet?

a) recipients can verify the softwares integrity after downloading
b) recipients can confirm the authenticity of the site from which they are downloading the patch
c) recipients can request future updates to the software by using the assigned hash value
d) recipients need the hash value to successfully activate the new software

A

A

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20
Q

A worm most frequently spread via

a) user misuse
b) vulnerabilities in software
c) mobile code attacks
d) infected USB drives and wireless access points

A

B

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21
Q

Which one of the following properties of a transaction processing system ensures that once a transaction completes successfully (commits), the updates survive even if there is a system failure?

a) atomicity
b) consistency
c) isolation
d) durability

A

D

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22
Q

The initial phase of the system development life cycle would normally include

a) cost-benefit analysis
b) system design review
c) executive project approval
d) project status summary

A

A

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23
Q

Emergency actions are taken at the beginning stage of a disaster with objectives of preventing injuries, loss of life and

a) determining damage
b) protecting evidence
c) relocating operations
d) mitigating damage

A

D

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24
Q

Which of the following is a feature of a hot site?

a) the process of relocation of equipment during critical times
b) prepared offsite storage location containing basic facilities such as interface connections and communications
c) fully equipped backup center with external interfaces and communications
d) the primary site for information system processing that is equipped to run hot in continuous availability mode

A

C

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25
Q

What is the first step to be performed in establishing a DR plan

a) demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process
b) agree on the goals and objectives of the plan
c) identify applications to be run during a disaster
d) determine the site to be used during a disaster

A

B

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26
Q

Which one of the following is not identified by a BIA

a) analyzing the threats associated with each functional area
b) determining risks associated with threats
c) identifying major functional areas of information
d) determining team members associated with disaster planning

A

D

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27
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a valid X.509 V.3 certificate field?

a) subjects public key information
b) subjects X.500 name
c) issuers unique identifier
d) subjects digital signature

A

D

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28
Q

Which one of the following is an example of a simple substitution algorithm?

a) RSA
b) DES
C) Caesar Cipher
d) blowfish

A

C

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29
Q

An advantage of asymmetric key cryptography is that

a) it is relatively easy to distribute keys
b) both keys are the same
c) it can be easily implemented in hardware
d) its execution is very fast

A

A

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30
Q

In which type of cryptoanalytical attack does the opponent have the least amount of information to work with?

a) known plain text
b) cipher text only
c) plain text only
d) chosen cipher text

A

B

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31
Q

What is the role of asymmetric key cryptography in PKI?

a) it is used for key management
b) it is used for key storage
c) it is used for key generation
d) it is used for key recovery

A

A

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32
Q

How can a user of digital signatures ensure non-repudiation of delivery of the correct message?

a) sender encrypts the message with the recipients public key and signs it with their own private key
b) sender computes a digest of the message and sends it to a trusted third party who signs it and stores it for later reference
c) senders signs the message and sends it to the recipient and requests return receipt of the email
d) sender gets a digitally signed acknowledgment from the recipient containing a copy or digest of the message

A

D

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33
Q

Which trusted third party authenticates public encryption keys?

a) public key notary
b) certification authority
c) key distribution center
d) key revocation certificate

A

B

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34
Q

One goal of cryptanalysis may be to

a) forge coded signals that will be accepted as authentic
b) ensure that the key has no repeating segments
c) reduce the system overhead for cryptographic functions
d) determine the number of encryption permutations required

A

A

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35
Q

Pretty Good Privacy provides:

a) confidentiality, integrity, authenticity
b) integrity, availability, authentication
c) availability, authentication and non-repudiation
d) authorization, non-repudiation and confidentiality

A

A

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36
Q

The RSA algorithm is based on

a) calculating the product of two large prime numbers
b) calculating discreet logarithms in a finite field
c) calculation of least zero weighting
d) calculation of related points on an elliptic curve

A

A

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37
Q

Which one of the following is the best known example of a symmetric key cipher system

a) DES
b) RSA
c) elgamel (EIG)
d) MD5

A

A

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38
Q

Which of the following describes the first process in the establishment of an encyrpted session using a DES key?

a) key clustering
b) key compression
c) key signing
d) key exchange

A

D

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39
Q

Which of the following does a digital signature provide?

a) it provides the ability to encrypt an individuals confidential data
b) it ensures an individuals privacy
c) it identifies the source and verifies the integrity of data
d) it provides a framework for law and procedures

