course 1 Flashcards

1
Q

prebiotic period

A

formation of basic organic compounds of living systems
(saccharides, lipids, amino acids, nucleotides) via chemical
reactions probably in reducing atmosphere

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2
Q

What are the basic prerequisites for origin of cell?

A

boundaries against environment → local accumulation of molecules
(open system), it depends on the development of membranes
* development of metabolism (catalytic function of molecules:
proteins,RNA)
* development of autoreproduction capacity & development of an
internal memory system (genetic information: RNA, DNA)

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3
Q

What is the key role of RNA?

A

it carries information for its own reproduction and
simultaneously it can have a catalytic activity: ribozyme

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4
Q

What were the first cells?

A

Prokaryotes

Procaryotic cell is original.
Eucaryotic cell is derived from procaryotic cell

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5
Q

How did eukaryotic cells originate from prokaryotic cell?

A

Development of nucleus and endoplasmic reticulum
* Origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts: endosymbiotic theory

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6
Q

What is the origin of mitochondria?

A

An ancestral eucaryotic cell is thought
to have engulfed the bacterial ancestor of mitochondria, initiating a symbiotic
relationship.

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7
Q

What is the origin of chloroplasts?

A

An early eucaryotic cell, already
possessing mitochondria, engulfed a photosynthetic bacterium (a cyanobacterium)
and retained it in symbiosis.

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8
Q

What are the 3 domains of organisms?

A

bacteria, archea, eucarya

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9
Q

What are protists?

A

protists are unicellular eukaryotic organisms

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10
Q

What are the groups/ kingdoms of multicellular eukaryotes?

A

Plants, fungi and animals

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11
Q

What is the job of molecular clock?

A

By means of molecular clock, we can assess the time point when two
concrete lineages of organisms branched (how they are relative):
phylogenetic tree

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12
Q

What is an essential difference between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?

A

Procaryotic cell (procaryotes): chromosomal DNA is not bounded
by membrane structure, i.e. the cell has not regular nucleus.
* Eucaryotic cell (eucaryotes): chromosomal DNA is bounded by
membrane structure (nuclear envelope), i.e. the cell has regular
nucleus.

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13
Q

What is the basic structure of prokaryotic cell?

A

nucleoid (DNA)
* plasmids
* cytoplasm
* plasma membrane
* cell wall
* capsule (outer protective layer in some procaryotes, polysaccharides)
* flagella and pili

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14
Q

What is a nucleoid?

A

Nucleoid is a region where DNA is located within the cell (chromosome).
It contains one molecule of doublestranded (ds) DNA and proteins and histone like proteins

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15
Q

What are some characteristics of prokaryotic chromosome?

A

mostly circular, arranged in the form of
loops and attached to plasma membrane.

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16
Q

How many replication origins in prokaryotic cell?

A

1

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17
Q

The chromosome is attached to plasma membrane by what?

A

The chromosome
is attached to plasma membrane by replication origin.

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18
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

Plasmid represents a small circular doublestranded DNA. It involves
genes which are not indispensable for the life of procaryotic cell.
Plasmids are present in the cytoplasm of some procaryotes.

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19
Q

What types of plasmids there are?

A

F (fertility) plasmids: genes indispensable for conjugation
* R (resistance) plasmids: genes producing resistance to
antibiotics etc.
* Col (colicin) plasmids: genes coding for colicins, which kill other
bacteria
* Degradative plasmids: enable degradation of unusual substances
(e.g. salicylic acid)
* Virulence plasmids: turn bacterium into a pathogen

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20
Q

What are some characteristics of cytoplasm?

A

Cytoplasm= everything inside the cell surrounded by plasma membrane, nucleoid + plasmids, cytosol

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21
Q

What can be found in the cytosol?

A

Cytosol contains:
* Ribosomes (70S) and cytoskeleton
It has a gel-like character and most of chemical reactions of the cell
occur here.

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22
Q

What is realized in the cytoplasm?

A

DNA replication and DNA transcription as well as mRNA translation are
realized in cytoplasm.

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23
Q

How do plasma membranes differ in archaea/ and bacteria and eukarya?

A

Phospholipids in archaea have branched phytanyl sidechains rather than linear and there is an ether bond instead of an ester bond that connects the lipid to the glycerol.

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24
Q

What is the structure of cell wall?

A

Most of procaryotic cells have rigid cell wall. Its structure contains polymers of peptidoglycan (murein) in bacteria and
pseudopeptidoglycan (pseudomurein) in archaea

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25
Q

The cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is made up of what?

A

cell wall is made up of only peptidoglycans

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26
Q

The cell wall of gram-negative bacteria is made up of what?

A

the cell wall is supplemented with
lipopolysaccharide coat.

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27
Q

What is the difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagellum?

A

Prokaryotic flagellum is significantly thinner, it is not covered by a membrane, protein
flagellin is present in bacteria as well as archaea

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28
Q

What are essential ways how prokaryotes acquire energy?

A

Phototrophic organisms (procaryotes and eucaryotes): they acquire
energy from sunlight (photosynthesis)
* Chemotrophic organisms (procaryotes and eucaryotes): they
acquire energy by the oxidation of chemicals
* Lithotrophic organisms (procaryotes): they acquire energy by
the oxidation of inorganic chemicals (H2S, Fe2+
* Organotrophic organisms (procaryotes and eucaryotes): they
acquire energy by the oxidation of organic chemicals
(fermentation, oxidative phosphorylation)

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29
Q

What is the source of carbon for autotrophic organisms?

A

inorganic
compounds (CO2) represent a source of carbon

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30
Q

What is the source of carbon for heterotrophic organisms?

A

organic compounds (glucose) represent a source of carbon

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31
Q

What are the differences between archaea and bacteria?

A

Bacteria:
* chromosomal DNA is not
organized in structures similar
to nucleosomes
* genes without introns
* thymine is present in the tRNA
* RNA polymerase is simple (4
polypeptides)
* fatty acids in membrane lipids
are bound to glycerol by ester
bond
* cell wall from peptidoglycan

Archaea:
* chromosomal DNA is organized
in structures similar to
nucleosomes
* tRNA and rRNA genes contain
introns
* thymine is absent in the tRNA
* RNA polymerase is complex
(more than 8 polypeptides)
* fatty acids in membrane lipids
are bound to glycerol by ether
bond
* cell wall from
pseudopeptidoglycan

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32
Q

Compare prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell

A

Procaryotic cell:
* 1-10 µm
* 1000 - 4000 genes
* it does not have regular nucleus
* non-mitotic division of
chromosomes
* transcription and translation are
not separated
* 70S ribosomes
* without classical cytoskeleton
* more or less without organelles

Eukaryotic cell:
5-100 µm
10 000 - 30 000 genes
it has a regular nucleus
* mitotic division of chromosomes
* transcription and translation are
separated
* 80S ribosomes
* cytoskeleton
* organelles

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33
Q

Virtually all animal life depends on what for their survival?

A

Virtually all animal life depends on bacteria for their survival because they possess the genes and enzymes necessary to
synthesize vitamin B12 and provide it through the food chain.

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34
Q

Bacteria as a biomass …….. all plants and animals.

A

exceeds

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35
Q

What are the molecular characteristics of bacteria?

A

Bacteria have a primitive chromosome
called a nucleoid – composed of
DNA which is double stranded, circular, and supercoiled.
Proteins (histone like).
Bacterial genes do not have introns.
RNA transcription and protein translation occur in the same compartment (ie. there is no nucleus in bacteria only a nuclear region).
There is no cytoskeleton in bacteria.
Bacteria have ribosomes, each consisting of a small (30S) and a large (50S) subunit.
Division is binary and non-sexual (process known as binary fission).

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36
Q

Describe the bacterial colony growth curve.

A

Lag phase - bacteriaadapt to growth conditions. They are not dividing.
Log phase(also called logarithmic phase or exponential phase)
bacterial cell number doubling.
Stationary phase - growth reaches a plateau as the number of dying cells equals the number of dividing cells.
Death phase - an exponential decrease in the number of living cell.

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37
Q

What are some characteristics of archaea?

A

They have a unique biochemistry eg. Ether lipid cell membrane.
They use more sources for energy compared to eukaryotes eg. Ammonia, metal ions, hydrogen gas.
First observed in extreme environments eg. Hot springs, salt lakes etc
They are important for human microbiota in the gut, mouth and skin.
There is no evidence that they can cause a disease

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38
Q

What are some molecular characteristics of archaea?

A

Archaea have chromatin composed of
DNA (double stranded, circular, supercoiled)
Histones (similar to eukaryotic histones)
Introns are present in the genes encoding tRNA and rRNA.
RNA transcription and protein translation are similar to eukaryotic processes.
There is an actin cytoskeleton in archaea.
Archaea have ribosomes, each consisting of
a small (30S) and a large (50S) subunit.
Archaea reproduce by binary division,
fragmentation or budding.

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39
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

Plasmid is a circular double stranded DNA molecule. Plasmids often carry genes that benefit the survival of the organism.
Plasmids encode genes for resistance to antibiotics or heavy metals.
Plasmids encode genes for metabolic enzymes involved in nitrogen fixation.

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40
Q

What does a plasmid need to replicate independently?

A

A stretch of DNA from which replication is initiated/started
known as an origin of replication (Ori).

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41
Q

What are integrative plasmids that can also insert into the host chromosome?

A

episomes

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42
Q

What is the Griffith‘s experiment (1928) ?

A

Infection of mice by virulent and non-virulent strains of S. pneumoniae - Identified a ´Transforming Principle´

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43
Q

What is the Avery, McLeod, McCarthy (1944) experiment?:

A

Griffith experiment repeated but with isolated DNA → identified the ´Transforming Principle´ to be DNA.

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44
Q

What is transduction?

A

A process whereby foreign DNA is introduced into another cell by a virus.

A virus that infects bacteria is called a bacteriophage.
This leads to genetic recombination in bacteria.
The bacteriophage can transfer DNA from one bacterium to another bacterium

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45
Q

What is a general/non-specific transduction?

A

a transfer of any part of host DNA (only bacterial genes)

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46
Q

How does general transduction proceed?

A

1)Bacterium is infected by phage DNA.
2)Phage replicates and bacterial DNA is broken down into pieces.
Sometimes a fragment of bacterial DNA is packaged into phage capsid instead of phage DNA.
3)The donor cell lyses and phage carrying bacterial DNA is released to infect a new host cell.
4)DNA in the new host cell become recombined after infection.

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47
Q

What is specialized/specific transduction?

A

the transfer of a particular part of host DNA along with viral genes.

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48
Q

What is the result of a specialized transduction?

A

The recipient cell receives
a new metabolic ability
(from the transferred bacterial genes)

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49
Q

What is conjugation?

A

The transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells via:
direct cell to cell contact
or
2) a bridge-like connection between two cells.

It is a method of horizontal gene transfer.
It is not sexual reproduction (ie. there is no transfer of gametes).

Transferred DNA is known as a transposon/conjugative plasmid.

The transferred DNA is often beneficial to the recipient.
Benefits may include antibiotic resistance, xenobiotic (chemical) tolerance or the ability to use new metabolites.

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50
Q

What is an operon?

A

Anoperonis a functional unit of transcription and genetic regulation.

It enables organisms (eg. prokaryotes) to regulate gene expression depending on
the environmental conditions.

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51
Q

What are the 3 basic DNA compartments making up an operon?

A

1) Promoter – a nucleotide sequence that enables a gene to be transcribed.
The promoter is recognized by RNA polymerase, which then initiates transcription.

2) Operator– a segment ofDNA to which a repressorbinds.
The repressor protein obstructs the RNA polymerase from transcribing the genes.

3) Structural genes – the genes that are regulated within the operon.

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52
Q

What are the 2 operons in prokaryotes?

A

The Lac (Lactose) operon

The Trp (Tryptophan) operon

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53
Q

How does transcription start?

A

By binding of of the enzyme RNA polymerase (RNAP)
which binds to thepromoter, immediately upstream of the genes.

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54
Q

What are inducible genes?

A

They code for catabolic enzymes, produced only in presence of substrate = inductive regulation

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55
Q

What are repressible genes?

A

genes for anabolic enzymes - negative feedback by product of anabolic pathway = repressive regulation

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56
Q

Basic structure of eukaryotic cell

A

Nucleus: separated from the cytoplasm by nuclear envelope,
it contains most of cellular DNA
* Cytoplasm: interior of the cell (without the nucleus), most of
metabolic reactions of the cell occur here
* Plasma membrane: it forms outer boundary of the cell
* Cell wall: some eucaryotic cells have rigid cell wall (plants)
* Flagell and cilia: some eucaryotic cells

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57
Q

Nucleus

A

Nuclear envelope (inner & outer membrane ), it bounds nucleus against rest of the cell, nuclear pores are located in nuclear
envelope
* Nuclear lamina: localized just beneath nuclear envelope (proteins lamins)
* Chromatin: linear chromosomes (nucleosomes: DNA & histones),
DNA encodes genetic information of the cell
* Nucleolus: place of ribosome production, it is not separated from rest of the nucleus by membrane structure
Nucleus is the place for DNA replication (DNA→DNA) and for DNA
transcription (DNA→RNA).

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58
Q

Plasma membrane

A

Plasma membrane serves as a barrier to outer environment.
Structure of plasma membrane: lipid bilayer, outer and inner layer can
differ as to present lipids

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59
Q

There are various membrane proteins anchored in plasma membrane,
what are their functions?

A

transport of molecules across plasma
membrane, attachment of the cell, receiving information from
extracellular environment (receptors)

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60
Q

What is plasma membrane involved in?

A

Plasma membrane is involved in (1) import and export of molecules,
(2) attachment of cells to other cell or to extracellular matrix, (3)
receiving information from the environment and (4) cell movement.

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61
Q

What is the structure of plant cell wall?

A

cellulose (microfibrils)
hemicellulose (branched polysacharide)
pectin (polysacharide)

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62
Q

What is the purpose of a cell wall?

A

Cell wall provides the cell with a protection against mechanical damage
and pathogens, forms external skeleton of the cell (and thus skeleton of
whole plant) and mediates cell-cell interaction)

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63
Q

What is the job of flagella and cilia?

A

Flagella: enable movement of eucaryotic cell
Cilia: enable movement in the vicinity of eurcaryotic cell

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64
Q

What is the structure of eukaryotic flagellum?

A

it is similar for both
flagellum and cilium, significantly differs from the structure of procaryotic
flagellum (it is significantly more complex), microtubules (9 dublets + 2),
motor protein dynein

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65
Q

Describe cytoplasm: what does it include? What occurs there?

A

Cytoplasm includes:
* Cytosol which is cytoplasm without membrane-bounded organelles, it has
rather character of a gel than a solution, many fundamental chemical
reactions of the cell occur here
* Membrane-bounded organelles
Cytoplasm is the place for mRNA translation (RNA →protein).

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66
Q

What does the cytosol contain?

A

Cytosol contains:
* Ribosomes (80S): ribosome is a complex of RNA and protein molecules , ribosome is the place of mRNA translation
* Cytoskeleton:
Three types filaments:
* microtubules (tubulin)
* Intermediate filaments (various proteins: keratins, vimentin, lamins)
* actin filaments (actin)
Cell cortex (mesh-like structure from actin filaments located beneath
plasma membrane)
Cytoskeleton gives the cell its shape, its capacity to move and
transport signal.

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67
Q

What are the two basic types of membrane-bounded organelles also known as complex „cell like“ organelles that contain their own DNA?

A

Mitochondria: energy production (ATP) by oxidative
phosphorylation
* Chloroplasts (only plants): photosynthesis

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68
Q

What is the structure of mitochondria?

A

4 different compartments (matrix, inner membrane, outer membrane and intermembrane space)

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69
Q

What is the function of mitochondria?

A

ATP production
other functions (buffering cytosolic redox potential:
decrease of NADH level in cytosol leads to increased NAD+
level in cytosol for glycolysis; plenty of ATP: citrate from
mitochondria → cytosol for biosynthesis, e. g. fatty acids;
starvation: oxidation of amino acids in mitochondria)

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70
Q

What are simple membrane-bounded organelles?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum:
* Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
* Rough endoplasmic reticulum
* Golgi apparatus:
* Transport vesicles
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Vacuoles

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71
Q

Endoplasmic reticulum

A

Endoplasmic reticulum: synthesis of lipids, membrane proteins
and synthesis of proteins for export from the cell

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72
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (without ribosomes): synthesis
of fatty acids and phospholipids, detoxification (hepatocytes)
modification of proteins: glycosylation

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73
Q

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (with ribosomes): synthesis of
membráne proteins and organelle proteins and synthesis of
proteins for export
modification of proteins: glycosylation, formation of disulfide
bonds, chaperones

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74
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

Golgi apparatus: modification and transport of the molecules
produced in the ER
modification of protein: glycosylation, phosphorylation, proteolysis

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75
Q

Transport vesicles

A

Transport vesicles: material transport within the cell and outside of
the cell

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76
Q

Lysosomes

A

contain enzymes for degradation (acid hydrolases)
→ degradation of substances, acid pH [FIG.]
lysosomal diseases: insufficient activity of some of hydrolases
leads to the accumulation of substrate
* example: Gaucher syndrome (neurological disorders in children)

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77
Q

Peroxisomes

A

Peroxisomes: reactions where dangerously reactive hydrogen
peroxide is produced and degraded (oxidases, catalase)

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78
Q

Vacuoles

A

Vacuoles (only plants): large membrane-bounded vesicles
containing water solutions of substances (ions, saccharides etc.)

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79
Q

DNA transcription and RNA translation in eukaryotic cell

A

Eucaryotic cell separates DNA transcription from RNA translation:
processing of RNA transcript by splicing before its translation!

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80
Q

What is the size and morphology of eukaryotic cell?

A

Size of eucaryotic cell: usually 5-100 µm
Generally, eucaryotic cell is bigger than procaryotic cell.
Shape of eucaryotic cell very diverse:
* unicellular eucaryots (protists)
* multicellular eucaryots (connected with cell function in organism):
e.g. lymphocyte, erythrocyte, hepatocyte, muscle cell, epithelial
cell, neuron etc

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81
Q

What is the metabolism like in eukaryotic cells?

A

Eucaryotes exert lower variability in biochemical capabilities, including
the capability of acquiring energy, than procaryotes.
Essential ways of acquiring energy:
* Phototrophic eucaryotes
* Chemotrophic eucaryotes: only organotrophic eucaryotes (only
procaryotes are lithotrophic)
Source of carbon:
* Autotrophic eucaryotes
* Heterotrophic eucaryotes
Dependence on oxygen:
* Aerobic eucaryotes
* Anaerobic eucaryotes

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82
Q

What are the 4 basic types of tissues?

A

(1) epithelial tissue, (2)
connective tissue, (3) muscles and (4) nervous tissue

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83
Q

What is osmosis?

