Cough Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes of an acute dry and productive cough?

A

Acute dry cough:

  • URTI - such as laryngitis, pharyngitis
  • drugs - ACE inhibitors

Acute productive cough:

  • pneumonia (LRTI)
  • tuberculosis (TB)
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2
Q

What are the causes of chronic dry and productive cough?

A

Chronic dry cough:

  • lung cancer
  • GORD
  • mesothelioma

Chronic productive cough:

  • lung cancer
  • bronchiectasis
  • cystic fibrosis
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3
Q

What are the causes of mixed dry and productive cough?

A

Mixed dry cough:

  • heart failure
  • asthma

Mixed productive cough:

  • heart failure
  • COPD
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4
Q

What type of cough is usually present in heart failure?

A
  • it is usually a dry cough
  • it often produces rust-coloured sputum that signifies haemoptysis
  • sometimes the cough may be productive
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5
Q

What type of cough is usually present in asthma?

A
  • it is usually a dry cough
  • it may be productive and produce sputum if there is an underlying infection
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6
Q

What is the definition of pneumonia?

What are the 3 different types?

A

an infection of the alveoli in the lungs

it is a lower respiratory tract infection

  • community-acquired pneumonia
  • atypical pneumonia
  • hospital-acquired pneumonia
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7
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of community-acquired pneumonia?

A
  • streptococcus pneumoniae
  • haemophilus influenzae B
  • moraxella catarrhalis
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8
Q

What are the common causes of atypical pneumonia?

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumonia
  • Legionella pneumophila
    • ​this is associated with faulty air conditioning systems
  • Chlamydia psittaci
    • this is associated with keeping pet birds
  • Chlamydia pneumoniae
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9
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of hospital-acquired pneumonia?

How is this defined?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Klebsiella
    • this is more common in alcoholics

HAP is defined as acquiring pneumonia after being in hospital for at least 48 hours

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10
Q

What is aspiration pneumonia and what causes it?

A
  • caused by anaerobes from gut flora
  • it occurs when food enters the lungs, often in stroke patients
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11
Q

What are the general risk factors for pneumonia?

A
  • smoking
  • travel
  • being immunocompromised
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12
Q

What are the associated features of Staph aureus and Klebsiella causing hospital-acquired pneumonia?

A

they are both associated with cavitating lesions

it is a gas-filled area of the lung in the centre of a nodule or area of consolidation

this looks like an abscess with an air-fluid level inside

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13
Q

What specific feature is pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia associated with?

A

it is associated with transverse myelitis

this is inflammation of both sides of one section of the spinal cord

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14
Q

What specific features is pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophilia associated with?

A
  • hyponatraemia and abnormal LFTs
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15
Q

What are the normal symptoms associated with typical pneumonia?

A
  • fever
  • shortness of breath (dyspnoea)
  • cough that is productive and produces green sputum
  • pleuritic chest pain
    • this is chest pain that is worse on inspiration
  • confusion
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16
Q

What are the symptoms associated with atypical pneumonia?

A
  • dry cough
  • headache
  • diarrhoea
  • myalgia
  • hepatitis
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17
Q

What clinical signs would you expect to be present on inspection of someone with pneumonia?

A
  • signs of respiratory distress
    • intercostal recession - seeing the ribs going in and out
    • obviously tachypnoeic
  • peripheral / central cyanosis
    • ​e.g. blue lips or nails
  • observations will show raised HR and RR and reduced O2 sats
  • patient will have a drop in BP if it is severe and they are heading towards sepsis
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18
Q

What would you expect to see on palpation, percussion and auscultation in someone with pneumonia?

A

Palpation:

  • reduced chest expansion

Percussion:

  • dull to percussion over areas of consolidation

Auscultation:

  • coarse basal crepitations
  • bronchial breathing
  • increased vocal resonance
    • when patient says “99”, it will sound louder over areas of consolidation
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19
Q

What key feature can make someone more susceptible to atypical organisms that cause pneumonia?

A

being immunocompromised

this can include someone who takes regular steroid medications

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20
Q

What investigations would be done in pneumonia?

A

Bedside tests:

  • sputum MCS

Blood tests:

  • FBC
  • CRP
  • ABG
  • blood cultures

Imaging:

  • chest X-ray
  • also a pleural fluid sample can be taken via thoracentesis for MCS if a pleural effusion is present
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21
Q

What would the blood test results look like in someone with pneumonia?

A
  • FBC shows high WCC
  • CRP will be raised as it is a marker of infection
  • ABG will show type 1 respiratory failure, which is a low O2
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22
Q

If atypical pneumonia is suspected, what additional tests are performed to identify the causative organism?

A
  • serology should be performed
  • urinary antigens and LFTs if legionella is suspected
  • for mycoplasma, a blood film will show cold agglutins
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23
Q

What are the 2 different types of pneumonia on a chest X-ray?