A

C

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40
Q

The practice of embedding a message in a document, image, video or sound recording so that its existence is hidden is called

a) anonymity
b) steganography
c) shielding
d) data diddling

A

B

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41
Q

What characteristic of DES used in electronic code book (ECB) mode makes it unsuitable for long messages?

a) block fragmentation causes message cipher instability
b) weak keys will produce symmetrical message hols
c) each message block produces a single cipher text block
d) repeated message blocks produce repeated cipher text blocks

A

D

42
Q

Which one of the following is an advantage of using an asymmetric cryptographic algorithm such as ECC instead of digital signature algorithm?

a) ECC uses the secure hash algorithm to condense a message before signing
b) ECC can be used for encryption
c) ECC cannot be compromised through substitution
d) ECC uses escrowed encryption

A

B

43
Q

What common attack can be used against passwords if a copy of the password file can be obtained?

a) birthday attack
b) dictionary attack
c) plaintext attack
d) smurf attack

A

B

44
Q

What is the best method of storing user passwords for a system?

a) password protected file
b) file restricted to one individual
c) on-way encrypted file
d) two-way encrypted file

A

C

45
Q

Under what circumstances might a CA revoke a certificate?

a) the certificate owner has not utilized the certificate for an extended period
b) the certificate owners public key has been compromised
c) the certificate owners private key has been compromised
d) the certificate owner has upgraded their web browser

A

C

46
Q

Which type of cryptographic attack enables an attacker to encrypt any desired plaintext and the corresponding ciphertext?

a) purchase key attack
b) chosen plaintext attack
c) known plaintext attack
d) chosen key attack

A

B

47
Q

The concept that all accesses must be mediated, protected from modification and verifiable as correct is the concept of

a) secure model
b) security locking
c) reference monitor
d) secure state

A

C

48
Q

Which one of the following does not describe a commercial information integrity model?

a) clark-wilson
b) bell-lapadula
c) biba
d) sutherland

A

B

49
Q

Why does fiber optic communication technology have a significant security advantage over other transmission technology?

a) higher data rates can be transmitted
b) interception of data traffic is more difficult
c) traffic analysis is prevented by multiplexing
d) single and double-bit errors are correctable

A

B

50
Q

When verifying the key control objectives of a system design, the security specialist should ensure that the:

a) final system design has security administrator approval
b) auditing procedures have been defined
c) vulnerability assessment has been completed
d) impact assessment has been approved

A

B

51
Q

Which one of the following is the main goal of a security awareness program when addressing senior management?

a) to provide a way to communicate security procedures
b) to provide a clear understanding of potential risk and exposure
c) to provide an opportunity to disclose exposures and risk analysis
d) to provide a forum to communicate user responsibilities

A

B

52
Q

Key elements of an information security program include:

a) disaster recovery and business continuity planning, definition of access control requirements, and human resources policies
b) business impact, threat and vulnerability analysis, delivery of an information security awareness program and physical security of key installations
c) security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification
d) senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems

A

C

53
Q

The value of data or an information system to an organization should consider all of the following factors EXCEPT:

a) the requirements of regulations or legislation
b) the number of people that require acces to the systems or data
c) the sensitivity of the data or systems and risks associated with disclosure
d) whether access to the data or system is critical to the business functions

A

B

54
Q

Spoofing can be defined as:

1) eavesdropping on communications between persons or processes
2) a person or process emulating another person or process
c) a hostile or unexpected entity concealed within another entity
d) the testing of all possibilities to obtain information

A

B

55
Q

Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?

a) a description of the settings that will provide the highest level of security
b) a brief, high level statement defining what is and is not permitted in the operations of the system
c) a definition of those items that must be denied on the system
d) a listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system

A

B

56
Q

What determines the correct classification of data in a mandatory access control environment?

a) the analysis of the users in conjunction with the audit department
b) the assessment by the information security department
c) the users evaluation of a particular information element
d) the requirements of the organizations published security policy

A

D

57
Q

Granularity is the level of detail to which:

a) a trusted system can authenticate users
b) vulnerabilities in a system can be measured
c) an access control system can be adjusted
d) packets can be filetered

A

C

58
Q

Which of the following represents an annualized loss expectancy calculation (ALE)

a) ALE = GLE * ARO
b) ALE = AV* EF
c) ALE = Risk - countermeasure effectiveness
d) ALE = SLE * ARO

A

D

59
Q

The security planning process must define how security will be managed, who will be responsible, and

a) what practices are reasonable and prudent for the enterprise
b) who will work in the security department
c) what impact security will have on the value of data
d) how security measures will be tested for effectiveness