A

passive movement of solvent molecules through a semi permeable membrane
o only water passes (not ions) from an environment of low osmotic pressure to an environment of high osmotic
pressure

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84
Q

What are some strong electrolyte – fully soluble in water?

A

NaCl -> Na+ + Cl-
Na2SO4 -> 2Na+ + SO42-
KNO3 -> K+ + NO3
NaH2PO4 -> Na+ + H2PO4

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85
Q

What are some insoluble salts?

A

product of solubility KS
BaSO4 <-> Ba2+ + SO42-
KS = [Ba2+] * [SO42-]

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86
Q

Dissolving or organic substances in water links to what?

A

Links with polarity – polar molecules will dissolve in water, non-polar will not
- Those forming hydrogen bonds are soluble

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87
Q

Substances that are water soluble

A

= polar = hydrophilic = lipophobic

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88
Q

Substances that are water in-soluble

A

= non-polar = hydrophobic = lipophilic

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89
Q

Carboxylic acids how are they polar?

A

carboxylic acids with a shorter carbon chain (up to 8C) are polar and thus also hydrophilic
o additional chain means that the molecule will be hydrophobic – thus higher fatty acids in blood need to be
transported with the help of transport protein - albumin

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90
Q

What are some substances with amphipathic character?

A

usually large molecules with one hydrophilic and one hydrophobic part
o soaps and detergents
o e.g. phospholipids – form bilayers -> membranes, micelles, liposomes

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91
Q

What are some hydrophobic substances?

A

oils in water
o TAG - triacylglycerol
o carry no dipole moment, carry no electrical charge à insoluble in water
o in water lipid droplets will form and float -> droplets come together to minimize their
surface exposure

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92
Q

What is the composition of bodily fluids in intracellular fluid?

A

intracellular fluid - main cation = K+ = 140mM – smaller hydration shell than Na2+ -> passes membranes easier
o main anion - proteins – large molecules, hold negative charge, cannot escape outside

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93
Q

What is the composition of bodily fluids in extracellular fluid?

A

extracellular fluid– main cation = Na+ = 140mM
o main anion = Cl- = 100mM
- organic substances -> glucose, amino acids, urea

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94
Q

What is the Arrhenius theory of acids and bases?

A

acids – substances which release hydrogen cations into aqueous solution
o HNO3 -> H+ + NO3
-

  • bases – substances which release hydroxide ions anions OH-
    o NaOH -> Na+ + OH-
  • neutralization – mutual reaction between an acid and a base, production of water and salt
    o NaOH + HNO3 -> NaNO3 + H2O
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95
Q

What is the Brönsted theory of acids and bases?

A

acid - substances (molecules and ions) that donate H+ to another substance
- basic – substances able to accept H+ from another substance
- cleavage/loss of a proton turns the acid into a base

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96
Q

What are some solutions of strong acid and strong bases?

A

strong electrolytes = fully dissociates
- strong acids -> HCl, HNO3, H2SO4, HClO4
- strong bases -> NaOH, KOH, Ca(OH)2, Ba(OH)2

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97
Q

What are buffers?

A

solutions that resists pH changes
- mixture of weak acid and its conjugate salt

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98
Q

What is chromatography?

A

chromatography - liquid, gas -> separation of compounds according to different affinities for mobile and
stationary phase

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99
Q

What is electrophoresis?

A

electrophoresis – separation of substances by their ability to move in an electric field

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100
Q

Describe liquid chromatography

A

based on weak bond interactions between the studied substance and the different polar
phases
o mobile phase = nonpolar solvent (acetonitrile, methanol)
o stationary phase = polar molecules (silica gel, octadecyl silica)
- polar substances will attach to stationary phase and non-polar will travel faster

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101
Q

Describe high performance/high pressure liquid chromatography - HPLC

A

stationary phase – very small granules (2-5 μm) of silica gel, hydrated silica, which is then modified and silicon groups
bind to hydrocarbon chains, forming octadecyl silicone gel
- mobile phase - solvent - acetonitrile, methane
- detector - HPLC can use Mass spectrometry as a detector
- machine construction

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102
Q

Describe thin layer chromatography - TLC (Thin Layer Chromatography)

A

The stationary phase is either a liquid fixed on the supporting material or a solid absorbed in the form of a thin layer
- Used mainly in the separation of azo dye (benzene nuclei separated by an azo group)

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103
Q

Describe Gas chromatography

A

mobile phase formed by inert gases (He, N2, Ar)
- analysis of mainly volatile substances - lipids
- capillary column
- detector – Flame ionizing detector (FID)

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104
Q

What is electrophoresis?

A

fast and effect technique based on the movement of charges particles in an electric field
- isoelectric point – value of pH in solution where a zwitterion stops moving in an electric field (e.g. proteins)

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105
Q

What are saccharides?

A

sugars which form via photosynthesis in plants
o 6 CO2 + 12 H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O
- simplest monosaccharides have 3 carbons (=triose) -> glyceraldehyde

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106
Q

How are monosaccharides classified?

A

Monosaccharides belong among hydroxyl derivatives and carbonyl compounds

-via functional group - aldose and ketose
o aldose - ribose, glucose, mannose (C2 epimer of glucose), galactose (C4 epimer of glucose)
o ketose - ribulose, fructose

  • according to the number of carbon atoms - triose C3, tetrose C4, pentose C5, hexose C6, heptose C7
    o pentose - ribose, deoxyribose, ribulose
    o hexose - glucose, fructose, galactose, mannose
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107
Q

Presence of what leads to optical activity?

A

presence of chiral carbon = optical activity

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108
Q

What are enantiomers?

A

isomers which are mirror images ( L a D enantiomers)
D-isomers occur naturally

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109
Q

What are genetic series of aldoses?

A

another carbon is inserted between 1. and 2. carbon atom
- epimer – isomers which differ by their OH group orientation
around a carbon
- galactose and glucose – isomers which differ by their OH group
orientation around the 4th carbon
o galactose is a C4 epimer of glucose
- glucose and mannose – isomers which differ by their OH group
orientation around the 2nd carbon
o mannose is a C2 epimer of glucose

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110
Q

What is a ketose?

A

a dihydroxyacetone that has no chiral carbon (it is still considered a saccharide, even though it cannot be found freely in
nature)

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111
Q

What are 2 storage polysaccharides?

A

-glycogen – branched polysaccharide (animal)
o formed by the connection of α-1,4-glycosidic bond and branched α-1,6- glycosidic bond
§ branching allows faster breakdown of polysaccharide chains
o polysaccharide in human -> storage of glucose

  • starch –amylose and amylopectin
    o amylose – only linear chain
    o amylopectin – linear chain, sometimes branched
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112
Q

What is an example of a building polysacharide?

A

cellulose – formed by the connection of glucose by β-1,4- glycosidic bound (which human enzymes cannot breakdown)
o form tube like structures which connect

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113
Q

What are lipids?

A

Lipids are substances of natural origin
- are not water soluble
- consist of fatty acids and alcohol
- in the body, they are synthesized from acetyl-coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA)
- hydrolyzable lipids have an ester or glycosidic bond

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114
Q

How do we classify lipids?

A

hydrolysable:

o simple
§ fats – glyceraldehyde + FA
* solid
* liquid -> oils (high number of unsaturated fatty acids)
§ waxes - glyceraldehyde + FA with 16 or more carbons

o compound
§ phospholipids
§ lipoproteins
§ glycolipids

  • non-hydrolysable
    o steroids – derived from sterane
    o terpenes – consists of two or more isoprenoid units
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115
Q

What are fatty acids?

A

usually even number of carbons
- can form esters with cholesterol
- saturated – only simple bonds, palmitic acid, stearic acid
- unsaturated – double bonds in configuration cis, oleic acid
- polyunsaturated fatty acids – have more than one double bond; linoleic acid, linolenic acid, arachidonic acid

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116
Q

What are triacylglycerols?

A

they are esters of 3 fatty acids and glycerol
- non-soluble in water
- belong to hydrolysable lipids
- in cells stored in the form of lipid droplets (not bound by a membrane)
- function – storage of energy, source of carbons, heat and electrical isolation

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117
Q

What are steroids?

A

basic skeleton of steroids is formed by sterane - tetracyclic hydrocarbon
- most important steroid is cholesterol
o important part of biological membrane
o it is a precursor of all steroid hormnes and bile acids

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118
Q

What is a nucleotide and a nucleoside composed of?

A

nucleotide = nitrogen base + sugar (pentose) + phosphate
nucleoside = nitrogen base + sugar (pentose)

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119
Q

What is the structure of nucleic acids?

A

N-glyosidic bond – in-between nitrogen base and sugar, binds to the 1st sugar carbon
- Ester bond– in-between sugar ad phosphate, binds to the 5th sugar carbon
- phosphodiester bond – a connection between the 3rd sugar carbon of one nucleotide and 5th sugar carbon of the second
nucleotide

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120
Q

How is nucleic chain orientated?

A

linear nucleic chains always have a free OH group at one end on 3rd carbon of pentose (3’ end) and at the other end a
free phosphate bound to the 5th carbon of pentose (5’ end)
- synthesis of new chain always occurs in the 5‘ -> 3‘ direction
o this means that new nucleotides bind to the 3’ end

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121
Q

What is the chemical nature of proteins?

A

Proteins are biopolymers of amino acids. They are macromolecules

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122
Q

How many proteinogenic amino acids are there?

A

There are 21 proteinogenic AAs
other AAs are formed by a
posttranslational modification

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123
Q

Which amino acids belong to the non-polar group?

A

Ala,Val, Leu, Ile, Pro, Phe, Trp, Met, they are all hydrophobic since they are non-polar

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124
Q

Which amino acids belong to the polar group?

A

Gly ,Ser, Thr, Cys, Tyr, Asn, Gln They are all hydrophillic since they are polar

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124
Q

Which amino acids belong to the polar group?

A

Gly ,Ser, Thr, Cys, Tyr, Asn, Gln They are all hydrophillic since they are polar

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124
Q

Which amino acids belong to the polar group?

A

Gly ,Ser, Thr, Cys, Tyr, Asn, Gln They are all hydrophillic since they are polar

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125
Q

Which amino acids belong to the acidic group?

A

Asp and Glu. They are both negatively charged

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126
Q

Which amino acids belong to the basic group?

A

Lys, Arg, His. They are all positively charged

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127
Q

What are nonproteinogenic amino acids?

A

ornithine citrulline, L-dihydroxyfenylalanine p
(L-DOPA), β-alanine γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA), taurine

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128
Q

What are some essential amino acids?

A

1) branched chain AAs (Val, Leu, Ile)
2) aromatic AAs (Phe, Trp)
3) basic AAs (Lys, Arg, His)
4) Thr, Met

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129
Q

What do side chains of amino acids determine?

A

Side chains of AAs determine final
properties of proteins

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130
Q

What is the isoelectric point?

A

pH value at which the net
charge of a compound is zero

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131
Q

What do solutions of amino acids belong to?

A

Solutions of AAs belong among
ampholytes

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132
Q

What do peptides and proteins contain?

A

contain 2 or more AAs bound by
peptide bond(s)

oligopeptides: 2 – 10 amino acids
polypeptides: > 10 amino acids
proteins: polypeptides of Mr > 10 000

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133
Q

What bonds are formed among amino acids?

A

peptide bonds

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134
Q

Spacial arrangement and biological function of proteins are dependent on what?

A

spacial arrangement and biological function
are DEPENDENT
on the amino acid composition

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135
Q

What influences final structure of proteins

A

side chains of AAs influence a final
structure of proteins

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136
Q

What are the covalent bonds found in proteins?

A

peptide bond -CO-NH-
disulfide bond -S-S

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137
Q

What are the non-covalent bonds found in proteins?

A

hydrogen bonds: -H…..O- -H…..N-
hydrophobic interactions: nonpolar side chains
ionic interactions: -COO- /+H3N-

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138
Q

What is the primary structure of proteins?

A

= order of amino acids
* read: from N- to C- end
* it is coded on a genetic
level
* stabilization:peptide bonds

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139
Q

What is the secondary structure of proteins?

A

a-helix or B-pleated sheets
= spatial arrangement of the polypeptide chain given by rotation of the planar peptide bonds around α-carbons
stabilization: hydrogen bonds
between –CO- and -NH of the peptide bonds

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140
Q

What are the most common helixes found among proteins?

A

α-helix (right-handed)
collagen helix (left-handed, steeper)

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141
Q

What is the tertiary structure of proteins?

A

= spatial arrangement of the secondary
structures (folding of domains)
stabilization: between side chains of AAs
1) hydrogen bonds
2) ionic (electrostatic) interactions
3) hydrophobic interactions
4) disulfide bonds

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142
Q

What does the function of proteins depend on?

A

a function is related to the spatial structure
IT DEPENDS ON AMINO ACIDS COMPOSITION

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143
Q

How do we classify proteins according to their tertiary structure?

A

1) globular proteins (spheroproteins)
spheroidal shape both secondary structures are abundant
2) fibrous proteins (scleroproteins) rod-like shape ,one secondary structure predominates
e.g. α-keratin, collagen

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144
Q

What is the quaternary structure of proteins?

A

= oligomeric structure of a protein (2 or more
subunits = polypeptide chains ~ monomers)
* i.e. the structure is found only in proteins
composed of 2 or more chains (subunits)
* stabilization: noncovalent interactions
* the proteins have an „allosteric effect“
(it can generate cooperative behavior of subunits)

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145
Q

What happens when an allosteric effector binds to one protein subunit?

A

If an allosteric effector binds to one subunit,
other subunits change their shape

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146
Q

How do we classify proteins?

A

1) by localization in an organism
intra- / extracellular
2) by function
structural / biological active
3) by shape
globular / fibrous
4) by chemical composition
simple / complex (conjugated) proteins

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147
Q

What do conjugated proteins contain?

A

conjugated proteins contain polypeptide chain
(= apoprotein) + nonprotein prosthetic group
glycoproteins
metalloproteins
hemoproteins
phosphoproteins
nucleoproteins

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148
Q

What are the physicochemical properties of proteins?

A

water solubility depends on the structure
* proteins form colloidal solutions
(viscosity, sedimentation, light dispersion)
colloidal-osmotic pressure = onkotic pressure
* proteins can be salting-out of the solution
(~ water sheet removing)

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149
Q

How can proteins be denatured?

A

heat, whipping, shaking, radiation
strong pH changes, salt of heavy metals,
organic solvents, detergents

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150
Q

Proteins act as what and give a positive reaction with what?

A

proteins act as antigens formation of
antibodies
proteins give positive reaction with
biuret reagent

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151
Q

Are proteins able to absorb UV radiation?

A

Proteins strongly absorb UV radiation

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152
Q

Under physiological pH, what charge do proteins have?

A

under physiological pH
proteins are negatively charged

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153
Q

How can we determine proteins in a laboratory?

A

chemical reacion of peptide bonds with
biuret reagent - spectrophotometry
* complementary reaction with an antibody
- immunochemistry
* separation in an electric field
- electrophoresis
* denaturation

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154
Q

What are chaperons?

A

proteins which help correct the arrangement and formation of proteins
o stop the formation of incorrect bonds or connections, some even have the capability to unfold and refold a
protein
o chaperons also include heat shock proteins, which allow proteins to pass though membranes

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155
Q

How is protein structure formed?

A

Protein function results from its structure.
Folding of protein molecule into relevant 3D structure is determined by
weak noncovalent bonds:
* Electorstatic forces
* Hydrogen bonds
* Van der Waals forces
* Hydrophobic interactions
Disulfide bonds: the stabilize 3D structure of protein molecule

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156
Q

What are basic shapes of protein molecules?

A

Globular proteins (insulin, actin)
Fibrilar proteins (collagen, elastin)

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157
Q

What are protein families?

A

They include proteins similar in their structure and function.
Proteins of one protein family are coded by genes of one gene family.

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158
Q

What is the use of functional polymers of proteins?

A

Capability of protein molecules for self-organizing.
Association into big polymers and the formation of various structures:
* Filaments (actin, elastin)
* Tubules (microtubules)
* Sheets (membrane proteins, protein FtsZ in bacteria – tubulin
homolog)
* Spheres (viral capsids)

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159
Q

What are complexes of various proteins called?

A

proteasomes

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160
Q

What molecules bind to proteins?

A

Ligands: ligand binding is highly selective and directly related to the function of protein.
Conformational change due to binding of other molecule leads to change in activity

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161
Q

What are the different types of bound atoms/molecules that bind to proteins?

A

Binding of ion/atom: Ca 2+ (calmodulin), Fe 3+ (transferrin, IRP-iron regulatory protein)
* Binding of small molecule:
* Glycosylation (binding of saccharide): glycoprotein
* Phosphorylation (binding of phosphate): protein kinase,phosphatase
* Binding of GTP: GTP-binding proteins
* Binding of other small molecules: heme (hemoglobin), retinal (rhodopsin)
* Binding of nonprotein macromolecule: DNA (transcription factors)
* Binding of protein: protein substrate (enzyme), protein antigen (antibody), cyclin dependent kinase (cyclin)

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162
Q

By what can protein activity be regulated by?

A

Protein activity can be also regulated by proteolytic cleavage: insulin,
caspases

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163
Q

How can protein (enzyme) activity be regulated?

A

Negative regulation (feedback inhibition)
Positive regulation

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164
Q

How is protein degradation regulated?

A

Two means of protein degradation:
* degradation in lysosomes
* degradation in proteasomes
Degradation in proteasomes is based on enzymatic degradation: proteolysis, proteases

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165
Q

What is ubiquitin and what is a proteasome?

A

Ubiquitin: it labels proteins to be degraded
Proteasome: protein complex for protein degradation

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166
Q

Structural proteins

A

tubulin, keratin, actin, collagen

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167
Q

Protein enzymes

A

protein kinase C, DNA polymerase δ, pepsin

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168
Q

Motor proteins myosin, kinesin, dynein

A

myosin, kinesin, dynein

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169
Q

Transport proteins

A

hemoglobin, transferrin, albumin

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170
Q

Storage proteins

A

ferritin, casein, ovalbumin

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171
Q

Signaling proteins

A

insulin, EGF, erythropoietin

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172
Q

Receptor proteins

A

rhodopsin, insulin receptor, EGF receptor

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173
Q

Regulatory proteins

A

chaperones, transcription factors, cyclins

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174
Q

Protein antibodies

A

immunoglobulins

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175
Q

What are the functions of the cytoskeleton?

A

Internal support of the cell and its structures (“skeleton of the cell“) & internal organization of the cell
* Movements of the cell & intracellular transport
* Cell signalization

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176
Q

What is the structure of microtubules?

A

Protofilaments: polymer consisting of dimers of α tubulin a β tubulin
Microtubule: 13 protofilaments
+ end (β tubulin), - end (α tubulin) of microtubules
MTOC (microtubule-organizing center): ɣ tubulin
Dynamic instability (+end)
Polymerization (bound GTP), depolymerization (bound GDP)

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177
Q

What is the function of microtubules?