A

Lobar pneumonia:

  • this affects one or more sections (lobes) of the lungs

Bronchopneumonia:

  • this affects patches throughout both lungs
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24
Q

What type of pneumonia is shown in this image?

A

this image shows lobar pneumonia

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25
Q

What type of pneumonia is shown here?

A

this image shows bronchopneumonia

this is shown by patchy / heterogenous consolidation

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26
Q

What are air bronchograms?

A

they are black translucent lines overlying consolidation

the alveoli are full of pus so air builds up in terminal bronchioles behind the alveoli

air is black on x-ray

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27
Q

What scoring system is used to determine the severity of pneumonia?

A

CURB-65 score

  • C - Confusion = 8
  • U - Urea > 7 mmol/L
  • R - Respiratory rate > 30
  • B - Blood pressure < 90/60 mmHg
  • Age > 65

Score of 1 = GP

Score of 2 = A&E (+ short stay)

Score of 3+ = admission (+/- consider ICU)

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28
Q

What is involved in the acute management of pneumonia?

A
  • give oxygen and make sure the patient is sitting upright
  • IV fluids to restore BP
  • IV painkillers (for pleuritic chest pain)
  • IV antibiotics
  • CPAP if required
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29
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat community-acquired pneumonia and atypical pneumonia?

A

Community-acquired:

  • typically amoxicillin is given and co-amoxiclav in severe cases

Atypical:

  • a macrolide such as clarithromycin is given
  • commonly amoxicillin + clarithromycin are given as you are often not sure what exactly is causing the pneumonia
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30
Q

What antibiotics are typically given to treat hospital-acquired pneumonia?

How is this treatment different to that of CAP / atypical?

A

you need to know what is causing the infection before prescribing the antibiotic for HAP

  • flucloxacillin is given if it is Staphylococcus aureus
  • vancomycin is given if it is MRSA
  • tazocin + gentamicin is given if it is Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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31
Q

What antibiotic is given to treat aspiration pneumonia?

A

metronidazole

this is used against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa

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32
Q

What are the potential complications of pneumonia?

A
  • pleural effusion
  • lung abscess - often in Staph aureus infections
  • empyema
    • this is pus in the pleural cavity
  • sepsis
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33
Q

What is a lung abscess and what are the 3 main symptoms of a lung abscess that has occurred as a complication of pneumonia?

A
  • it involves necrosis of the pulmonary tissue and formation of cavities containing necrotic debris or fluid caused by microbial infection
  • swinging fevers
  • persistent pneumonia
  • foul-smelling sputum
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34
Q

What is the definition of tuberculosis infection?

Who are you most likely to catch TB from and why?

A

infection by _Mycobacterium tuberculosis_, which causes multi-systemic disease

you are more likely to catch TB from relatives than strangers as it requires prolonged exposure

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35
Q

What are the 3 / 4 stages of TB infection?

A

Primary:

  • this is the initial infection
  • it is often asymptomatic, but there can be pulmonary symptoms

Latent:

  • asymptomatic infection

Post-primary:

  • reactivation of infection when the individual becomes immunocompromised
    • this can be due to steroid use, increasing age, etc.
  • this leads to severe symptoms

Miliary:

  • lymphohaematogenous dissemination of TB
  • it spreads across the body and causes disease everywhere
36
Q

What are the risk factors for TB?

A
  • travel
  • South Asians / India / Bangladesh
  • immunocompromised individuals e.g HIV infection
37
Q

What are the general signs and symptoms of TB?

A
  • FLAWS
    • fever, lethargy, appetite loss, weight loss, night sweats
  • shortness of breath
  • productive cough that produces green sputum
  • haemoptysis
  • lymphadenopathy
38
Q

What are complications of TB that affect the lungs and brain?

A

Lungs:

  • TB pneumonia (LRTI)
  • pleural effusion

Brain:

  • meningitis
39
Q

What are the complications of TB affecting the abdomen and skin?

A

Skin:

  • erythema nodosum
  • clubbing

Abdomen:

  • peritonitis
  • ascites
40
Q

What are the potential complications of TB affecting the heart and spinal cord?

A

Heart:

  • pericardial effusion
  • constrictive pericarditis
  • normocytic anaemia

Spinal cord / bones:

  • Pott’s disease
  • spinal cord compression
  • osteomyelitis
41
Q

What are the complications of TB affecting the reproductive organs and kidneys?

A

Reproductive organs:

  • epididymo-orchitis
  • infertility

Kidneys:

  • renal failure
  • Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency)
42
Q

What bedside tests are performed to identify TB infection?

How long does this take?

A
  • sputum MCS is performed - 3 samples are needed
  • microscopy with Ziehl-Neelsen stain
  • culture takes 6 - 8 weeks
  • because culture takes so long, treatment needs to be started blind as you won’t know what agents the TB is susceptible to
43
Q

What blood tests would be taken in suspected TB infection?