A

A

60
Q

A security policy provides a way to

a) establish a cost model for security activities
b) allow management to define system requirements
c) identify and clarify security goals and objectives
d) enable management to define system access rules

A

C

61
Q

Computer security is generally considered o be the responsibility of

a) everyone in the organization
b) corporate management
c) the corporate security staff
d) everyone with computer access

A

A

62
Q

Step-by-step instructions used to satisfy control requirements are called a

a) policy
b) standard
c) guideline
d) procedure

A

D

63
Q

Separation of duties should be

a) enforced in all organizational areas
b) cost justified for the potential for loss
c) enforced in the program testing phase of application development
d) determined by the availability of trained staff

A

B

64
Q

What principle recommends the division of responsibilities to prevent a person from committing fraud?

a) separation of duties
b) mutual exclusion
c) need to know
d) least privilege

A

A

65
Q

What principle requires the implementation of at least the minimum and customary practice of responsible protection of assets to protect a community or societal standard?

a) vulnerability analysis
b) risk mitigation
c) asset protection
d) due care

A

D

66
Q

Which one of the following is true about information that is designated with the highest level of confidentiality?

a) it must be limited to named individuals and create an audit trail
b) it must be restricted to those in the department of origin for the information
c) it must be available to anyone in the organization whose work relates to the subject and requires authorization for each access
d) it must be classified by the information security officer and restricted to those who have made formal requests for access

A

A

67
Q

Which one of the following evidence collection methods is MOST

a) providing a full system backup inventory
b) creating a file level archive of all files
c) providing a bit level image of the hard drive
d) copying all files accessed at the time of the incident

A

C

68
Q

Which one of the following is a primary principle of the chain of custody for evidence in a court of law?

a) must be signed by the judge
b) must be signed by the originator
c) ensures that the evidence will be admissible
d) must account for everyone who had access to the evidence

A

D

69
Q

It is important that information about an ongoing computer crime investigation be

a) destroyed as soon as possible
b) reviewed by upper management before being released
c) replicated to a backup system to ensure availability
d) limited to as few people as possible

A

D

70
Q

During the routine investigation of violation reports, a technician discovers a memorandum written to a computer containing sensitive information about the technicians company. Based on the ISC2 code of ethics, what is the first action the technician should take?

a) delete the memorandum to ensure no one else will see it
b) contact the author of the memo to let them know of the discovery
c) immediately inform the companys management of the technicians finding and the potential risk
d) launch a training program outlining the need for protection of intellectual property

A

C

71
Q

The guiding principle of ethics is do nothing

a) illegal
b) harmful
c) untruthful
d) untrusting

A

B

72
Q

From a legal perspective, which of the following rules must be addressed when investigating a computers crime?

a) search and seizure
b) data protection
c) engagement
d) evidence

A

D

73
Q

When commencing an investigation, the investigator must first

a) notify law enforcement
b) secure the scene
c) verify if any rules or policies have been broken
d) seize all related evidence

A

B

74
Q

Which type of communication should an investigator use so that a hacker is not aware of an ongoing investigation?

a) pretty good privacy authenticated mail
b) digitally signed email
c) shared directory documents
d) out of band messaging

A

D

75
Q

CISSPs may be faced with an ethical conflict between their company’s policies and the ISC2 Code of Ethics. According to the ISC2 Code of Ethics, in which order of priority should ethical conflicts be resolved?

a) duty to principals profession, public safety and individuals
b) duty to public safety, principals, individuals and profession
c) duty to profession, public safety, individuals and principals
d) duty to public safety, profession, individuals and principals

A

B

76
Q

What is the proper way to dispose of confidential computer printouts?

a) have them collected and destroyed by the janitorial staff
b) place them with other printouts for collection by a document removal service
c) store them securely until removed and destroyed by authorized personnel
d) place them in a recycling bin for pickup and removal

A

C

77
Q

All of the following methods ensure that data is unreadable except

a) writing random data over the old file
b) physical alteration of media
c) degaussing the disk or tape
d) removing the volume header information

A

D

78
Q

Which one of the following devices might be used to commit telecommunications fraud using the shoulder surfing technique?

a) magnetic stripe copier
b) tone generator
c) tone recorder
d) video camera

A

D

79
Q

Planting a vulnerability in a system to detect penetrations or misleading an intruder is called

a) entrapment
b) re-direction
c) cracking
d) enticement

A

D

80
Q

Which one of the following can be identified when exceptions occur using operations security detective controls?