A

Mitotic spindle: centrosomes (MTOC)
* Flagella and cilia: structure (9 doublets +2)
movement (motor protein dynein)
* Tracks for the movement of organelles: motor proteins
(molecular motors) dynein and kinesin

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178
Q

What drugs affect the function of microtubules?

A

Colchicine (stabilization of free tubulin)
* Vinblastine, vincristine (stabilization of free tubulin): employment in tumor therapy
* Taxol (stabilization of microtubules): employment in tumor therapy

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179
Q

What are the monomers of intermediate filaments?

A

Monomers: lamins (nuclear lamina)
keratins (epithelial cells and their derivates)
vimentin (cells of mesenchymal origin)
desmin (muscle)
proteins of neurofilaments (neurons)

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180
Q

What is the structure of intermediate filaments?

A

Monomeric molecules: central α-helical domain and two peripheral
globular domains
Fibers: polymer of tetramers (2 antiparallel dimers)
Intermediate filaments: 8 twisted fibers (rope-like structure)

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181
Q

What is the function of nuclear lamina?

A

Nuclear lamina: structure (lamins) and localization function (mechanical support of nuclear envelope,disintegration and reintegration of nuclear envelope)
* Intermediate filaments in cytoplasm: tissue-specific types of proteins function (mechanical resistance of the cell)

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182
Q

What is the monomer of microfilaments?

A

Monomer: actin, known as G-actin (globular)

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183
Q

What is the structure of microfilaments?

A

Fibers: polymers of actin, known as F-actin (filamentous)
Microfilaments: double-helix
+ end, - end of microfilaments (determined by the orientation of actin molecule)
Treadmilling (+ end & - end)

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184
Q

What is the function of microfilaments?

A

Microvilli
* Cell cortex: structure and localization
function
* Lamellipodia, filopodia: amoeboid locomotion of the cell
* Contractile ring: cytokinesis
* Contractile bundles: “muscles“ of the cell
* Muscle cells: association with motor protein myosin → motility

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185
Q

What are the protein binding actin (microfilaments)?

A

Spectrin (shape of erythrocytes)
Dystrophin (binding of microtubules to basal lamina)

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186
Q

What drugs affect the function of microfilaments?

A

Latrunculin (prevents polymerization of free actin)
* Phalloidin (stabilization of microfilaments): poison from the Deathcup

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187
Q

What is the extracellular matrix?

A

It is an environment (net) between cells, non-cellular part of tissue
It influences many cell functions, behaviors
It is made up of Structural proteins (collagen, elastin), glycoproteins (fibronectin, laminin), proteoglycans (aggrecans)

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188
Q

What are the 4 types of tissues?

A
  1. Epithelia
  2. Muscle tissue
  3. Connective tissue
  4. Nerve tissue
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189
Q

What are epithelia?

A

Origin in ectoderm, entoderm and mesoderm
* Cells attach to each other
* Minimal extracellular matrix
Variable – structure, function
* Protective - epidermis
* Absorptive – epithelium
* Secretory – glandular epithelia

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190
Q

Where can we find stratified squamous epithelium?

A

Skin, esophagus. |t serves as a protection

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191
Q

What is the job of connective tissue?

A

Connects cells, tissues, organs, the most common tissue čin body
* Ensures support, nutrition, protection
* Origin mostly in mesoderm

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192
Q

What cells can we find in cartilage?

A

chondrocytes
* In ECM abundant proteoglycans + collagen fibers

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193
Q

What is the extracellular matrix in bones made up of?

A

Organic compound
* collagen
* proteoglycans
* glycoproteins
Anorganic compound
* hydroxyapatite
Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2

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194
Q

Central nervous system

A

Brain and spinal cord

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195
Q

Peripheral nervous system

A

ganglia and peripheral nerves

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196
Q

What are the characteristics of cells producing proteins?

A

Big active nucleus
* Abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum
* Polyribosomes
* Golgi apparatus

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197
Q

What is a regulated secretion?

A

involves a secretory vesicle
* High productivity of molecules
* Need of stimulus for exocytosis

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198
Q

What is a constitutive secretion?

A

No signal needed
* Secretion right after synthesis
* Collagen, fibronectin from fibroblasts

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199
Q

How is a cell adapted for regulated secretion (serous cell of pancreas)?

A

Pyramidal shape
* Epithelia
* Big active nucleus
* Abundant rough endoplasmic
reticulum
* Zymogenous granules
(digestive proenzymes)

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200
Q

How is a cell adapted for constitutive secretion (plasma cell)?

A

Connective tissue
* Round shape
* Big active nucleus
* Abundant rough
endoplasmic reticulum
(all over cell)
* Production of antibodies

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201
Q

What are typical characteristics of cells producing steroids?

A

Round active nucleus
* Smooth ER (SER)
* SER and Golgi – lipoproteins
* Tubular mitochondria
* Lipid droplets

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202
Q

What is typical for cells producing electrolytes?

A

Big active nucleus
* basal apparatus
invaginations of cell membrane
* ion channels Na+/K+
* Abundant mitochondria – ATP
source (Energy for ion channels)

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203
Q

What is typical for cell-forming mucus?

A

Goblet shape
* Flattened nucleus in basal part of cell
* Rough endoplasmic reticulum
* Well developed Golgi apparatus (glycosylation)
* Mucin vesicles – most of the cell

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204
Q

What is the function of basement membrane?

A

support, sepparates epithelium from connective tissue
Filter (selective barrier), keeps cell polarity

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205
Q

What is the basal lamina and reticular lamina products of?

A

basal lamina –
Product of epithelia cells found also in other cells (muscle, adipose, Schwann cell)

reticular lamina – Product of connective
tissue cells morse sparse

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206
Q

What is the composition of basement membrane?

A

Basal lamina:
On cell membrane integrin receptors
(provide contact with ECM)
* To these receptors connects laminin (net)
* Interconnection proteins (e.g. nidogen)
enable connection of collagen IV (forms net)

Reticular lamina:
Collagen III (reticular fibers)

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207
Q

What is the origin of epithelia?

A

Derived from all 3 germ layers
ectoderm
* Skin and its derivatives (sweat glands)
* Lining of ends of digestive tract
* Lining of vagina

entoderm
* Lining of respiratory tract
* Middle part of digestive tract and its glands
* Liver, pancreas
* Gallbladder lining
* Thyroid and parathyorid gland, thymus

mesoderm
* endotel lining veins
* mesotel lining body cavities

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208
Q

What are the functions of epithelia?

A

covering epithelium – cover outer surface or line
cavities
* glandular epithelium – production of liquid secretion
* respiratory epithelium – exchange of gasses
* sensory epithelium – reception function in taste bud or olfactory epithelium
* germinal epithelium - gonads
* myoepithelium – contractile cells in mammary, sweat and salivary glands

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209
Q

What are myoepithelial cells and where can we find them?

A

Characteristics of epithelium and smooth muscle cells
* Smooth muscle – contain actin, myosin (contractile fibers)
* Epithelium – contain keratin (intermediate
filaments)
- sit on basement membrane

We can find it in exocrine glands
(salivary, mammary, sweat)
On basement membrane
Contraction – helps secretion

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210
Q

What are some modifications of the apical surface?

A

Microvilli – cytoplasmatic projections
* Cilia – longer, motile cell projections
* Stereocilie – long, nonmotile, similar to microvilli

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211
Q

What are microvilli stiffened with?

A

Stiffened with actin filaments

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212
Q

What are cilia and kinocilia stiffened with?

A

stiffened with mcrotubules

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213
Q

What are the different cell junctions?

A

Tight junction- prevents molecules passage seals intercellular space

Adherent junction- mechanical cell attachement
actin filaments

Desmosomes- spot junction
intermediate filaments

Gap junction
rapid exchange of molecules

Hemidesmosomes

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214
Q

tight junctions – zonula occludens

A

1) Transmembrane protein – claudin, occludin
2) Adaptor proteins
3) Cytoskeleton - actin

Closest to the apical part of cell
* Closely attached plasma membranes
* Prevents passage of hydrophilic molecules,
ions between cells

Digestive system
* Blood-brain barrier
* Lungs

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215
Q

Adherent junction – zonula adherens

A

1) Transmembrane protein– cadherin
2) Adaptor proteins – vinculin
3) Cytoskeleton - actin

Strong connection of neighbouring cells
* Resistance to tension, press
* Single epithelia (e.g. endothelium)

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216
Q

Desmosome – macula adherens

A

1) Transmembrane protein – cadherins
2) Adaptor proteins – desmoplakin
3) Cytoskeleton – intermediate filaments

Spot junction
* Mechanical support of tissue exposed to pressure, tension
* Skin, intestine, cardiac muscle

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217
Q

Nexus – gap junction

A

Cell-cell communcation
* Various tisse types (nervous, muscle)
* Pore 1.5 nm
* Transmembrane proteins (connexins)
make channel (connexon)
* Permeable for small molecules, el. signals

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218
Q

Anchoring junctions- Hemidesmosomes

A

– anchors cell to cell lamina
1) Transmembrane protein – integrin
2) Adaptor proteins – e.g. plektin
3) Cytoskeleton – Intermediate filaments
(cytokeratins)

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219
Q

Focal adhesion

A

Dynamic structures, cell connection to extracellular matrix
* Protein complex
* Mediate signals transport between cell and outer environment
* Important for adhesion and cell migration

Integrins – in cell membrane – outside cell bind to ECM, inside cell bind
to cytoskeleton (actin filaments)

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220
Q

How do we organize epithelia?

A

Sheet epithelia: The most common, covering, respiratory epithelium

Trabecular epithelia: Cells organized into trabecules, Liver, endocrine glands

Reticular epithelium: Branched, mutually connected Special type, only in thymus

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221
Q

What are the layers in skin?

A

Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

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222
Q

How can we tell if the epithelium is keratinized or not keratinized?

A

The nonkeratinized epithelium has cells with nuclei in the surface layer

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223
Q

Urothelium – transitional epithelium

A

Special type of epithelia
* Basal layer of cells
* More layers of irregular shape
* Surface – umbrella cells

Umbrella cells:
Big cells (1-2 nuclei)
* Protection of cytotoxic urine
* Thicker outer part of plasma membrane
* Thickened with plaques – compose of protein: uroplakin

224
Q

Regeneration of epithelia

A

Abrasion of epithelia – renewal needed
* Regenerative capacity varies in different organs
* High regenerative capacity in intestine
* Slow renewal in glands

225
Q

What is the function of nucleic acids?

A

Essential function of nucleic acids: storage and transfer of genetic information (other specific functions of RNA)
Function of nucleic acids is based on their structure.

226
Q

What is the basic structure of DNA?

A

DNA is a polymer of nucleotides (polynucleotide chain) usually, two polynucleotide chains (strands) forming a double
helix

227
Q

What is the structure of DNA nucleotide and DNA nucleoside?

A

Nucleotide: nitrogen-containing base + sugar pentose + phosphate

Nucleoside: nitrogen-containing base + sugar pentose
Nitrogen-containing bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Pentose: deoxyribose (deoxyribonucleotide)
* Phosphate

228
Q

What are the bases is DNA?

A

Purine bases: adenine (A), guanine (G) Pyrimidine bases: cytosine (C), thymine (T)

229
Q

What is the phosphodiester bond?

A

bond via OH group of the 3´carbon of
deoxyribose of one nucleotide and phosphate of the 5´carbon of deoxyribose of the second nucleotide

230
Q

What is the backbone of polynucleotide chain?

A

repetated deoxyribose and phosphate

231
Q

What is the structural arrangement of DNA double helix?

A

3´end and 5´end of polynucleotide chain
Polynucleotide chains in the double helix are antiparallel
Major groove and minor groove of DNA double helix
B form and A form of DNA

232
Q

What is the complimentary pairing of bases?

A

Binding of polynucleotide chains is mediated by bonds between bases.
Complementary pairing of bases:
* A (purine) & T (pyrimidine): 2 hydrogen bonds
* G (purine) & C (pyrimidine): 3 hydrogen bonds

233
Q

What is the structure of RNA?

A

RNA is a polymer of nucleotides (polynucleotide chain) usually one polynucleotide chain (strand)
formation of more complex 3-D structures (double-stranded regions)

234
Q

What is the structure of RNA nucleotide and what are the bases in RNA?

A

Nucleotide & nucleoside: similarly as in DNA
* Pentose: ribose (ribonucleotide)
* Bases in RNA:
* Purine bases: adenine (A), guanine (G)
* Pyrimidine bases: cytosine (C), uracil (U)
Minor bases (tRNA)
* Phosphate

235
Q

What is a genophore?

A

Genophore: carrier of genetic information
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is the genophore of cells.
RNA (ribonucleic acid) can be the genophore in some types of viruses.

236
Q

In what stuff can we find DNA in cells?

A

DNA in the cell:
* Chromosomes (big amount of comprised genetic information)

  • Plasmids (small amount of comprised genetic information)
237
Q

What are plasmids?

A

Plasmids: cytoplasmic genophores
they do not carry genetic information indispensable for the functioning of cell (vital genetic information is in chromosomes)
Plasmids are usually found in prokaryotic cells.
Prokaryotic plasmid: circular double-stranded DNA, 1.5-200x103 base
pairs

238
Q

What are some types of prokaryotic plasmids?

A

F (fertile) plasmids: conjugation of bacteria (exchange of genetic information)
* R (resistance) plasmids: resistance against antibiotics and chemotherapeutics
* Col plasmids: production of proteins colicins (colicins kill other bacteria)

239
Q

How is genetic information in relevant DNA strand saved?

A

Genetic information in relevant DNA strand (similarly in RNA) is saved as a sequence of individual bases (A, G, C, T).
Genetic information of the cell encodes the sequence of amino acids
(primary structure) of cell proteins.
The sequence of bases in DNA determines the sequence of amino acids in relevant protein.

240
Q

What is the genetic code?

A

a rule by which certain sequence of bases determines relevant amino acid.

241
Q

What is a codon?

A

Triplet of bases is a codon
One amino acid is always determined by the sequence of 3 bases.
→ Genetic code is based on triplets.

There are 20 common amino acids in organisms which are encoded.
4 bases (A, G, C, T) → 64 (43) combinations of triplets (codons)

242
Q

How many triplets encode amino acids?

A

61 triplets: they encode amino acids
codon for methionine functions as the initiation codon
3 triplets: they function as stop codons

243
Q

What are the characteristics of the genetic code?

A

Genetic code is universal.
* Genetic code is redundant.
61 triplets encode only 20 amino acids.
1 amino acid encoded by 1 codon (methionine, tryptophan) up to by 6 codons (leucine, serine, arginine).
* 3 possibilities of reading of the sequence of triplets: reading frame

244
Q

What is a gene?

A

A gene is a segment of DNA (or RNA) which encodes a single polypeptide chain (protein) or a single RNA chain (rRNA, tRNA).
Most of genes have their own stable site (gene locus) within the DNA sequence of relevant chromosome.

245
Q

What are the functions of genes?

A

Structural genes: they encode proteins.
* Genes for RNA: they encode RNA which is not a template for translation (rRNA, tRNA).
* Regulatory regions of gene (promotor): they do not encode proteins as well as RNA and they are not transcribed. Specific
molecules regulating gene
expression bind to them.

246
Q

What is the structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene?

A

Prokaryotic gene: it only contains uninterrupted DNA sequence which encodes corresponding polypeptide chain.

Eukaryotic gene: it contains coding DNA sequences (exons) which are
interrupted by noncoding sequences (introns).
Human gene comprises approximately 3x104 base pairs.

247
Q

What is a nongene DNA?

A

Regulatory regions: they are involved in the regulation of expression.
* Repetitive sequences: highly variable (DNA fingerprinting).
* Mobile elements (transposons): they do not exert a stable position within DNA sequence.
mechanism „cut-and-paste“
retrotransposons

248
Q

What are pseudogenes?

A

genes which lost their function due to the
accumulation of mutations.

249
Q

What is a genome?

A

Genome: complete set of DNA of the cell (organism).
Genome of prokaryotic cell: chromosome + possible plasmids.
Genome of eukaryotic cell: nuclear chromosomes + mitochondrial
chromosomes + chloroplast chromosome (in the case of plants) + possible plasmids (only in some cases).
Human genome (haploid set) comprises approximately 20 000 - 25 000
(~21 000) protein coding genes.

250
Q

What is the structure of cell nucleus?

A

Nuclear envelope
* Nuclear lamina
* Chromatin
* Nucleolus
* other structures „Cajal bodies“ (maturation of snRNP)

251
Q

What is the function of the nuclear envelope?

A

It separates content of the nucleus (genetic information saved in DNA etc.) from rest of the cell. Nuclear envelope: inner and outer membrane
nuclear pores

252
Q

What happens inside the nucleus?

A

Nucleus is the place for DNA replication and DNA transcription which is separated from translation in cytoplasm.

253
Q

What is the function of nuclear lamina?

A

Nuclear lamina: lamins (intermediate filaments)
Mechanical support of nuclear envelope
Desintegration and reintegration of nuclear envelope in mitosis:
phosphorylation and dephosphorylation of lamins

254
Q

What is the structure and function of heterochromatin?

A

Chromatin: DNA & proteins (histones + nonhistone chromosomal
proteins) form linear chromosomes
* Euchromatin (decondensed chromatin: active genes)
* Heterochromatin (highly condensed chromatin: nanoactive genes)
* constitutive heterochromatin (telomeres, centromeres)
* facultative heterochromatin (X chromosome of females: Barr body)

255
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus?

A

Nucleolus: it contains DNA coding for rRNA
Place of the production of ribosomes

256
Q

What is the basic structure of chromosome?

A

Chromosome: DNA
histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)
nonhistone chromosomal proteins
Histones: basic structure of chromosome (nucleosomes)
Nonhistone chromosomal proteins: three-dimensional arrangement of
chromosome

257
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A

basic structural units of eucaryotic chromosome

Eukaryotic chromosome: linear, approximately 108 base pairs
Prokaryotic chromosome: circular, approximately 106
-107 base pairs

258
Q

What is the structure of nucleosome?

A

Nucleosome: core made of histone octamer (2x H2A, 2x H2B, 2x H3,2x H4)
DNA wound around the core (147 base pairs)
Free DNA between nucleosomes (about 60 base pairs)
There are about 200 base pairs per one nucleosome.
Individual nucleosomes are joined by histone H1.

259
Q

What are the structural levels of eukaryotic chromosome?

A

double helix of DNA (the diameter of fiber is 2nm)
* nucleosomes with wound DNA („beads-on-a-string“) (11nm)
* 30-nm chromatin fiber (30 nm)
* folded loops of chromatin fiber (chromatid) (700 nm)
* entire mitotic chromosome (1400 nm)
interphase chromosome: own position within nucleus

260
Q

What is the structure of the mitotic chromosome?