What results are expected?

A
  • FBC
  • CRP
  • ABG
  • blood cultures
  • HIV
  • would expect raised WCC and CRP as infection markers
  • ABG should show type 1 respiratory failure (low O2)
44
Q

What other tests are done in the investigation of TB?

A
  • lymph node biopsy which will show caseating granuloma
  • mantoux / tuberculin skin test (TST)
45
Q

How is TB identified on a chest X-ray?

A
  • patchy / heterogenous consolidation
  • bi-hilar lymphadenopathy
  • upper lobe scarring tends to suggest a past infection
  • there may be evidence of cavitating lesions and/or pleural effusions but these are less characteristic
46
Q

How is miliary TB identified on chest X-ray?

A

widespread nodular shadowing

this represents severe TB with very poor prognosis

47
Q

In this scenario, what type of oxygen would you prescribe the patient?

A

15L of oxygen via a non-rebreather mask

  • target sats are between 94 - 98%
  • 2L of oxygen via a nasal cannula would be given when the patient’s sats were around 94-95%
  • when sats are extremely low, you want to give high flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask
48
Q

What is the definition of bronchiectasis?

A

it is a chronic condition that causes permanent dilation of the airways

  • there is dilation of both the bronchi and the bronchioles
  • this takes time to develop as recurrent infection and inflammation are required to break down the airways and make them dilate
  • the cell walls are damaged and there is increased mucus production
49
Q

What are the congenital causes of bronchiectasis?

A
  • cystic fibrosis
  • primary ciliary dyskinesia (Kartagener’s syndrome)
  • Young’s syndrome
50
Q

What triads characterise the symptoms of primary ciliary dyskinesia and Young’s syndrome?

A

Primary ciliary dyskinesia:

  • bronchiectasis
  • sinusitis
  • situs inversus
    • this is where all of the organs are located on the wrong side of the body

Young’s syndrome:

  • bronchiectasis
  • sinusitis
  • infertility
51
Q

What are the acquired causes of bronchiectasis?

A
  • infection
    • pneumonia
    • tuberculosis
    • measles
    • pertussis
  • someone having a lot of infections is more likely to get bronchiectasis as recurrent inflammation breaks down the airway walls
  • can also be caused by lung cancer
52
Q

What are the symptoms associated with bronchiectasis?

A
  • symptoms are similar to TB / pneumonia except there is a LOT of sputum production
  • chronic cough and production of copious green sputum
  • haemoptysis
  • weight loss
  • shortness of breath
  • fever
53
Q

What signs are present on inspection and auscultation in bronchiectasis?

A
  • clubbing is present on inspection
  • basal crepitations are heard on auscultation
54
Q

What are the 4 different causes of basal crepitations?

A
  • heart failure
  • pneumonia
  • bronchiectasis
  • idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
55
Q

What type of infections are people with bronchiectasis more susceptible to?

A

they are more susceptible to superimposed “extra” infections as their airways are not working as well

these superimposed infections can be caused by:

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
56
Q

What bedside tests, blood tests and imaging would be done in investigations for bronchiectasis?

A

Bedside tests:

  • sputum MCS
  • sweat test to diagnose cystic fibrosis
  • genetic testing for PCD / Young’s syndrome

Bloods:

  • FBC
  • CRP
  • ABG
  • blood culture

Imaging:

  • CXR may be used but the best way to diagnose bronchiectasis is with a high resolution CT (HR-CT)
57
Q

What will the blood test and ABG results show in bronchiectasis?

A
  • FBC will show high WCC
  • CRP will be elevated
  • ABG may show type 1 respiratory failure with low O2

or type 2 respiratory failure with low O2 + high CO2

58
Q

What is the classical feature seen on HR-CT in bronchiectasis?

A

the classic feature is the Signet ring sign

59
Q

What are the possible complications of bronchiectasis?

A
  • recurrent infections
    • large, dilated airways are more susceptible to infections
  • cor pulmonale (RHF)
  • respiratory failure
60
Q

What is involved in the conservative management for bronchiectasis?

A

it is an irreversible condition so the aim of supportive management is to prevent complications

  • exercise and good diet
  • annual influenza vaccination
  • airway clearance of mucus
    • chest physiotherapy
    • high frequency oscillation devices
    • nebulised hypertonic saline
61
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment for bronchiectasis and when may this be given?

A
  • if there is an acute infection, IV antibiotics are given
  • prophylactic oral antibiotics are given to prevent infecton

this is usually azithromycin

62
Q

What is the definition of lung cancer and what are the 2 different types?

A

it is a malignant neoplasm of the lung

  • primary originates from the lung
  • secondary metastasises from another organ
    • most commonly the breast / colorectal cancer
63
Q

What are the 4 different types of primary lung cancer?