a) unauthorized people seeing printed confidential reports
b) unauthorized people destroying confidential reports
c) authorized operations people performing unauthorized functions
d) authorized operations people not responding to important console messages

A

C

81
Q

When establishing a process to track and analyze violations, which one of the following is often used to keep the quantity of data to manageable levels?

a) quantity baseline
b) maximum log size
c) circular logging
d) clipping levels

A

D

82
Q

The accounting branch of a large organization requires an application to process expense vouchers. Each voucher must be input by one of many accounting clerks, verified by the clerks applicable supervisor, and then reconciled by an auditor before the reimbursement check is produced. Which access control technique should be built into the application to BEST serve these requirements

a) mandatory access control
b) password security
c) role based access control RBAC
d) terminal access controller access system

A

C

83
Q

A timely review of system access audit records would be an example of which basic security function?

a) avoidance
b) deterrence
c) prevention
d) detection

A

D

84
Q

What type of attack is eavesdropping?

a) active
b) passive
c) shoulder surfing
d) maquerading

A

B

85
Q

How does closed circuit television help management and security forces minimize loss during a disaster or emergency?

a) facilities direction of resources to hardest hit areas
b) records instances of looting and other criminal activities
c) documents shortcomings of plans and procedures
d) captures the exposure of assets to physical risk

A

A

86
Q

Which one of the following is most effective method for reducing security risks associated with building entrances?

a) minimize the number of entrances
b) use solid metal doors and frames
c) brightly illuminate entrances
d) install tamperproof hinges and glass

A

A

87
Q

Which of the following is a reasonable response from a network based intrusion detection system when it detects IP packets where the IP source address is the same as the destination IP address

a) the IDS will record the event
b) the IDS will reset the TCP connection
c) the IDS will correct the destination address and process the packet
d) the IDS will work with the NAT device to translate the source address and forward the packet

A

A

88
Q

Which one of the following protocols uses a connected session

a) TCP
b) ICMP
c) UDP
d) L2TP

A

A

89
Q

What is the BEST type of authentication that prevents session hijacking?

a) robust
b) dongles
c) continuous
d) password

A

C

90
Q

When a communication link is subject to monitoring, what advantages does end to end encryption have over link encryption?

a) cleartext is only available to the sending and receiving processes
b) routing information is included in the message transmission protocol
c) routing information is encrypted by the originator
d) each message has a unique encryption key

A

A

91
Q

Which one of the following is the primary objective of a firewall

a) to protect networks from each other
b) to prevent IP traffic from going out of the network
c) to block ICMP and UDP traffic
d) to monitor network traffic

A

A

92
Q

Why would a network administrator set a network interface card into promiscuous mode?

a) to screen out all network errors that affect network statistical information
b) to monitor network usage
c) to monitor unauthorized activity and use
d) to capture information about intrusions or attacks

A

B

93
Q

Another name for a VPN is a

a) tunnel
b) firewall proxy
c) named pipe
d) domain

A

A

94
Q

Monitoring and capturing wireless signals may provide a hacker with what significant advantage?

a) defeat the TEMPEST safeguards
b) bypass the security built into applications
c) gather system information or data without physical trespass
d) undetectable active monitoring of the network traffic

A

C

95
Q

Which of the following can assist in preventing DOS attacks?

a) employing a strong password policy
b) configuring the router to check all outgoing traffic
c) ensuring the encryption is 128 bits
d) validating digital signatures on all incoming packets

A

B

96
Q

Which of the following is the purpose of a packet sniffer?

a) it tracks network connections
b) it monitors network traffic
c) it scans network segments for cabling faults
d) it detects illegal packets on the network

A

B

97
Q

When securing internet connections, which one of the following should be used to protect internal routing and labeling schemes?

a) virtual private networks
b) layer 2 tunneling protocol
c) domain name systems
d) network address translation

A

D

98
Q

In which situation would interception of radio frequency (like TEMPEST) traffic be of most interest?

a) where high availability is vital
b) where the consequences of disclosure are very high
c) where countermeasures are easy to implement
d) where data base integrity is crucial

A

B

99
Q

Between which pair of layers in the OSI reference model are bridges used as communications transfer device?

a) data link and network
b) physical and data link
c) network and transport
d) session and presentation

A

B

100
Q

Which one of the following protocols is commonly used to verify remote connections between hosts?

a) unix to unix communication protocol
b) challenege handshake authentication protocol
c) point to point tunneling protocol
d) simple key management for IP

A

B

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