A

Mitotic chromosome: 2 chromatids
centromere telomeres
Human chromosomes: identification of individual chromosomes

261
Q

How is chromatin structure regulated?

A

Chromatin remodeling complexes
Histone code: specific modifications (acetylation, methylation,
phosphorylation, ubiquitination)
Significance of histone code: it is not fully understood

262
Q

What is chromatin?

A

Chromatinis a complex ofDNA and protein found in nucleus of eukaryotic cells.

The function of chromatin:
Topackage and reinforce very long DNA molecules into a more compact, denser shape and prevent the strands from becoming tangled

263
Q

What is the basic repeat element of chromatin?

A

The basic repeat element of chromatin is the Nucleosome,
interconnected by sections oflinker DNA.

Nucleosome = DNA + Histone core (Octamer of two copies of H2A, H2B, H3, H4).
DNA is wrapped around the histone core.
Linker DNA = DNA between two nucleosomes that is free or associated with the H1 histone
This enables DNA condensation to 7 times smaller than native.

264
Q

What is the solenoid structure?

A

The secondary structure
This is called the Solenoid structure
It involves a string of nucleosomes coiled into a fiber (6 nucleosomes in each turn)
Function of the Solenoid structure = to help package the DNA so that it is small enough to fit into the nucleus

265
Q

What is the solenoid structure further packaged into?

A

The Solenoid structure is further packaged into loops (called Laemmli loops) attached to a non-histone protein scaffold (composed of Condensin I and II complex).

266
Q

How does a chromosome in metaphase look?

A

non-histone protein scaffold with loops becomes coiled into the spiral structure of chromatids

267
Q

What is a chromatid?

A

A chromatid is a chromosome that has been copied, the two pairs (sister chromatids) are still joined together by a single centromere.

268
Q

What are duplicated chromosomes known as?

A

Duplicated chromosomes are known as chromatids that are joined together by a centromere.

269
Q

What does the position of a centromere determine?

A

The position of the centromere determines the morphology of chromosomes.

270
Q

What are the 4 morphologies of chromosomes?

A

Metacentric: centromere divides chromatids into equal length arms.

  1. Submetacentric: centromere divides into chromatids into unequal length arms.
  2. Acrocentric: centromere is located near the end of the chromatids so that a short arm is seen.
  3. Telocentric: centromere located at one end of the chromatids
271
Q

What happens when the centromere malfunctions?

A

When the centromere malfunctions, it causes non-disjunction
(ie. an error in the distribution of chromosomes during cell division)

272
Q

What is the Nucleolus Organiser region?

A

Nucleolus Organiser Regions (NORs) are chromosomal regions crucial for the formation of the nucleolus.

The nucleolus is located in the nucleus and it not bounded by a membrane.

In humans, the NORs are located on the short arms of the acrocentric chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22.

These regions code for 5.8S, 18S, and 28S ribosomal RNA.
NORs contain tandemly repetitive ribosomal RNA gene clusters which vary in length (10 -100 copies).

273
Q

What is a telomere and what is its function?

A

A telomere is a region of tandemly repetitive nucleotide sequences at each end of a chromosome.

Telomere function: To protect the end of the chromosome from deterioration or from fusion with neighbouring chromosomes.

Telomeres tend to associate with the nuclear membrane.

274
Q

Why do telomeres shorten?

A

Telomeresshorten with time because they cannotreplicatecompletely each time the cell divides; for that reason, they may be the most powerful biological clock

Cells that undergo cell division continue to have their telomeres shortened. Telomere shortening is associated with aging.

275
Q

What is the Hayflick limit?

A

The concept states that a normal human cell can only replicate and divide forty to sixty times before it cannot divide anymore, and will break down by programmed cell death or apoptosis.

276
Q

What is telomerase?

A

Telomerase, also calledTerminal Transferase,is aribonucleoprotein that adds repeat sequences to the 3’ end of telomeres.

277
Q

What are some diseases associated with telomeres?

A

The decrease in telomere length leads to senescence/lack of cell division.
Telomerase activity is determined by its catalytic protein domain (called hTERT).Since hTERT expression is dependent only on the number of tumour cells within a sample, the amount of hTERT indicates the severity of a cancer.
Syndromes connected with telomere shortening:
Werner´s syndrome
Ataxia teleangiectasia – neurons affected
Dyskeratosis congenita

278
Q

What are the properties of heterochromatin?

A

condensation (both constitutive and facultative)
late replicating (both constitutive and facultative, inactive X replicates at the end of S phase)
methylation (on cytosines)
histones in heterochromatin are hypoacetylated
(hyperacetylated histones are in active chromatin)

279
Q

What is heterochromatin?

A

Heterochromatin is a tightly packed form of DNA or condensed DNA,
which comes in a multiple of varieties.

280
Q

Compare heterochromatin and euchromatin

A

Heterochromatin:
More condensed
Silenced genes (methylated)
Gene poor (high AT content)
Stains darker with banding techniques

Euchromatin:
Less condensed
Gene expressing
Gene rich (high GC content)
Stains lighter with banding techniques

281
Q

What are some constitutive heterochromatin diseases?

A

ICF syndrome= Immunodeficiency, Centromere instability, Facial abnormalities
Inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
ICF syndrome is associated with
mutations in the gene encoding DNA methyltransferase 3b (DNMT3b)
instability of the constitutive heterochromatin on chromosomes 1q, 16q.

Rett syndrome – low levels of norepinephrine in the brain.
This could be regarded as a neurodevelopmental condition as opposed to a neurodegenerative condition.
Usually arises from new mutation within the gene MECP2 (encoding methyl cytosine binding protein) located on the X chromosome.

282
Q

What are histone modifications?

A

Ahistone modificationis a post-translationalmodification(PTM) tohistoneproteins which includes methylation, phosphorylation, acetylation, ubiquitylation or sumoylation.
PTMs impact gene expression by altering chromatin structure.

283
Q

Explain acetylation and deacetylation of histones

A

Acetylation of histones, represents a type of epigeneticmarker within chromatin.
Acetylation removes the positive charge on the histones, thereby decreasing the interaction of the N termini of histones with the negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA. As a consequence, the condensed chromatin is transformed into a more relaxed structure that is associated with greater levels of gene transcription.

The modifying enzymes involved in histone acetylation are called histoneacetyltransferases(HATs) and they play a critical role in controlling histone H3
and H4 acetylation.

Deacetylation of histones, restores the positive charge on histones which increases their attraction to DNA. This leads to formation of a condensed chromatin structure with inactive gene transcription due to inaccessibility for transcription factors.

Histone deacetylaces (HDACs) catalyze the hydrolytic removal of acetyl groups from histone lysine residues.

284
Q

What are the karyotypes for males and females?

A

The normal human karyotypes contain 22 pairs of autosomal chromosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes(allosomes).

The normal karyotype forfemalescontain two X chromosomesand are denoted 46,XX
The normal karyotype for males contains both an X and a Y chromosome and isdenoted 46,XY

285
Q

What is the x chromosome inactivation?

A

X chromosome inactivation(also calledLyonization - but this is outdated) is a process by which one of the copies of the X chromosomeis inactivated in female mammals.

The choice of which X chromosome will be inactivated is random in placental mammals (eg. Human), but once an X chromosome is inactivated it will remain inactive throughout the lifetime of the cell and its descendants in the organism.

Females are made of a mosaic of cells with inactive paternal and maternally derived
X chromosomes.

286
Q

Initiation of X chromosome inactivation (XCI) is genetically controlled by what?

A

Initiation of X chromosome inactivation (XCI) is genetically controlled by a master
regulatory locus named the X-inactivation center (Xic).

Xic harbors a gene encoding a long non-coding RNA (lncRNA) called Xist.

287
Q

What does Xist accumulation over the X chromosome trigger ?

A

Recruitment of gene repressive complexes (eg. PRC2)
Modification of histones.
Deposition of DNA methylation on CpG islands.

288
Q

What are sources of genetic variability?

A

The segregation of alleles in meiosis and their combination in gametes.
Recombination as a consequence of cross-over between homologous chromosomes in meiosis.
Sexual reproduction (random mating).
Diffuse centromeres.
Mutations in genes or chromosomes

289
Q

What is the cell cycle?

A

Thecell cycleis a four-stage process in which the cell -
1) Increases in size (Gap 1 or G1 stage)
2) Copies its DNA (Synthesis or S stage)
3) Prepares to divide (Gap 2 or G2 stage)
4) Divides (Mitosis or M stage)

The stages G1, S and G2 make up interphase,
which accounts for the span betweencelldivisions.

290
Q

During checkpoint control chromosomes are scanned for features such as what?

A

DNA damage (in G1)
Incomplete replication (in G2)
Non-attachment to the spindle (between metaphase and anaphase)
In meiosis – for incomplete synapsis and recombination (in pachytene)

291
Q

Which molecules are involved in progression of the cell cycle?

A

Rb = The retinoblastoma protein is a tumor suppressor protein
that is dysfunctional in several major cancers.
One function of Rb is to prevent excessive cell growth by inhibiting cell cycle progression until a cell is ready to divide.

E2F = A transcription factor
Rb binds to the E2F1 transcription factor, preventing it from interacting
with the cell’s transcriptional machinery. When Rb is inactivated,
E2F1 facilitates G1/S transition and S-phase.

292
Q

What is mitosis?

A

the division of somatic cells that give rise to genetically identical cells in which the number of chromosomes is maintained.

From one diploid maternal cell → two diploid daughter cells.
Division involves the separation of sister chromatids.

293
Q

What is the name of a specific protein that is involved in mitosis?

A

The centrosome:
This serves as the major Microtubule Organizing Center (MTOC) in animal cells.
The Microtubule Organizing Center (MTOC) is a structure from which microtubules emerge.
The MTOC is not present in fungi or plant cells.

The centrosome is duplicated in S phase.
Duplicated centrosomes separate and go to opposite poles (using kinesin related motor protein Eg5).
Separated centrosomes reorganise microtubules to mitotic spindles.

294
Q

What are centrosomes surrounded by?

A

Centrosomes are surrounded bya mass of protein- the Pericentriolar Material(PCM).
The PCM contains proteins including 1) g-tubulin,
2) Pericentrin (initial establishment of organized microtubule arrays)
and
3) Ninein (transport of proteins) etc.

These proteins are responsible for microtubule nucleation (the event that initiates the new formation of microtubules) and anchoring.

Cells use various proteins to aid microtubule nucleation.

295
Q

What is a kinetochore and what is its function?

A

A kinetochore is a disc-shaped protein structure associated with duplicated chromatids in eukaryotic cells where the spindle fibers attach during cell division to pull sister chromatids apart.

Kinetochore functions include 1) Anchoring of chromosomes to MTs in the spindle; 2)Verification of anchoring; 3)Activation of the spindle checkpoint and 4) Participation in the generation of force to propel chromosome movement during cell division.

296
Q

What are the kinetochore proteins?

A

Motor proteins: dynein, dynactin –
responsible for chromosome movement
Spindle checkpoint proteins:
Regulatory proteins: kinases, phosphatases etc!.

297
Q

What is the spindle checkpoint responsible for?

A

responsible for the transition from metaphase to anaphase. It ensures that the cell cannot proceed to anaphase until all chromosomes have been attached to microtubules emanating from both poles.

298
Q

What are some genes and proteins involved in the spindle checkpoint?

A

Genes: MAD, BUB, CDC (Cell division cycle)
These genes encode proteins localized to unattached kinetochores to ensure and monitor the attachment of the kinetochore to the spindle.
APC encodes the Anaphase Promoting Factor
This gene encodes a protein involved in the destruction of mitotic proteins involved in sister chromatid segregation.
Topoisomerase II (TOPO II = scaffold protein I) produces transient double strand breaks in DNA. It plays a role in chromosome condensation and releases tension during untangling of daughter DNA molecules after replication.

299
Q

How does the separation of sister chromatids occur?

A

At metaphase-to-anaphase transition, cohesins are cleaved by separin and leave the DNA, thereby allowing the chromatids to segregate to opposite poles.
The inhibitor of separin, securin, is degraded only when all kinetochores have formed stable bipolar spindle attachment.

APC ( anaphase promoting complex) targets securin for destruction, separase is released and cleaves subunits of cohesin, thus separating the sister chromatids.

300
Q

What is meiosis?

A

Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This process is vital for the production of gametes and plant spores.

301
Q

What is prophase?

A

Prophaseis the starting stage of cell division in eukaryotes.
It is recognized by the condensing and separation of chromosomes .

302
Q

What is the difference between prophase 1 and prophase 2?

A

Prophase I is the most complex phase in all of meiosis because homologous chromosomesmust pair and exchange genetic information.
Prophase II is very similar to mitotic prophase.

303
Q

What are the 5 phases of prophase 1?

A

Prophase I is divided into five phases:
Leptotene
Zygotene
Pachytene
Diplotene
Diakinesis

304
Q

What is a bivalent?

A

Abivalent, sometimes referred to as a Tetrad, is the association of a pair ofhomologouschromosomesphysically held together by at least one DNA crossover.
This physical attachment allows for the alignment and segregation of the homologouschromosomesin the first meiotic division.

305
Q

What happens in the metaphase, anaphase and telophase?

A

Metaphase – bivalents are in the equatorial plane of the cell without the splitting of centromeres.

Anaphase - migration of homologous chromosomes to opposite poles. This is done randomly but takes into account parental origin.

Telophase – Anuclear envelope reformsaround each chromosome set, the spindle disappears and cytokinesis (ie. the division of the cytoplasm) follows. Many cells that undergo rapid meiosisdonot decondense the chromosomes at the end oftelophaseI.The daughter nuclei are formed.

306
Q

Is segregation of chromosomes random?

A

Segregation of chromosomes is random but one member of the pair comes from the mother and one from the father.

307
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

This is the development and production of the male and female germ cells required for the formation of a new individual.

308
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

Spermatogenesis is the process by which haploid spermatozoa
develop from germ cells in the seminiferous tubules of the testis.

It begins at puberty and is a continuous process in men.

309
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

Oogenesis differentiation of the ovum (egg cell) into a cell competent to further develop when fertilized.
It is developed from the primary oocyte by maturation. The process begins in early embryonic life.

310
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

The failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly during cell division.

311
Q

What are the consequences of meiosis?

A

Reduction of diploid chromosomal number to haploid
Segregation of alleles in M I, M II (Mendel´s law)
(alleles segregate with homologous chromosomes)
3. Random assortment of homologues → random combination maternal and paternal chromosomes in gametes (Mendel´s law) = genetic variability
4. Increase of genetic variability by crossing-over (chromatids with segments of maternal and paternal origin)

312
Q

What are some errors in meiosis?

A

Nondisjunction in M I = failure of homologs to disjoin
Nondisjunction in M II = failure of chromatids to disjoin
Consequences for 1 chomosomal pair: disomic + nullisomic gametes

After fertilization: trisomic or monosomic zygote
Consequence for the whole chromosomal set: diploid gamete
After fertilization: triploid zygote
Anaphase lag of 1 chromosome
consequence: nullisomic gamete
After fertilization: monosomic zygote

313
Q

What are errors in mitosis?

A

Nondisjunction or anaphase lag (postzygotic) → mosaic of two (or more) cell lines with different karyotype

Endoreduplication – division of chromosomes - not followed by division of cell (failure of cytokinesis) - tetraploidy

314
Q

What is endoreduplication?

A

division of chromosomes without division of cell

315
Q

What do errors of crossing over lead to?

A

Unequal crossing-over → interstitial duplication and deletions
Crossing-over involving structurally abnormal chromosome (with balanced aberration) and normal homologue → unbalanced structural abnormality

316
Q

What does error in centromere splicing lead to?

A

Abnormal - transverse splitting - izochromosome of one arm (=duplication of one arm and loss of second arm)

317
Q

What are some abnormalities of fertilization?

A

Dispermy = fertilization of ovum by two sperms → triploidy (69,XXX or XXY) - partial mole (abnormal pregnancy = abundant trophoblast, poor embryonic development – in case of additional paternal chromosomal set !!)

Fertilization of ovum and polar body, each of them by sperm with different gonosome → chimaera (46,XX/46,XY)

318
Q

What is Gynogenesis?

A

Gynogenesis - ovarian teratoma (benign tumor) = division of ovum without fertilization (duplication of chromosomes, karyotype 46,XX)

319
Q
A

Androgenesis - hydatiform mole - complete (= pathological pregnancy = hypertrophy of trophoblast, fetal tissues are not present)
origin: dispermy or duplication of sperm chromosomes in ovum with completely destroyed female nucleus
x
Partial mole = triploid product with additional set of paternal chromosomes (hypertrophy of trophoblast + reduced embryonal tissues)

320
Q

What is the origin of a complete mole?

A

Origin of complete mole - only paternal chromosomes -absence of maternal contribution

321
Q

What is the relationship of alleles in a heterozygote?

A

Dominance
- A trait that manifests in both AA and Aa genotypes
- The dominant allele masks the expression of the recessive allele in heterozygotes.

Recessive –
- A trait that only manifests in the aa genotype.

322
Q

What is the difference between a homozygote and a hetrozygote?

A

HOMOZYGOTE
– two identical alleles at a given locus on a pair of homologous chromosomes - 1 type of gametes

HETEROZYGOTE
– two different alleles at a given locus on a pair of homologous chromosomes - 2 different gametes

323
Q

A polyhybrid cross

A

n – number of followed genes
number of gametes 2n
number of zygotes 4n
genotype ratio: ( 1 : 2 : 1 )n
phenotype ratio: ( 3 : 1 )n

324
Q

What are the Mendel’s laws?

A

Uniformity of phenotype in the F1 generation
This feature was identified with reciprocal crosses - the purpose of which was to observe the effect of parental mating on the inheritance of a trait, i.e., if a trait is sex-linked or not.

During the formation of gametes:
2. Principle of segregation
Two alleles of one gene separate from each other into two gametes.

  1. Principle of combination - Independent assortment
    Alleles of two or more allelic pairs (genes) assort independently of one
    another. There are many types of gametes possible as there are random combinations of paternal and maternal chromosomes
325
Q

What are the Morgan’s laws?

A

Genes on chromosome are in a linear order.
The number of linkage groups is equal to the number of homologous chromosomes pairs.
Gametes with an assortment of linked alleles, differing from a parental one, form only in the case of recombination (crossing over).
Frequency of recombination is associated with the strength of linkage.

326
Q

To what does Mendel’s 3rd law apply to?

A

Mendel´s 3rd law only applies to allelic pairs (genes) carried on different pairs of homologous chromosomes (independent assortment)
Genes on 1 chromosome – are not assorted independently - are linked, transmitted together into gametes
Genes on 1 chromosome = linkage group
Strength of linkage depends on their distance: the further apart genes are from each other – the higher the probability of crossing over.

327
Q

What is the heredity of AB0 blood groups?

A

The ABObloodtype of each person is determined by a single gene.
For the A type, there is a gene for GTA, aglycosyltransferase
that adds N-acetylgalactosamine.
For type B, the gene encodes GTB, a differentglycosyltransferase
that adds galactose.
For type O, neither enzyme is made.

328
Q

What are the exceptions to mendelian genetics?

A

the genes of interest are located on one chromosome and their alleles have a tendency to be inherited together
o Two genes carried by one homologous chromosome segregate together, if there is no
crossing over
o It is the result of the fact that we have several more genes than chromosomes

329
Q

What is a haplotype?

A

– a group of genes (loci), which are linked and thus preferably inherited together
o humans have 2 haplotypes of a gene – one on each chromosome
o example - Y chromosome or MHC complex on 6p21.3 (codominant gene in complete linkage)
§ men are hemizygotes for characteristics coded on non-homologous regions of Y
chromosomes
§ Y-haplotype is identical from father to son, which is used in genealogic studies and we
can examine the inheritance of Y chromosome through centuries

330
Q

What are Morgan’s Laws?

A

First law: genes are arranged in linear order on chromosomes
- Second law: genes of one chromosome form a linkage group. The number of linkage groups of the organism is identical
to the number of pairs of its homologous chromosomes
- Third law: Crossing over (gene exchange) can occur between genes of homologously paired chromosomes. Frequency of
crossing over is directly proportional to the distance of genes on the genetic map (the larger the distance, the higher the
change of crossing over)

331
Q

Are there more genes or more chromosomes in an organism?

A

There are always more genes than chromosomes in an organism, therefore not all genes undergo independent
assortment
- During complex linkage, genes are so close to each other that they do not segregate during crossing over
- In gametes, there are only combinations of alleles which are also present in parents – due to complete linkage there is
no crossing over

332
Q

What happens in dihybrid cross with incomplete linkage?

A

Dihybrid cross with incomplete linkage - Individual genes are on the same chromosomes but so far apart that they can separate through recombination
(crossing-over), the further apart, the higher the chance of separation, but the maximal probability of recombination is
50%
- Frequency of crossing-over is directly proportional to the distance between genes

333
Q

How can we measure gene strength?

A

From the number of recombined and non-recombined offspring in an analytical backcross– B1
- With the help of Morgan or Bateson’s number
o Morgan’s number: p = recombinant / whole population

§ p = 0 = complete linkage p = 0,5 = free assortment (cannot be more than 0,5
o Bateson’s number: c = non-recombinant / recombinant
§ measure how many time more probable is the formation of non-recombinant gametes than recombinant
§ lays between 1 (independent assortment) and infinite (complete linkage)

  • there are more non-recombined gametes than recombined
334
Q

What do differences in the DNA sequences between individuals (ie. DNA variability) arise from?

A

Differences in the DNA sequences between individuals (ie. DNA variability) arise from mutations and polymorphisms.
Amutationis a permanent heritable change that occurs in our DNA sequence, either due to mistakes when the DNA is copied or as the result of environmental factors such as UV light and cigarette smoke.

Such changes in the genome are frequent.
However, most mutations are functionally insignificant. Some have a minor effect on the phenotype, some are deleterious (eg. they cause a genetic disorder or fetal miscarriage)

335
Q

What is genetic polymorphism?

A

A genetic polymorphismis defined as the inheritance of a trait controlled by a singlegeneticlocus with two alleles, in which the least common allele has a frequency of about >1%.Itis a difference in DNA sequence among individuals, groups, or populations.

336
Q

What is alleic heterogeneity?

A

Allelic heterogeneity is the phenomenon in which different
mutations at the same gene locus lead to the same or very similar phenotypes.

337
Q

What are the different types of polymorphisms?

A

Single nucleotide polymorphisms
Microsatellites
Minisatellites
Classical satellites
Copy number variants (CNVs)
Indel variants

338
Q

What is a single-nucleotide polymorphism?

A

Asingle-nucleotide polymorphism(SNP, pronounced snip) is a DNA sequence variation occurring when asingle nucleotide(adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), or guanine (G]) in the genome differs between members of a species or paired chromosomes in an individual.

339
Q

What are short tandem repeats?

A

Short tandem repeats (STRs) occur in DNA when a pattern of one or more nucleotides
is repeated and the repetitions are directly adjacent to each other.

340
Q

What are minisatellites?

A

Aminisatelliteis a tract ofrepetitive DNAin which certainDNAmotifs (ranging in length from 10 – 60 base pairs) are typicallyrepeated5-50 times. The length of minisatellites can be variable between individuals. They occur in telomeres and subtelomeric regions of the genome.

341
Q

What are classical satellites?

A

Classical satellites are repeated units of hundreds or thousands of nucleotides. They are the main component of functional centromeres and form the main structural constituent of heterochromatin. The variability in these regions is generally without a phenotypic effect.

342
Q

What is a copy number variation?

A

Copy number variation(CNV) is a phenomenon in which sections of the genome are repeated and the number of repeats in the genome varies between individuals in the human population.
Copy number variation is a type of structural variation.

343
Q

What are indels?

A

Indelis a molecular biology term for aninsertion or deletion of bases in the genome of an organism.
Indel variants are classified among small genetic variations, measuring from 1 to 10 000 base pairs in length.

344
Q

What are insertions and deletions?

A

These can act as frameshift mutations. They can alter the translational reading frame of the gene. It can lead to the formation of a new stop codon and the production of a protein with loss of function.

345
Q

What can mutations in promotor regions cause?

A

Mutations in promotor regions can affect gene expression. They can lead to the following:
Impaired binding of transcription factors.
Decreased affinity of RNA polymerase and reduced transcription.
Mutations in the boundary between exons and introns can interfere with the process of splicing.

346
Q

Tay Sachs disease

A

This arises due to autosomal (chromosome 15) recessive mutations in the hexosaminidase A gene which cause the intron between exon 12 and 13 to not be removed. This causes a defect in the beta-hexosaminidase A enzyme and the accumulation of the GM2 ganglioside within nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord leading to toxicity.

347
Q

What are interspersed repetitive sequences?

A

Interspersed repetitive sequencesare identical or nearly identicalDNA sequencesthat are scattered throughout the genome, as a result of transposition or retro-transposition events.

They differ from tandemrepeat DNAin that rather than therepeat sequencescoming right after one another, they are dispersed throughout the genome and nonadjacent.

348
Q

What are 2 classes of mobile elements?

A

Class I:
Retrotransposons – replication through RNA intermediate by reverse transcription. A new copy of a DNA sequence is then inserted into another place in the genome.

Class II:
DNA transposons – ´jumping genes´ areDNAsequences that move from one location in the genome to another (using the enzyme DNA transposase).

349
Q

What are LINES
Long Interspersed Nuclear Elements(LINEs)?

A

LINEs are a family of transposons, where each LINE is about 7000 base pairs long.
LINEs are transcribed into mRNA and translated into protein that acts as a reverse transcriptase or an integrase.
The reverse transcriptase makes a DNA copy of the LINE RNA that can be integrated (using integrase) into the genome at a new site.
The only abundant LINE in humans isLINE-1.

350
Q

What are SINEs Short interspersed nuclear elements?

A

Non-coding transposable elements (TEs) that are about 100 to 700 base pairs in length.

They are transcribed into tRNA or rRNA by RNA polymerase III.
They do not encode functional reverse transcriptase and rely on
LINE partners for transposition.

351
Q

What are LTRs Long terminal repeats?

A

Long terminal repeats(LTRs) are identical sequences of DNA thatrepeathundreds or thousands of times found at either end of retrotransposons or proviral DNA formed by reverse transcription of retroviral RNA.

They are used by viruses to insert their genetic material into the host genomes.

352
Q

What are the different types of mutations?

A

Types of mutations:
Spontaneous mutationsare the result of endogenous errors in natural biological processes. Theyarise from a variety of sources, including errors in DNA replication, spontaneous lesions, transposable genetic elements and reactive oxygen species.

Induced mutations are the result of agents in the environment that cause changes in DNA structure. Examples would include the use of ionizing radiation (eg. X-rays, gamma rays), chemical and biological mutagens for inducing variation.

353
Q

What are examples of chemical and biological mutagens?

A

Chemical mutagens (Direct mutagens) include:
Alkylating agents
Nucleotide base analogs (structural similarity eg. bromouridine - an analogue of thymidine)
Acridine dyes – insertions → frameshift mutations
Nitric acid – base deamination → error in base pairing
Others: e.g. polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
Indirect mutagens – reactive oxygen products arise after metabolic activation (eg. cytochrome dependent oxygenase whose oxidized intermediates are reactive and affect DNA).

Biological mutagens include viruses – ie. the viral nucleic acid integrates into the genome of the host cell.

354
Q

What is a point mutation?

A

A point mutation affects one single nucleotide base pair.

355
Q

What is a gene mutation?

A

A gene mutation - results from a permanent alteration in theDNAsequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence differs from what is commonly found.

356
Q

What is a genomic mutation?

A

A genomic mutation - results in a change to chromosome number:
Euploidy is a condition when a cell or an organism has one or more than one complete set of chromosomes. When a human cell has an extra set of 23 chromosomes, it is calledeuploid.
Monoploidy is a condition when a cell has lost an entire set of chromosomes.
c) Aneuploidy is a condition when a cell has one or more chromosomes (not an entire set) missing or present in excess.

357
Q

What is a chromosomal mutation?

A

A chromosomal mutation - results from a structural aberration in a chromosome. It is the consequence of double strand DNA breaks and the loss/gain of a chromosomal segment or abnormal rearrangement of a chromosomal segment (which can be detected under a light microscope).

358
Q

What is a synonymous mutation?

A

A synonymous mutation is the evolutionary substitution of one nucleotide base for another in an exon of a gene coding for a protein, such that the produced amino acid sequence is not changed.

359
Q

What is nonsynonymous or Missense mutation?

A

Nonsynonymous or Missense mutation is a point mutation/substitution
in which a single nucleotide change results in a codon
that codes for a different amino acid.
(SICKLE CELL DISEASE)

360
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

A nonsense mutation is a point mutation in a sequence of DNA that results in a premature stop codon and a truncated usually non-functional protein product.
(NEUROFIBROMATIS TYPE 1)

361
Q

What is an elongation mutation?

A

An elongation mutation is a point mutation that changes a stop codon
into an amino acid coding triplet.

362
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

Frameshift mutation (also called a framing error or a readingframe shift)
is a geneticmutationcaused by indels (insertions or deletions)
of a number of nucleotides in a DNA sequence that is not divisible by three.

363
Q

Explain the deletions mutations:

A

Deletions:
3 or a multiple of 3 bases
e.g. cystic fibrosis the most frequent mutation = 3 base-pair deletion
→ 1 amino acid is missing (delta F 508 = phenylalanine is missing)
indel variant

Total gene deletion
e.g. X- linked ichtyosis
There is a complete deletion of the steroid sulphatase gene

Large deletions within a gene
e.g. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
There is a large deletion within the dystrophin gene.

Whole gene duplication
e.g. Charcot –Marie-Tooth

364
Q

How do deletions and duplications originate?

A

Unequal crossing over (aberrant recombination)

Unequal exchange between misaligned sister chromatids

Insertion of mobile elements (transposons LINE, Alu) –larger insertions

365
Q

The risk of chromosomal abnormalities (trisomies) are strongly associated with increased maternal or paternal age?

A

The risk of chromosomal abnormalities (trisomies) are strongly associated with increased maternal age eg. Down Syndrome.
This is linked to an increased risk of nondisjunction in aging women.

366
Q

What are the molecular consequences of mutations?

A

Mutations can lead to loss of enzyme function. These mostly become expressed by recessive inheritance

Mutations can cause a gain in abnormal function or to the production of an abnormal structural protein. They mostly become expressed by dominant inheritance

Dominant-negative mutations (also called antimorphic mutations) cause an abnormal altered gene product which inhibits the protein produced by the normal allele in a heterozygote.

367
Q

What are the genetic causes of cancers?

A

Cancers - sporadic = non-heritable, multifactorial predisposition
- heritable - 5% of tumors familial (AD heredity with reduced penetrance)
Cancers are genetic disorders - consequences of mutations and other genetic changes and alteration of epigenetic mechanisms (epigenetic mechanisms comprise changes in gene expression without any modification of the DNA sequences, e.g. DNA methylation, histone modification…)
Cancer = malignant tumor
Tumor = abnormal mass of tissue – benign (not cancer) or malignant (cancer)

368
Q

What are the different forms of cancers?

A

Forms: sarcomas – mesenchymal tissue
carcinomas – epithelial tissue
hematopoetic and lymphoid malignancies (leukemias, lymphomas)

369
Q

What are some characteristic features of malignant tumors:

A

uncontrolled growth,
invasivity,
metastases
Cancer cells are resistant to signals normally leading to growth inhibition, to apoptosis, to inhibition of angiogenesis and ability to produce metastases

370
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

= multistep process – genetic and environmental factors
multiple mutations (in growth controlling genes)
multiple causes and mechanisms

371
Q

What are the genetic factors of cancer origin?

A

Sporadic cancers = consequences of mutations of specific genes (growth-controlling genes) in somatic cells:

  1. Proto-oncogenes (AD)→ oncogenes → abnormal cell division
  2. Tumor suppressor genes (AR) - loss of both alleles → abnormal cell division
  3. Mutator genes = genes involved in reparation (AR)→ increased frequency of mutations and chromosomal changes = genome instability = high risk of tumors (in recessive homozygotes)
    = indirect effect of mutator genes on malignant transformation
372
Q

What are the environmental factors (genotoxic) of cancer origin?

A
  • chemical carcinogens (induction of DNA adducts, breaks of chromosomes, deletions, fusions …)
  • physical: UV, ionizing radiation
  • biological: DNA tumor viruses (e.g. Human papilloma virus, EBV – B-cell lymphoma) RNA tumor viruses – retroviruses (e.g. HTLV – T-cell leukemia)
373
Q

What role do mutations have in the initiation of carcinogenesis?

A

Non-genotoxic carcinogens: induction of inflammation, support of proliferation, changes in epigenetic mechanisms (DNA methylation, histone modification, i.e. change in gene expression)

374
Q

What are protooncogenes and oncogenes?

A

Oncogene = abnormal form of a gene involved in normal cell growth, i.e. proto-oncogene

Proto-oncogenes: promote cell survival, proliferation, differentiation
Role of proto-oncogenes products:
- in cell communications
- in transport of signal from cell surface to the genes which regulate cell cycle

375
Q

Proto-oncogenes code for what?

A

growth factors (e.g. proto-oncogene SIS codes for a part of growth factor PDGF)
growth factor receptors (e.g. HER2/NEU=ERBB2 codes for receptor of EGFR)
GTP binding proteins, GTPases ( e.g. proteins of RAS gene family)
tyrosinkinases (e.g. abl, src)
cytoplasmatic proteins (e.g. proteinkinases)
transcription factors (e.g. fos, jun, erb)
cell cycle regulation proteins (e.g. myc, myb)
anti-apoptotic proteins

376
Q

How does a protooncogene change to an oncogene?

A

= gain of function changes
Mechanisms:
gene mutation

chromosomal rearrangement: translocation, inversion

retroviral insertion
amplification

epigenetic changes – e.g.changes in gene methylation, histone modification (resulting in an abnormal gene expression)

377
Q

What are the consequences of a change of protooncogene to an oncogene?

A

synthesis of an abnormal product as a consequence of a change in gene structure (via mutation or fused gene) = qualitative change

increased synthesis of normal product as consequence of a change in regulation of transcription (position effect), or amplification = quantitative change

Only change of one allele can lead to abnormal cell division (i.e. AD = dominant character of mutation of proto-oncogene)

378
Q

What are examples of chromosomal translocations involving proto-oncogenes?

A

CML = chronic myelogenous leukemia
Ph1 chromosome = t(9q;22q) = reciprocal translocation of proto-oncogene c-ABL from 9q to 22q near to proto-oncogene
BCR → fused gene BCR/ABL → abnormal protein with stable tyrosine kinase activity = abnormal stimulation of cell division

BL = Burkitt lymphoma – t (8q;14q)
Proto-oncogene c-MYC is transferred from 8q to 14q near to immunoglobulin genes (IgH) → abnormal transcriptional activity of proto-oncogene in new position → increased synthesis of normal product

379
Q

What are cytogenetic manifestations of oncogene amplification?

A

„double minutes“ – free circular copies of amplified oncogene (non-mutated)

HSR=homogenously staining regions = amplified copies tandemly inserted to chromosome

380
Q

How do DNA tumor viruses work?

A

DNA tumor viruses - they introduce oncogenes to the cell
Oncogene = viral gene encoding protein essential for viral replication
After integration of virus: product of viral oncogene interfere with normal cell processes, such as function of tumor suppressor genes …
e.g. HPV – human papilloma virus (vaginal carcinoma)

381
Q

How do RNA tumor viruses work?

A

Acute tumor RNA viruses – insert oncogenes - homologous to cell proto-oncogenes (i.e. mRNA copies of cell proto-oncogenes) = process called transduction

382
Q

What are latent tumor viruses?

A

Latent tumor viruses (slowly transforming) - lack of oncogene integration of virus to specific sites in genome near the cell proto-oncogene = insertion mutagenesis
After viral integration: strong regulation viral sequences – (LTR sequences) increase expression of cell proto-oncogene
e.g. ALV = avian leukosis viruses

383
Q

What are retroviruses?

A

= RNA tumor viruses – rapidly transforming
Their oncogenes – homologous to cell proto-oncogenes

viral oncogenes (without introns)
Origin = from cell proto-oncogenes
Probable origin: Integration of virus (DNA copy of viral genome transcribed by reverse transcriptase) to host genome near cell proto-oncogene

replication and transcription of viral genome with genome of host cell
mRNA transcript of cell proto-oncogene after introns splicing is „picked up“ by virus together with viral genome and after subsequent mutations in transduced gene, virus can be transferred to another cell (together with intact viral particles)

384
Q

What is an indirect effect of viruses to tumor origin?

A

induction of immunosuppression

385
Q

What are tumor supressor genes?

A

Products - suppress cell division and abnormal proliferation, promote apoptosis
Codes for kinase inhibitors, check-point control proteins, proteins that promote apoptosis…
loss of function of both alleles → malignant transformation
= recessive character of mutation
Loss of function of tumor suppressor genes via:
point mutation
deletion
chromosome loss
abnormal methylation (epigenetic change)
mitotic recombination

386
Q

What cancer is associated with tumor supressor genes?

A

Retinoblastoma (RB) – two-step origin of cancer
Hereditary tumor: bilateral
1st step = germline mutation (or deletion) of one allele of Rb1 gene = heritable or „de novo“ origin in one germ cell of parent mutation in all cells of body = individual is heterozygote

2nd step: somatic mutation, or other genetic change of the 2nd allele in one cell of retina = loss of heterozygosity (LOH)
b) Sporadic form : unilateral mutation of both alleles are somatic - in one cell of retina
Tumor suppressor gene RB1 located on chromosome No 13

387
Q

Retinoblastoma has a recessive or dominant character?

A

Retinoblastoma: recessive character of mutation of tumor suppressor gene RB1 on the cell level
Heredity of retinoblastoma: AD with reduced penetrance

388
Q

What are other tumors caused by mutation of tumor suppressor genes?

A

Wilms tumor: embryonal tumor of kidney - nephroblastoma

Li-Fraumeni syndrome = heritable mutation of TP53 = tumor families = different tumors in young people in family
Tumor suppressor gene TP53 – protein p53=transcription factor

Function: manager of genes involved in DNA reparation and apoptosis
blocks cell cycle and starts DNA reparation in G1 or G2 (cell cycle checkpoints)

if DNA damage is unrepaired it starts apoptosis
Mutation of TP53 in many tumors

389
Q

What are the causes of heritable tumours?

A

Causes of heritable tumors:
Heredity of germinal mutations (or deletions) of one allele of tumor suppressor genes (e.g. retinoblastoma, nephroblastoma, Li-Fraumeni syndrome…)

390
Q

What is evidence for tumor heredity?

A

Evidence for tumor heredity:
same cancer or same cancer type in more members of family
early onset of tumor
bilaterality of multifocality of tumor
more than one type of cancer in a single person (breast and ovarian cancer)
cancer occuring in the sex not usually affected (breast cancer in man)

391
Q

What are mutator genes?

A

Genes responsible for DNA repair –
Recessive homozygotes are not able to repair DNA damage→high sensitivity to mutagens, high risk of tumors
Mutations have recessive character
Example: heritable nonpolyposis colon cancer
chromosome instability syndromes = chromosomal breakage syndromes

392
Q

How is sex determined?

A
  • Gender is determined by sperm
393
Q

What are the different types of sex traits?

A
  • sex-limited – expressed only in one sex – secondary sexual characteristics
    o genetically based in both sexes, but it’s only expressed in one (e.g. gene for the development of shell is also
    present in cocks but it is not expressed in them)
  • sex-influenced – level of expression is different in different sex (e.g. early baldness as an AD trait in men)
  • both are encoded on autosomes
394
Q

What are sex-related traits?

A

no disease carried on Y – it is too small
o in X it depends on the site, either homologous or heterozygous site
o homologous site – traits incompletely linked to sex
o heterologous site – traits completely linked to sex

395
Q

Describe chromosome X

A

contains pseudoautosomal site
o specific site on chromosomes X a Y -for genes in homologous site applies autosomal type of heredity
- one of the largest chromosomes contains 1098 genes = is indispensable
- so that there is a balanced genetic dose in men and women-> Barr body

396
Q

Describe Y chromosome

A

pseudoautosomal homologous region – on distal ends of short (Xp a Yp) and long (Xq a Yq) arms of sex chromosomes are homologous regions, in these regions recombination can occur
o ensure the pairing with chromosomes X
- SRY gene on Yp determines male gender (SRY gene is found in the SRY region = Sex-determining region Y)
o SRY gene helps in the formation of testes → production of testosterone

397
Q

What is the development without chromosome Y like?

A

XX or XY (if there is translocation/deletion of SRY region)
- embryo – formed primarily as a woman - until 5. week of pregnancy nothing happens - „quite before the storm “
- primitive sex cords break down -> proliferation of epithelial cortical cords
- oestrogen – from the mother, placenta + fetal ovaries
o development of paramesonephric Müllerian ducts -> development of uterus and uterine tubes
o development of mesonephric Wolffian ducts -> differentiation of male genitalia

398
Q

What is the development with chromosome Y like?

A

Leydig cells in mesenchyme -> production of androgen (testosterone)
o Formation of vas deferens and epididymis
- 7. week pregnancy – formation of zinc finger proteins -> proliferation of testicular cords -> differentiation of external
genitalia
- 7. month - regression of testes into the scrotum

399
Q

What are some disorders of Sex determination due to mutation of SRY gene?

A

male phenotype with genotype 46, XX can have 2 causes
o 1) abnormal crossing over - gene SRY translocated to X
§ X with SRY region – genotype of a woman, phenotype of a male -> sterile
§ In the same way, it can also receive Y with no SRY region – genotype of a male XY, phenotype of woman, no menstruation

o 2) translocation – SRY gene translocated into autosome
- female phenotype with genotype 46, XY can be caused by deletion or mutation of SRY genu

400
Q

What are some disorders of the gonads and sex traits?

A

a) hermaphroditism – presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue; double-faced genitalia (ambiguous), usually sterile
b) pseudohermaphroditism – presence of gonadal tissue of only one sex but with ambiguous or opposite external
genitalia; secondary sexual characteristics of opposite sex

o female pseudohermaphroditism 46, XX; normal ovaries, but external male genitals and secondary sexual characteristics
§ congenital adrenal hyperplasia - AR disorder, deficiency of 21-hydroxylázy of adrenal cortex, cortisol and aldosterone down, androgens up

o male pseudohermaphroditism 46, XY; normal testes, but outer female genitalia and secondary sexual characteristics
§ 1) deficiency of steroid 5-α-reductase - AR disorder, androgens down
§ 2) androgen insensitivity syndrome - X linked disease, mutations of androgen receptors

  • androgens – hormones responsible for the development of male sex organs and development of secondary sexual traits
    (testosterone is an androgen) z
401
Q

What are monogenic disorders with classic Mendelian inheritance like?

A

Monogenic disorders with classic Mendelian inheritance are
o dominant in structural defects
o recessive in enzyme defects – enzymes are produced in excess, one allele is therefore enough to maintain a
normal working metabolism

402
Q

Describe the autosomal dominant trait

A

one parent is affected (heterozygote) = 50% children are effected heterozygotes and 50% children will be healthy
o both parents are affected (heterozygotes) = 25% children will be affected homozygotes, 50% children will be affected heterozygotes and remaining 25% of children will be healthy
o effected are usually heterozygotes, because homozygotes have a more severe progression of disease and die at an early age
o vertical pedigree character – in each generation there is an
effected member
§ technically does not always have to apply due to incomplete penetrance (individual is not sick, even though it has the genes for the disease)
§ inheritance of disease is not gender dependent
o healthy individuals have usually heathy children (if there isn’t a mutation de novo)

403
Q

Describe autosomal recessive trait

A

manifestation of disease only in recessive homozygotes
o if both parents are carriers then they will have 25 % children effected, 25 % healthy and 50 % carriers
o horizontal pedigree character – healthy individual has a sudden sick child
o AR disorders are the most common in consanguinity

404
Q

Describe X-linked recessive traits

A

Mutated genes are linked to gonosomes => gender of child and parents must be put into account
o men have only one X chromosome (are hemizygotes), are either healthy or
sick
o women have two X chromosomes and can be sick, healthy or carriers (1 mutated and 1 healthy X)
o sick man -> 100% healthy children, but all daughters are carriers
o mother carrier -> 50% sick sons, 50% carrier daughters
o disease occurs every second generation (women carriers transfers the
disease to their son, who is then sick, transfers it to his daughter, she is a
carrier but appears healthy à disease skipped a generation
§ this type of heredity looks like incomplete penetrance
o if one woman is sick (and suspects that the mutation did not form de novo)
§ father had to be sick and mother carrier
§ all sons will be sick and all daughter will be carriers
§ exception in
* women with Turner syndrome (X0) – only one X -> will always be sick if it receives a mutated allele
(technically a hemizygote)
* women with testicular feminization syndrome (XY) – externally a woman, but has testes (also
hemizygote)

o pedigree
§ disease can never be carried from father to son, men are sick only through the female line
§ daughters of sick men are always carriers

405
Q

Describe X-linked dominant traits

A

are rare
o effected man + healthy woman -> healthy sons, sick daughters

406
Q

What are some autosomal dominant diseases?

A
  • lactose Intolerance -
  • Adult polycystic kidney disease –
  • Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1, von Recklinghausen disease)
  • Tuberous sclerosis
  • Huntington disease
  • Hereditary spherocytosis
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta
  • Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
  • Marfan syndrome
  • Achondroplasia
  • Familiar adenomatous polyposis coli (FAPC)
  • Retinoblastoma
407
Q

What are some autosomal recessive diseases?

A

-Primary hemochromatosis („bronze diabetes “)
- Cystic fibrosis
- α1-antitrypsin deficiency
- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
- Phenylketonuria
- Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome
- Tay-Sachs disease
- Gaucher disease
- Niemann-Pick disease
- Mucopolysaccharidoses
- Galactosemia + fructose intolerance
- Hepatic (von Gierke disease) or Muscle (Pompe disease)
- Sickle cell anemia
- Alfa-thalassemia
- Beta-thalassemia

408
Q

What are X-linked recessive diseases?

A

X-linked recessive disease
- daltonism – mutation in gene coding for rhodopsin (red-green colour-blindness)
- nonspecific X-linked mental retardation - frequency 1/2 000 men
- Fragile X syndrome - frequency 1/4 000 men, belong to dynamic mutations (non-Mendelian), mental retardation

409
Q

What are X-linked muscular dystrophy diseases?

A
  • Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy (DMD a BMD) – diseases have a different site of deletion of the same gene
    o Progressive muscular atrophy, affects mainly men
    o mutated gene for dystrophin, which leads to the breakdown of muscle fibre, cause of death is usually heart failure
    § dystrophin has the longest gene and several tissue specific promotors
    § ensure the attachment to the extracellular fibres – ensure the communication between the inside and outside
    o muscular fibres die and are replaced by connective tissue;
    o problems walking from a young age, begin to walk later, cannot jump, need support when standing up

o Duchenne - frequency 1/3 500 men
§ Upper variant – effects the dystrophin connection site for actin
§ Manifestation in early childhood, death around 20 years old
§ Muscle fibrosis
§ 33 % mutation de novo
o Becker - frequency 1/20 000 men
§ Milder variant, disease effects sites in the central region of the protein, where it is hidden, onset at 11 years

410
Q

What are X-linked coagulation defects?

A

X-linked coagulation defects
- Haemophilia
o No coagulation due to no or insufficient formation of coagulation factors (total 12) VIII or IX
o First signs manifest when the concentration of coagulation factors decreases below 10% of standard level, under 1% is considered severe
o Pathological phenotype – less than 5 % coagulation factor
o Spontaneous bleeding post mild traumas, bleeding into joints and GIT
§ Bleeding into large joints -> arthrosis -> hemarthrosis
o haemophilia A - frequency 1/5 000 men; deficiency of coagulation factor VIII
o haemophilia B - frequency 1/35 000 men; deficiency of coagulation factor IX
o there is also Haemophilia C, AR (4. chromosome), very rare and deficiency of coagulation factor

411
Q

What is an example of an X-linked dominant disease?

A

X-linked dominant disease
- Vitamin D resistance rickets (hypophosphatemic rickets)
o Practically no longer exists nowadays
o Kidneys have an impaired ability to reabsorb phosphate, which causes abnormal ossification

412
Q

What ere gene interactions?

A

Gene interactions are basically polygenic inheritance, for one trait, two or more genes are involved
- Monogenic inheritance - 1 trait = 1 gen, genes segregated independently on each other
- Polygenic inheritance - 1 trait = 2 and more genes, which affect each other via gene interactions
o Polygenic disorder – influenced by more than one gene
o Genotype ratio like in dihybrids, but less phenotypic diversity – due to gene interactions
- Types of gene interactions
1) reciprocal interactions
2) epistasis (dominant and recessive)
3) inhibition
4) complementarity
5) multiplicity

413
Q

What are reciprocal interactions?

A

Alleles of two or more genes contribute to the phenotype. Each possible combination of these alleles has a separate phenotype
- analogue of incomplete dominance – more genes, each determining a different phenotype final phenotype is the mixture of all
o e.g.: flower has 3 genes for determining colour with reciprocal interactions, one gene is green, second is red, third is blue. When these 3 colours mix, we get white à flower is white
- interaction without the change of phenotypic ratio of Mendelian inheritance = phenotypic categories do not mix

414
Q

What is epistasis?

A

relationship of superiority and subordination
- epistatic gene suppresses phenotype manifestation of hypostatic gene genu
- unilateral relationship
o between alleles of two genes (M > N)
o between alleles of more genes (M > N > R > S)

415
Q

What are examples of dominant epistasis in humans?

A

eye colour and hair colour

416
Q

What are examples of dominant epistasis in humans?

A

eye colour and hair colour

417
Q

What is example of recessive epistasis in humans?

A

ABO blood group system

418
Q

What is inhibition?

A
  • similar to dominant epistasis, except that dominant epistatic allele has no effect itself on the phenotype, can only
    inhibit the effect of hypostatic alleles
419
Q

What is complementarity?

A

bilateral relationship between alleles of interactive genes, no superiority/subordination; genes operate on the same
level

420
Q

What is multiplicity?

A

bilateral relationship of alleles of interactive gene, but unlike for complementarity one dominant alleles in any one
these genes is enough for it to become expressed in a trait
- types of multiplicities
o noncumulative – for full expression of trait, one dominant allele is needed, others are not needed and do not change the phenotype
o cumulative – intensity of phenotype depends on the number of alleles present; one allele is enough for phenotype to become expressed and any if any other are present they intensify the phenotype. It is further
divided into dominant / without dominance
o during duplicity gene interactions, genes are not qualitatively different

421
Q

What is polygenic inheritance?

A

Polygenic inheritance – certain trait is inherited through numerous genes which have a small and additive effect on the
phenotype
o These genes have an additive effect -> during the formation of the trait they are added up ( the more genes the stronger the trait/disorder)

422
Q

What is multifactorial complex inheritance?

A

multifactorial (complex) inheritance – when genes interact with environmental factors

423
Q

What is multifactorial inheritance?

A

effect of genes is not enough to cause the disorder -> people have predispositions, but not all effected will manifest the disorder, environmental factors also play a role

424
Q

What is teratogenesis?

A

interrupts the development of fetus -proliferation, distribution, migration and integration of cells, reduction of
excessive parts (e.g. in-between fingers – first a mass of cells, then cells die (apoptosis) forming spaces between our
fingers, giving them shape
- morphogenetic system = processes of embryo development
o embryonal – organs and organ systems
o fetal – organ components
o perinatal – integrated systems (nervous, endocrine, immune)
o postnatal - haematopoiesis, immune system

425
Q

Describe the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium

A

Hardy-Weinberg Law - the assumption is that there are only 2 alleles in the population – standard allele A and mutated allele a
- frequency(A) = p frequency(a) = q
- frequency of both alleles = p + q = 1
- frequency of genotypes = p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
- Hardy-Weinberg law says that gene and genotype frequencies remain the same across generations – under the condition that the frequency of alleles does not change (population is in equilibrium)à e.g. if we know that 10% of
population is heterozygote, we can mathematically prove that under generations this value does not change
- X linked genes in males – frequency of alleles = frequency of genotypes = p + q = 1
o Man affected with X linked disease = q
o Woman affected by X linked dominant disease = q
o Women affected with X linked recessive disease = q2

426
Q

What are the conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

Conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

1) random mating
2) no mutations
3) no selection (natural or artificial)
4) no migration
5) population is large enough, for there to not be a genetic drift
if there is selection and mutation and still everything is in equilibrium, law still applies

427
Q

What are disturbances of hardy Weinberg equilibrium?

A

Non-random mating
- Assortative mating - = non-random mating, choice of mate
- Stratification of population – population divided into subgroups (ethnics) -> due to stratification, pairing is limited to certain groups
- consanguinity = extreme cases of selective pairing, where there is an increased risk of polygenic AR disease
o risk of being affected by AR disease in a marriage between relatives is F * q (F =
coefficient of interbreeding, q = frequency of alleles in population)

428
Q

What is the result of consaquinity?

A

consanguinity leads to the decrease of heterozygotes and increase of homozygotes

429
Q

What is genetic drift?

A

genetic drift – alleles can disappear randomly, 50/50 inheritance of alleles,
can happen that one allele is not inherited in a generation and is lost

430
Q

What is founder effect?

A

founder effect – if in a small group of founders of a large population is a carrier of a rare allele, this allele will after many generations have a higher
occurrence in the population

431
Q

What are congenital numerical chromosomal abnormalities?

A

congenital numerical – gene mutation
o aneuploidy – one chromosome missing or in addition
§ trisomy 2n+1, monosomy 2n-1
o polyploidy – multiplication of haploid set
§ lethal – abortion, if children are born, they will die soon after birth,
§ triploidy 3n, tetraploidy 4n

432
Q

What are congenital structural abnormalities?

A

congenital structural
o balanced – no genes missing or in addition, only their rearrangement
§ Robertsonian translocation, reciprocal translocation, inversion
o unbalanced – genes missing or in addition
§ deletion, duplication, ring/dicentric/izo-chromosome

433
Q

What are acquired chromosomal abnormalities?

A

acquired – via mutagens (clastogenes) and time, abnormalities in small amounts are found in all of us
o mutations do not occur in all cells

434
Q

What is a chimaera?

A

chimaera – formed by the fusion of two zygotes – what should be dizygotic twins is joined to form one large zygote, this
individual will have genes of zygote 1 and genes of zygote 2
o karyotype 46, XX/46, XY or 46, XX/46, XX -> from two zygotes (oocyte + sperm / polar body + sperm)

435
Q

What is a mosaic?

A

mosaic – one of the first cell divisions of a zygote is faulty and the individual with a mosaic will have 2 cell lines only with a slightly different karyotype
o formed from one zygote (either normal or abnormal)

436
Q

What are ways how triploidy can be formed?

A

3 possible ways

  1. egg + 2 sperm („dispermy“, 23 + 23 + 23 = 69 chromosomes) - partial mole
  2. diploid egg + sperm (46 + 23 = 69 chromosome)
  3. egg + diploid sperm (23 + 46 = 69 chromosome) - partial mole
  • triploidy is lethal, if a child is born it will die soon after
  • triploidy is most commonly formed by dispermy
437
Q

What is the difference between a partial and a complete mole?

A

partial mole – in a way a tumour (rarely malignant)
o a mass of overgrown trophoblast with some tissue
o triploidy fetus with extra paternal chromosomes (1 maternal, 2 paternal)

  • complete mole – formed by the fertilization of an enucleated (no nucleus) egg, only paternal genome
    o hypertrophic trophoblast, villi filled with fluid
438
Q

How is tetraploidy formed?

A

mechanism of endoreduplication, which is the separation of chromosomes without the division of cell
- 92 chromosomes (4 sets of chromosomes); formed postzygotically

439
Q

What is an example of parthenogenesis?

A

ovarian teratoma – duplication of chromosomes and division of unfertilized ovum (diploid)
o results in benign tumour which may have teeth and hair; only maternal genome

440
Q

How does nondisjunction in meiosis and mitosis look?

A

in meiosis – undivided homologous chromosomes in M1 or sister chromatids in M2
o abnormal disomic (diploid) / nullisomic (empty) gamete -> fertilization -> trisomy / monosomy
- in mitosis - undivided chromatid into daughter cell, resulting in a mosaic

441
Q

What are causes of nondisjunction?

A

nondisjunction of 21 occurs 4x more often in oogenesis than spermatogenesis and at the same time 4x more often in M1
than M2
- internal causes – individual risk of individual chromosomes to nondisjunction; increases with age of women above 35
and men above 50
o in women above 35 – error in M1 – aging of egg, dysfunction of mitotic spindle, changes in intracellular environment (due to decrease of hormonal function) and accumulation of mutagens during women’s life
§ error in M2 – delayed fertilization due to over matured egg
- external causes – external mutagens - not main factors of nondisjunction

442
Q

How can a mosaic form from trisomic gamete?

A

loss of chromosome from trisomic gamete
- e.g. cell of Down syndrome 47, XX+21 in its early stage of development loss of 1 chromosome 21, which leads to two
daughter lines – one with down syndrome one healthy 46, XX
- similarly, monosomy can form – if healthy cell loses a chromosome, suddenly there are 45

443
Q

What are the consequences of numerical chromosomal aberrations?

A

monosomy X – only monosomy suitable for life (even though 99% of cases are aborted)
- autosomal monosomy – always lethal, always early spontaneous abortion (mother is not even aware of her pregnancy)
- autosomal trisomy – only some have a chance to be born – trisomy 21, 18, 13 a mosaic 8
o other autosomal trisomies were described only in abortions (16. Is the most common)

444
Q

What diseases are caused by numerical chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Down syndrome (+21)
Edwards syndrome (+18)
Patau syndrome (+13)
Turner syndrome (45, X; …)
Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY; …)
Syndrome three X (47, XXX)
Syndrome two Y (47, XYY)

445
Q

What are structural chromosomal aberrations?

A

except for Robertsonian translocations everything attributes to clastogenes (= mutagens causing chromosomal aberrations)
- can occur anytime between G1, S, G2 and M phase as a result of bad (or no) correction of DNA breaks
- can be balanced/unbalanced and congenital/acquired
o balanced – abnormal rearrangement without the loss of genetic material
o unbalanced – genetic material is missing or gained
o congenital – in all types or cells or a large majority
o acquired – only in a few cells
- obtained chromosomal aberration are detected after cultivation of human peripheral lymphocytes

446
Q

What are unbalanced structural chromosomal aberrations?

A
  • all are connected with congenital disorders, mental retardations and abnormal development
  • deletion,
    duplication,
    ring chromosome,
    dicentric chromosome,
    Isochromosome,
    additional marker chromosome
447
Q

Deletion (del)

A

partial monosomy
- loss of genetic material
- terminal deletion – cleavage of end part of chromosome
- interstitial deletion when there are two breaks on one arm and a loss of genetic
material between them
o to place a segment from the fist chromatid into the sister chromatic
through “loops” (G2)
- break mostly occurs in G1
- uneven crossing-over, segregation error in meiosis
- e.g. deletion Xp = small stature, patient is still fertile

448
Q

Duplication (dup)

A

partial trisomy
- duplication or insertion of a segment from a sister chromatid from unequal crossing over
- segregation in meiosis

449
Q

Ring chromosome (ring/r)

A

2 breaks in G1 – at terminal sites of p and q, newly formed chromosome connected both ends and form a circle (ring)
- patient with Turner syndrome most likely had a ring chromosome which has been lost and now they have X-

450
Q

Dicentric chromososme (dic)

A

two breaks of two chromosomes in G1 and the connection of their ends in G2
- translocation dicentric (left) – connection of two centric fragments and two acentric fragments – these two chromosomes are non-functioning and unstable
- isodicentric (right)- breakage of both chromatids and their connection, then inactivation of one centromere, formation
of a pseudodicentric (exists and has been found in humans)

451
Q

Isochromosome

A

transverse division in the centromere in M2/mitosis, there is a duplication of one arm and the loss of the other
- if Xp is lost in women, woman has an X Isochromosome, is still fertile but has a small stature

452
Q

Additional marker chromosome (+mar)

A

marker is an extra and small chromosome
- to find the origin we use FISH method
- can, but does not have to have clinical consequences

453
Q

What are balanced structural chromosome aberrations?

A

do not have an effect on the phenotype (even though the arrangement is different, the genetic material remains the same there is none missing or any extra present)
- problems occur after reproduction, carriers create unbalanced gametes (parent is fine but child is affected)
- men can be sterile (oligospermia – lower concentration of sperm in ejaculate) due to a disorder in pairing homologous
chromosomes in meiosis
- women can cause the transfer of an extra chromosome 21 onto their child
- translocation causes the formation of derivative chromosome
-
Robertsonian translocation (Rob t)
Reciprocal translocation (rcp t)
Inversion (inv)

454
Q

Robertsonian translocation (Rob t)

A

exchange of chromosomal segments of two nonhomologous acrocentric chromosomes during meiosis
- acrocentric chromosomes (13,14,15, 21, 22) have long arms (q) significantly longer and they are more important than
short arms (p)
- if two long arms fuse, nothing happens, because short arms are not that important
- resulting chromosome is the fusion of two chromosomes but is inherited as one, which causes Robertsonian
translocation syndrome
- carrier of balanced nonhomologous Rob t creates 6 types of gametes

455
Q

Reciprocal translocation (rcp t)

A

includes two non-homologous chromosomes
- one break in each chromosome
- both chromosomes then exchange segments which have been broken off
- empirical risk - women 10 %; men 2-5 %
- 4 chromosomes can pair in a quadrivalent – problems after separation
o T1, T2 - N1, N2 = alternate -> balanced + normal gamete
o T1, N2 - T2, N1 = adjacent 1
o T1, N1 - T2, N2 = adjacent 2 unbalanced gamete with duplication and deletion

456
Q

Inversion (inv)

A

transfer of genetic material within one chromosome
- two types, depending on if the rotating part contains centromere or not
- pericentric – breakage on small or long arm, centromere also rotates
- paracentric – two breaks on one arm, no centromere involved
- since the sequence of genes is inverted in that part of the chromosome,
chaos can occur when pairing homologous chromosomes
o risk of recombination increases with the size of the inverted segment

457
Q

What are consequences of balanced structural
aberrations?

A
  • segregation of unbalanced genome (= disabled child / abortion)
  • sterility (mainly in men)
  • in women with aberrant chromosomes they prefer to put these chromosomes into polar bodies, that is why they are
    more resistant to sterility
  • phenotypic effect – small deletion, inversion or wrong arrangement of genes can lead to dysregulation of gene
    expression, aberration will be expressed
458
Q

What are indications for chromosomal examination?

A

postnatal- specific phenotype, psychomotoric retardation, growth disorder, malformation, limb swelling, sterility,
delayed puberty, no menstruation in women, malformation of genitals, is family relatives have aberrations
- prenatal- increased age of mother (35+ at time of birth), pathological values of markers, abnormal ultrasound,
aberration in at least one parent

459
Q

What is imprinting?

A
  • Ordinary mechanism of gene expression
  • Mendelian genetics presumes the same expression of homologous alleles inherited from mother and father
  • imprinting does not obey this rule – it is a genetic phenomenon, where the level of gene expression depends on whether it was inherited from mother or father
  • imprinted genes are transcribed only from one allele of a specific parent (the other is inactive)
  • inactive allele is called imprinted
    o Imprinted genes, are genes which are needed at the beginning of development (embryonic development, regulation of cell proliferation), however only one active allele must be present, not two, one needs to be inactive
  • As the mechanism of inactivation is methylation during gamete formation, it is an epigenetic inheritance and an
    epigenetic mechanism of gene expression regulation (this means errors or mutation in this process are pathological)
460
Q

What is the evidence of the imprinting mechanism?

A

At the beginning of embryonic development imprinted gene which prefer paternal genes, help form the placenta (trophoblast). Imprinted genes which prefer maternal genes help in the development of embryo
o This is why human parthenogenesis -> we need the genes of sperm and egg
- Examples of pathology:
o Triploidy with additional paternal set of chromosomes (diploid sperm + egg / two sperm (dispermy) + one egg)
leads to hyperplasia of trophoblast and reduced embryo (partial mole)
o triploidy with extra maternal set of chromosomes (sperm + diploid egg) small placenta formed
o if sperm fertilizes egg with no chromosomes inside (enucleated), division of only male pronucleus => only
placenta, no embryo (complete mole)
o if egg starts to divide without fertilization, only maternal genes present no paternal only embryo and no placenta (ovarian teratoma) – benign tumour, can grow teeth and hair

461
Q

Prader willi syndrome and angelman syndrome

A
  • PWS symptoms include: obesity, small stature, hypogonadism and mental retardation
    o caused by the absence of PWS genes, which are inherited from father (mothers are imprinted = inactive)
  • AS symptoms include: dysmorphic features, problems with sleep, slim figure, mental retardation and uncontrolled
    inappropriate laughter
    o caused by the absence of AS genes, which are inherited from mother (fathers are imprinted = inactivated)
  • genes for PWS and AS are on long arms of chromosome 15, right next to each other
462
Q

Beckwith-Wiedmann Syndrome (BWS)

A

also, known as EMG syndrome (Exomphalos-Macroglossia-Gigantism)
- Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome symptoms may include abdominal wall defects, macroglossia, gigantism, enlargement
of organs, neonatal hypoglycaemia and increased risk of tumours – e.g. Wilms tumour
- Reciprocally imprinted genes are next to each other on 11p15 IGF2 (expression of paternal allele) and H19 (expression of maternal allele)
- Same problem as in PWS and AS -> duplication, deletion, uniparental disomy (UDP), translocation or faulty imprinting
can lead to a different state than the normal physiological one (1 active allele IGF2 and 1 active allele H19) and every
abnormality of this type causes Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome

463
Q

Imprinting and cancers

A

Main mechanism of imprinting is methylation, which closely links with proto-oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes
- proto-oncogenes – for expression need both alleles active, if one allele is imprinted, the whole gene is disabled
o if an inactive allele becomes demethylated (loss of imprinting), the proto-oncogene is turned into an oncogene and tumour forms

  • tumour suppressor genes
    o if accidental imprinting of one tumour suppressor gene occurs, the loss of the second healthy allele will cause
    tumour development à imprinting of tumour suppressor genes means high predisposition to tumours
    o e.g. WT1 (11p13, more below)
    § IGF2R (6q26) – gene of receptor for IGF2 (insulin-like growth factor 2), marks IGF2 for degradation,
    however if there is no receptor, IGF2 is not degraded and cell continues to receive signals to grow
  • methylation is however reversible - methylation and demethylation is studied as one of the possible cures in cancers
464
Q

Wilms tumour (WT)

A

malignant tumour of kidneys/kidneys of small children (max. 3 years old)
- locus 11p13 – associated with WAGR
o WAGR = genetic syndrome, predisposition for Wilms tumour, Aniridia (absence of iris), Genital anomalies and mental Retardation
o WT1 – tumour suppressor gene, if imprinting occurs – predisposition to tumours
- locus 11p15 – associated with BWS -> high no. copies of growth gene IGF2
o gene IGF2 (from father) codes for IGF2 (insulin-like growth factor 2), if there are more genes -> more IGF2 ->
more growth -> BWS
o deletion or translocation of maternal alleles H19 causes activation of maternal allele IGF2

465
Q

Uniparental disomy

A

inheritance of 2 homologous chromosomes from one parent
- mechanisms of UPD origin
o loss of chromosome in trisomic gamete
o gametic complementation – fertilization between nullisomic and disomic gametes
o duplication of single chromosome in monosomic gamete
o postzygotic nondisjunction and duplication or mitotic recombination
- results of UPD - abnormality in the case that chromosomes contain imprinted genes

466
Q

Fragile X syndrome (FXS)

A

dynamic mutation
mutation in promotor for gene FMR1 (Fragile X Mental Retardation 1) on X chromosome, most commonly increased
number of CGG trinucleotides in 5’ promoter region FMR1
o cause of mutation – instability of specific microsatellite repeats

467
Q

What are the two groups of mutations?

A

amplification in noncoding regions (promotor, intron)
o usually loss of function or abnormal splicing
o Fragile X syndrome (CGG) – in promotor, myotonic dystrophy (CTG) – in introns, Fredrich ataxia (GAA) – in introns

  • Amplification in exon
    o usually CAG (glutamine) leads to abnormal protein (Polyglutamine disorders)
    o Huntington disease - abnormal protein huntingtin and inactivation of associated proteins
    § progressive neurodegenerative disease, manifestation of disease at around 35 years of age – usually
    after reproduction and sooner if carried by father (this will be in the statements)
    o Spinocerebral ataxia - neuromuscular disorder, retinal degeneration
468
Q

What are the Specificities of dynamic mutations?

A

homogeneity – there are no more alleles therefore allelic heterogeneity does not exist
- does not obey Mendel’s inheritance - expressivity, penetrance
- there is no new mutation – formation is gradual through premutations – familiar diseases
- postzygotic origin of amplification on maternal chromsome – determined in oogenesis<

469
Q

What is a postnatal cytogenetic method?

A

Cultivation of peripheral blood lymphocytes
- from peripheral blood (from blood vessels), which we take into heparin syringes
after cultivation, we add colchicine to the mixture which stops cell division in metaphase (acts on the mitotic spindle)
- following that is centrifugation

470
Q

What are indications for postnatal chromosomal examination?

A

specific phenotype
- physical defects
- infertility
- delayed puberty,
- examination of parents and relatives if a chromosomal abnormality is found

471
Q

Prenatal cytogenetic diagnostics

A

Cultivation of amniotic fluid (most reliable)
Cultivation of chronic villi cells
Cultivation of fetal blood
Examination of free fetal DNA from mother’s blood

472
Q

What are indications for prenatal screening?

A

increased age of mother 35 or more during time of birth
- pathological value in biochemical markers in maternal blood
abnormal finding in an ultrasound - e.g. abnormal amount of fluid, nasal bone …
- carrier of balanced chromosomal aberration in at least one parent
- psychological indication

473
Q

C banding

A

an accurate visualisation of constitutive heterochromatin a centromere

474
Q

FISH method

A

FISH = Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization
First, we need to produce a probe
- A probe is a short sequence of nucleotides, to which fluorescent dye is attached
types of probes
o α-satellites – detect the centromeres of specific chromosomes – ideal for counting in non-dividing cells (detects
aneuploidies; chromosomes of unknown origin)
o locus-specific – on specific loci of a chromosome – ideal for the detection of microdeletion, oncogenes, fused
o painting – paint the whole chromosome – good for the detection of aberration or rearrangement of
chromosomes
- FISH method can be used during interphase; in tumours, each pairs stain differently

475
Q

What is an example of a non-cytogenetic method?

A

Microarray analysis (Array CGH)
this method detects unbalanced aberrations

476
Q

What are the types of chromosomal aberrations?

A

chromatid aberrations – typical aberrations after the effect of chemical substances
o chromatid breaks, chromatid exchanges
- chromosome aberrations – typical aberration after radiation
o chromosomal breaks, deletion, translocation, ring, dicentric chromosomes
o effects both chromatids

477
Q

What are examples of physical teratogens?

A

diagnostic irradiation
Hyperthermia
Mechanical causes

478
Q

What are examples of chemical teratogens?

A

food, medicines and drugs
- proved teratogens in 1rst trimester
vitamin A
warfarin
cytostatic
fat soluble vitamins
thalidomide

-drugs
cigarettes, cocaine and LSD
caffeine
alcohol

479
Q

What are examples of biological teratogens?

A

viruses (varicella, rubella, herpes, influenza, viruses), bacteria (syphilis) and protozoa

480
Q

What are preventions of genetic diseases?

A
  • primary prevention – to prevent the origin of inborn defects
  • secondary prevention - control over pregnancy, if a disorder has not developed and if yes, recommend a treatment or terminate pregnancy
  • tertiary prevention – after birth, prevention of disorder complications
481
Q

What is the importance of membranes?

A

Biochemical processes - transport of electrons, oxidative phosphorylation, photosynthesis
- Information processing – transmission of nerve impulses, effects of hormones
- compartmentalization biological pathways

482
Q

What are some examples of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids found in membranes?

A

saturated
o palmitic acid - hydrophobic
o stearic acid- hydrophobic

  • unsaturated
    o have a coiled side chain, due to cis
    double bonds, which keeps the membranes in a fluid state
    § as they are deformed due to cis bonds, they cannot effectively stick together
    o linoleic acid, arachidonic acid - ω-6 fatty acids, essential
    o linolenic acid - ω-3 fatty acids, essential
483
Q

Glycerophospholipids in membrane

A

phosphatidic acid= 2 FA + glycerol + phosphoric acid
o precursor of all TAG and most phospholipids
o FA are bound to glycerol via ester bound
- Own glycerophospholipids are formed by binding another component to
phosphatidic acid
o We add a base containing nitrogen

  • types glycerophospholipids
    o phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) – formed by the attachment of choline § main component of membranes (90 % in new-borns)
    o phosphatidylethanolamine
    o phosphatidylserine
    o phosphatidylinositol
  • phosphatidylinositol phosphate
484
Q

In what from is cholesterol in membranes?

A

cholesterol – in membranes mainly in non-esterified form

485
Q

What is osmosis?

A

movement of solvent molecules across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration

486
Q

Membrane potential

A

membrane potential is formed by the different concentration of ions inside and outside the cell – inside mainly
negative charge, outside positive
- inside - K+ and negatively charged proteins
- outside - Na+ a Cl-
- two forces apply here

o electrical – because all molecules are charged, they attract or repel each other - K+ and Na+ want to go in, Cl-
and proteins want to go out

o concentration - K+ and proteins want to go out, Na+ and Cl- want to go in
o when these two forces are put together, they form an electrochemical gradient
- because K+ want to go in (due to the electrical force) but even out (due to the concentration gradient), these two forces
will compete and K+ will partly leak out of the cell causing a more positive charge outside than inside

487
Q

passive and active transport

A

passive – via concentration gradient
o Facilitated diffusion- e.g. glucose carriers
- active - against concentration gradient
o e.g. taking in glucose from intestines (cotransport of glucose with Na+)

o takes part in maintaining the osmotic balance
o regulated by pumps driven by the hydrolysis of ATP – meanwhile cleaving ATP to ADP and phosphate

488
Q

What substances can cross a membrane?

A

Diffusion of substances across membranes is selective: small hydrophobic molecules (including gas molecules) and small uncharged
polar molecules (including H2O)

489
Q

What transport is mediated by carriers?

A

Uniport: transport of one type of molecules

Symport (coupled transport): cotransport of two types of molecules in the same direction

  • Antiport (coupled transport): contransport of two types of molecules in opposite directions
490
Q

Uniport

A

Passive uniport (along concentration gradient): facilitated diffusion
(transport of amino acids, glucose: GLUT1)

  • Active uniport: ATPases (ATP-driven pumps: Ca2+ pump)
491
Q

Symport

A

Passive symport (rare: Na+ -Cl- symport in frog stomach)
* Active symport (glucose pump)

492
Q

Antiport

A

Passive antiport: exchange diffusion (chloride-bicarbonate exchanger: Cl-/HCO3-, erythrocytes

  • Active antiport (Na+-K+ pump)
493
Q

What are aquaporins?

A

channels facilitating water diffusion across plasma membrane

494
Q

Transport mediated by channels

A

Ligand-gated ion channels: opening is regulated by ligand binding
* Voltage-gated ion channels: opening is regulated by the change of voltage on the membrane

495
Q

What are the different types of intracellular transports?

A

Transport through nuclear pores (gated transport): transport of proteins and RNAs into and from nucleus and cytosol
* Transport across organelle membrane: transport of proteins across organelle membrane (mitochondria, ER) by protein
translocators
* Transport of vesicles (vesicular transport): transport of vesicles
filled with transported molecules within the cell
* Transport of whole organelles: transport of organelles within the cell along cytoskeletal filaments mediated by motor proteins

496
Q

Endocytosis

A

Receptor- mediated endocytosis: clathrin-coated pits endosomes
2 basic types of endocytosis:
* Pinocytosis: small vesicles of fluids and molecules
* Phagocytosis: larger particles (microorganisms, cell debris)

497
Q

Extracellular matrix and its function

A

Extracellular matrix:
system of protein and polysaccharide molecules filling intercellular space.
Main types of macromolecules of extracellular matrix:
* Proteins: * fibrous proteins
* glycoproteins
* Polysaccharides: glycosaminoglycans (GAG) & proteoglycans

Functions of extracellular matrix:
* It fills intercellular space.
* It determines mechanical and other physical properties of the tissue.

498
Q

Cells of connective tissue producing extracellular matrix

A

Extracellular matrix represents basic component of connective tissue.
Cells of connective tissue producing extracellular matrix:
* Fibroblasts (most of connective tissues)
* Chondroblasts (cartilage)
* Osteoblasts (bone)

499
Q

Proteins of extracellular matrix

A

Fibrous proteins:
* Collagens: triple helixes, fibrils, fibers
they contain hydroxyamino acids: hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline
procollagen, collagenase (defect in procollagen or collagenase)
(skin, tendon, bones)
* Elastin: elastin fibers (arteries)

500
Q

Glycoproteins

A

Fibronectin: dimer (bonding to collagen)
Laminin: trimer (bazal lamina)

501
Q

POLYSACCHARIDES OF EXTRACELLULAR
MATRIX

A

Glycosaminoglycans (GAG): disaccharide subunits (amino sugar + uronic acid)
unbranched polysaccharide

Main types of glycosaminoglycans:
* Hyaluronan (it does not contain sulphate)
* Chondroitine sulphate
* Dermatane sulphate
* Heparane sulphate
* Keratane sulphate

502
Q

Proteoglycans

A

Proteoglycans: core protein and attached polysaccharide fibers

Examples of proteoglycans:
* Decorin (common in connective tissues)
* Aggrecan (cartilage)
* Perlecan (basal lamina)
Aggregates of proteoglycans with GAG

503
Q

Cell junctions and their functions

A

Cell junctions: protein structures connecting the cell with another cell or the cell with extracellular matrix
Function of cell junctions:
* Mechanical connection of cells
* Attachment of cells to extracellular matrix
* Communication between cells
Functional types of cell junctions:
* Occluding cell junctions
* Anchoring cell junctions
* Communicating cell junctions

504
Q

Occluding cell junctions

A

Function: sealing the space between cells
Types of occluding cell junctions:
* Tight junctions: claudins, ocludins
Sealing strand (zonula occludens)

505
Q

Anchoring cell junctions

A

Function: interaction cell-cell
interaction cell-extracellular matrix
Types of anchoring cells junctions:
* Junctions bound to microfilaments
* Junctions bound to intermediate filaments

506
Q

ANCHORING JUNCTIONS BOUND TO
MICROFILAMENTS

A

Adherens junction: interaction cell - cell
cadherins
Adhesion belt (zonula adherens)
Focal adhesions: interaction cell - extracelullar matrix
integrins

507
Q

ANCHORING JUNCTIONS BOUND TO
INTERMEDIATE FILAMENTS

A

Desmosomes : interaction cell - cell
cadherins (desmoglein, desmocolin)
Cytoplasmatic plaque (plakoglobin, desmoplakin)
* Hemidesmosomes: interaction cell - extracellular matrix integrins

508
Q

COMMUNICATING CELL JUNCTIONS

A

Function: communication between cells
Types of communicating cell junctions:
* Gap junctions: connexon, connexin

509
Q

TRANSIENT INTERCELLULAR ADHESIONS

A

Selectins: proteins on cell surface (they bind saccharides)
transient cell-cell adhesions in the bloodstream

510
Q

What are the contents of recombinant DNA?

A

polylinker - artificial fragment of DNA with specific spots for restriction endonucleases (RE), which allow to incorporate
gene of interest - transgene into cell
- origin of replication
- selection marker - genes for resistance to two or more antibiotics.

511
Q

monoclonal antibodies

A

monoclonal antibodies – immunoglobulins formed from one B lymphocyte clone, are identical and work against a specific
antigen

512
Q

Cloning and expression vectors for gene delivery into organism

A

we need a stable and replicating DNA molecule
- cloning vector needs to have an origin of replication, one/more restriction sites and selective markers
- bacterial plasmids - small circular DNA molecules replicating outside their own bacterial chromosome
o not ideal vectors for the transfer into mammal DNA (viruses are better)
- bacteriophage lambda, bacteriophage M13
- cosmids – combination of phage and plasmid, circular molecule
- viruses – retroviruses are used for the transfer of therapeutic genes into the mammal cells.
o Older types of virus vectors used to transfer genetic information during gene therapy into the genome almost
randomly, transferred genes would then disturb sequences of other genes
- restriction endonuclease (enzyme type II, also used in PCR) – enzyme cleaves DNA at specific sites (4-8bp) – palindromes
(gene palindromes can be read in both directions)
o these enzymes have bacterial origin
- PCR – method of sectioned DNA replication

513
Q

Transgenic mouse

A

injection of gene of interested into the pronucleus of fertilized egg (shortly after
fertilization the egg has 2 nuclei – one male and one female which are then fused;
these haploid nuclei are called pronucleus)
- transgenic mice can carry foreign genes, which have been introduced into a germ
cell
- this method also helped prove that the SRY gene is responsible for the male gender

514
Q

Stem cells

A

cell which can give rise to a highly-differentiated cell type
- can be obtained by the reprogramming of somatic cells (introducing retroviruses with reprogramming genes)
- are embryonic or infant and adult – bone marrow, peripheral blood, umbilical cord d
- stem cells can undergo unlimited asymmetric mitotic divisions, thereby regenerating
- during transplantation have the ability to reintegrate into the tissue of their origin
- can be created by nuclear transfer

515
Q

Types of stem cells

A

multipotent – can develop into a limited number of cell types in a particular lineage. Differentiate into a limited range of cells
o unipotent – ability of a cell to develop into only one cell type (spermatogonia, used for infertility treatment)
o pluripotent – can give rise to all cell types of the body (but not the placenta)
o totipotent – are capable of differentiating into an unlimited number of specialized cell types (includes zygotes and cells of 4-8 cell stage of early embryo)

516
Q

Obtaining Samples of Cells and Tissues

A

A piece of organ removed from living organism (eg during surgery (BIOPSY)‏
from dead body (NECROPSY)‏

517
Q

Fixation

A

Fixation stops metabolic processes within the cell (by slowing down action or denaturation of enzymes)

Physical methods:
Heat (microwave)‏
Freezing (liquid nitrogen – 170 oC)‏

Chemical methods:
Immersion of samples into fixation fluid‏
Perfusion, ie. injection of fixation fluid into vessels

518
Q

How is a histological slide prepared?

A

sampling -> fixation -> embedding -> cutting -> staining -> done, permanent slide

519
Q

Fixation

A

fixation stops the metabolic pathways in the cell by slowing them down or via enzyme denaturation
- physical methods - heat (microwave) or cold (liquid nitrogen, -170°C, is used more often as it is faster)
- chemical methods - immersion (immersion into fixation liquid) or perfusion (fixation fluid is introduced into the blood)

520
Q

Embedding

A

after cutting it is necessary to harden the tissue by embedding it - paraffin, celloidin
- paraffin nor celloidin can mix with water, therefore it is necessary to remove water from the tissue via alcohol and then
impregnate the tissue with further solvents of embedding medium (xylene, toluene, acetone) which „brighten” the tissue up, procedure is called “clearing”

521
Q

General staining

A

mixture of dye, which stain the tissue in a large spectrum (most commonly on the basis of affinity towards acidic or basic substances)
- haematoxylin-eosin
o dark purple haematoxylin stains acidic (basophilic) parts of cell – DNA & RNA (nucleus, nucleolus, ribosomes, RER)
o light pink eosin stains basic structures of cell (acidophilic, eosinophilic) – mainly proteins (cytoplasm, MIT, SER)
- Weigert-van Gieson –connective tissue is red; cytoplasm is orange
- AZAN – nucleus of erythrocytes is red, collagen fibres and mucin are blue, cytoplasm and muscle are orange
- green Masson trichrome – muscle red, collagen fibres green, nucleus blue-purple-black, Ery red

522
Q

Selective staining

A

stains only one component (elastic fibres, reticular fibres)
- Weigert resorcin fuchsin
o Selective staining for elastic fibres – stains them purple
- Heidenhain iron haematoxylin
o Stains nuclei and cytoplasm grey-black
o Used to stain muscle and in parasitology for detection of parasites (worms) in tissue
- silver impregnation
o silver stains collagen and reticular fibres brown to black
o used also in the staining of neurons and glia in neurohistology

523
Q

Detection of inorganic compounds

A

elements - Hg, Pb, Fe, Ca, Zn and their salts
- Perl’s reaction – detection of Fe2+ in macrophages and spleen
o Fe2+ + 2% HCl + potassium ferrocyanide - Prussian blue is formed

524
Q

Molecules interacting with target molecules can be:

A

Small organic molecules, which are known to bind specifically to our target molecule
§ Phalloidin – binds to filaments of F-actin
§ DAPI and ethidium bromide – binds to DNA
§ paclitaxel – binds to molecules of tubulin

525
Q

Direct vs. Indirect detection

A

direct detection – marked primary antibody
o for the detection of protein, we add an enzyme. The final product shines
- Indirect detection – non-marked primary and marked secondary antibody
o Primary antibody is recognized by secondary antibody, the enzyme is on the secondary antibody
o more than one seocndary antibody can bind onto the primary antibody which leads to amplification of signal

526
Q

Assessment of protein expression level

A

methods based on immunodetection - ELISA, flow cytometry, SDS-PAGE + Western blot
o SDS-PAGE (sodium dodecyl sulphate polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis) – method which is used to separate proteins according to their molecular weight

527
Q

Solute

A

a substance dissolved in a solvent in
forming a solution

528
Q

Solvent

A

a liquid that dissolves another
substance or substances to form a solution

529
Q

molar concentration (= molarity)

A

M = mol/1000 mL
1M solution
⇒ 1 mol of a solute is found in 1000 mL (= 1L) of the solution
0,5M solution
⇒ 0,5 mol of a solute is found in 1000 mL (= 1L) of the sol.

530
Q

percent concentration

A

1% solution
⇒ 1g of a solute is found in 100 g of the solution
0,5% solution
⇒ 0,5g of a solute is found in 100 g of the solution

531
Q

expression of concentration

A

Molarity (c) (mol x l-1 = mol x dm-3 = M )
= number of moles per liter of a solution

c=n/v

532
Q

isotonic hypertonic and hypotonic solutions

A

Hypotonic has a lower concentration of fluid, sugars and salt than outside.
Hypertonic has a higher concentration of fluid, sugars and salt than outside
Isotonic has similar concentration of fluid, sugars and salt to outside

533
Q

What is oncotic pressure?

A

osmotic pressure of coloidal solutions, e.g.
proteins

534
Q

Atomic number and atomic mass number

A

Atomic number = number of protons in nucleus

Atomic mass number = number of protons + neutrons

535
Q

1 mol is equal to what

A

1 mol is equal to 6.022x1023 particles (atoms, molecules, or ions)

536
Q

What is the molarity of a 0.85 % NaCl solution?

A

0.85 % w/v solution contains 0.85g in 100 mL
1L will contain 8.5g of NaCl
As Mr (NaCl) is 58.44 we can easily calculate how many moles is in 8.5g: 8.5/58.44
Molarity is 0.14 mol/L

537
Q

pH= what?

A

pH = - log c(H3O+)

538
Q

pH calculations

A

pKW = pH + pOH = 14
pK = - log K
pH = - log [H3O+]
pOH = - log [OH-]

539
Q

What are buffers?

A

= solutions which have the ability to absorb
small additions of either a strong acid or
strong base with a very little change of pH.
* buffers are used to maintain stable pH
* composition of buffers:
„conjugated pair: acid /base

540
Q

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

A

pH = pKa + log (cs / ca) (for acidic buffer )
pOH = pKb + log (cs / cb ) (for basic buffer)
pH = 14 - pOH

541
Q

Buffers in body fluids

A

Buffer systems in extracellular fluid:
* bicarbonate (hydrogen carbonate) system (HCO3-/ H2CO3)
* hemoglobin (Hb/Hb-H+ acts as an intracellular buffer within erythrocytes
* plasma proteins, phosphates, sulfates, organic anions

➢Buffer systems in intracellular fluid:
* proteins
* phosphates

➢Buffer systems in the urine:
* phosphates (HPO42-/ H2PO4-)

  • ammonia buffer (NH3/NH4+)
542
Q

What is the chemical composition of cells?

A

1) 60% of mass: water (H2O)

2)organic compounds
a) high molecular weight (proteins, nucleic acids, glycogen)
b) low molecular weight (glucose, lipids, amino acid, intermediates of metabolism – often derivatives of carboxylic acids)

  1. inorganic ions – minerals
543
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? propanol and ethyl methyl ether are
isomers

A

propanol and ethyl methyl ether ARE
isomers

544
Q

Important types of isomers I

A

structural isomers (different constitution of molecules)
* different position of double bonds,
cis-octadeca-9,12,15-trienoic acid cis octadeca-6,9,12-trienoic acid

functional groups or side chains
alpha- / beta-alanine leucine / isoleucine

different order of atoms: different derivatives
propanal / propanone glyceraldehyde / dihydroxyacetone

keto-enol isomers (tautomers)
bases of nucleic acids (e.g. uracil) pyruvate / enolpyruvate

stereoisomers (different configuration in space)
* cis-trans isomers (geometrical isomers)
maleic acid / fumaric acid
* enantiomers (optical isomers – mirror images)
L-amino acid D-glyceraldehyde

545
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? propanal and propanone are isomers?

A

propanal and propanone ARE isomers

546
Q

Can carboxylic acids be reduced to aldehydes?

A

yes they can

547
Q

Important carboxylic acids

A

monocarboxylic acids
formic acid, acetic acid, propionic acid,butyric acid
fatty acids (often even number of carbons)

  • dicarboxylic acids
    oxalic acid, malonic acid, succinic acid,glutaric acid
    fumaric acid
  • benzoic acid
548
Q

Is 2-oxoglutaric acid the same molecule
as α-ketoglutaric acid?

A

Yes

549
Q

Important derivatives of carboxylic acids

A

hydroxy acids
lactic acid, malic acid, β-hydroxybutyric acid
glyceric acid, citric acid (tricarboxylic acid)

oxo acids
pyruvic acid, oxaloacetic acid, acetoacetic acid, α-ketoglutaric acid

amino acids
γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
all proteinogenic acids (21)

550
Q

Important subgroups of amino acids
by their side chain

A

*alcohol group in a side chain
serine, threonine, tyrosine

  • sulfur in a side chain
    cysteine, methionine
  • aromatic amino acids
    phenylalanine, tyrosine, tryptophan, histidine
  • branched-chain amino acids
    valine, leucine, isoleucine
  • acidic amino acids
    aspartic acid (aspartate), glutamic acid (glutamate)
  • basic amino acids
    lysine, arginine, histidine
551
Q

Important derivatives of carboxylic acids
function derivatives

A

anions (salts)
lactate, malate, β-hydroxybutyrate,
pyruvate, oxaloacetate, acetoacetate
α-ketoglutarate, γ-aminobutyrate
fumarate, citrate, glycerate

  • amides
    asparagine, glutamine
  • esters
  • anhydrides
552
Q

monosaccharides

A

C3 - glyceraldehyde (aldotriose), dihydroxyacetone (ketotriose); smallest
saccharides, both are important intermediates of a human metabolism
C5 - ribose, 2-deoxyribose (aldopentoses); components of nucleotides: found in
nucleic acids (ribose in RNA, deoxyribose in DNA)
C6 - glucose, galactose, mannose (aldohexoses), fructose (ketohexose);
components of oligo- and-polysaccharides, metabolic intermediates

553
Q

disaccharides

A

= oligosaccharides composed of 2 monosaccharides:
* sucrose (= saccharose) consists of glucose and fructose
* lactose (= milk sugar) consists of galactose and glucose
* maltose (= malt sugar) consists of two glucoses

554
Q

polysaccharides

A

starch = storage polysacharide of plants, consists of linear amylose and
branched amylopectin; it is a glucan = polymer of glucose
* glycogen = storage polysaccharide of animal cells („animal starch“); it is a
branched polymer of glucose (resembels amylopectin)
* cellulose = structural polysaccharide of plants, linear, water insoluble glucan

555
Q

What are epimers?

A

isomers of saccharides differing in orientation of only one –OH
group in space

556
Q

How are nucleotides classified?

A

purine nucleotides: contain adenine, guanine,
(and hypoxanhine and xanthine = metabolic intermediates)

  • pyrimidine nucleotides: contain cytosine, uracil or thymine
557
Q

Frequencies

A

Frequency of AR disease: q2
Frequency of AD disease: p2 + 2pq
Frequency of X linked disease:
for ♂ (males) p + q = 1
for ♀ (females) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

558
Q

What are lipids?

A

chemically and structurally heterogeneous
substances

Hydrophobic (and so poorly soluble in water and very well soluble in nonpolar solvents)

Their molecules contain alcohols and fatty acids

Their biosynthesis usually starts with acetyl-CoA

559
Q

What are fatty acids?

A

monocarboxylic acids (having 2 or more C atoms)

Typically have odd number of carbon atoms
*If they contain double bonds, they are usually
isolated and in cis-configuration

  • Most of the fatty acids have 16 and 18 C-atoms
560
Q

Sphingomyelin

A

is a compound lipid found in the myelin sheath of the neurons.