A
  • small cell lung cancer
  • non-small cell lung cancer
    • adenocarcinoma
    • squamous cell carcinoma
    • large cell carcinoma
64
Q

What type of cells does each type of lung cancer originate from?

A
  • small cell lung cancer originates from endocrine cells
  • adenocarcinoma originates from goblet cells
  • squamous cell carcinoma originates from squamous epithelial cells
  • large cell carcinoma originates from epithelial cells
65
Q

What are the hormonal / location associations of SCLC, adenocarcinoma and SqCC?

A

Small cell LC:

  • associated with SIADH, which causes hyponatraemia as the body retains too much water
  • associated with ectopic ACTH that causes Cushing’s syndrome

Adenocarcinoma:

  • usually affects the peripheral lung
  • is less associated with smoking than the other types

Squamous cell carcinoma:

  • associated with PTH-related peptide (PTHrp), which increases calcium and decreases phosphate
66
Q
A
67
Q

What are the risk factors for primary lung cancer?

A
  • smoking
  • asbestos exposure
    • particularly squamous cell carcinoma
68
Q

What are the symptoms of lung cancer?

A

Primary tumour:

  • cough - can be dry or productive
  • haemoptysis
  • shortness of breath

Systemic signs:

  • weight loss
  • loss of appetite
  • night sweats
69
Q

What symptoms can be caused by local invasion of lung cancer?

A
  • a pancoast tumour in the apex of the lung can cause horner’s syndrome by compressing the sympathetic trunk

compression of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve produces a bovine cough

  • potential superior vena cava obstruction
    • this is an emergency as blood is not returning to the heart
70
Q

What are the most common sites for lung cancer to metastasise to and how might these present?

A

Bone:

  • presents with bone pain and fractures

Brain:

  • presents with headaches and blurred vision as a result of raised ICP

Liver:

  • presents with hepatomegaly

Lymphadenopathy

71
Q

How will lung cancer present on inspection, percussion and auscultation?

A

Inspection:

  • clubbing
  • lymphadenopathy

Percussion:

  • dull percussion over the tumour

Auscultation:

  • crepitations may be present
  • increased vocal resonance
    • when the patient says “99”, it will sound louder over the tumour
72
Q

What are the 4 causes of respiratory clubbing?

A
  • bronchiectasis
  • idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
  • lung cancer
  • tuberculosis
73
Q

What bedside tests and blood tests are performed to investigate lung cancer?

What results might be seen?

A

Bedside tests:

  • sputum MCS

Bloods:

  • FBC
  • calcium (bone mets or PTHrp)
  • ALP (bone mets)
  • LFTs (liver mets)
74
Q

What imaging / biopsy investigations are performed in lung cancer?

A

Imaging:

  • chest X-ray
  • CT CAP or PET scan is used for staging the cancer

BIopsy:

  • needed to confirm the diagnosis
  • performed via bronchoscopy
  • or via transthoracic needle if the cancer is in the periphery of the lung
75
Q

How is lung cancer staged?

A

Stage 1:

  • cancer is found within the lung only

Stage 2:

  • cancer is found within the lung and nearby lymph nodes

Stage 3:

  • cancer is in the lung and the lymph nodes in the centre of the chest

Stage 4:

  • cancer has spread to both lungs, into the area around the lungs or to distant organs
76
Q

How is primary lung cancer identified on chest X-ray?

A
  • there is consolidation that is usually heterogenous
  • (bi-hilar lymphadenopathy)
  • (pleural effusion)
  • (cavitating lesions - usually present in SqCC)
77
Q

What does secondary lung cancer look like on chest X-ray?

A
  • there are many coin-shaped lesions that are referred to as cannonball mets
78
Q

What is atelectasis and why can it occur in lung cancer?

A
  • atelectasis is the collapse or closure of the lung leading to reduced or absent gas exchange
  • it can affect part or all of one lung
  • if the cancer starts obstructing the bronchioles, air cannot get to the alveoli to inflate them so the lung begins to collapse
79
Q

How can atelectasis (lower lobe collapse) be identfied on chest X-ray?

A
  • a triangular opacity behind the heart is visible
  • this is the “sail sign” where the dense edge of the collapsed left lower lobe has been squashed into a sail shape
  • a double left heart border is also present

(x-ray shows left lower lobe collapse)

80
Q

How can atelectasis (total lung collapse) be identified on chest x-ray?

A
  • there is tracheal deviation towards the direction of the collapse
  • there is mediastinal shift towards the direction of the collapse
    • the spine can be seen very clearly as the heart has deviated
  • this x-ray shows total left lung collapse and the arrows show the edge of the lung
81
Q

What is mesothelioma?

A

a malignant neoplasm of mesothelial cells of the pleura

it is a rare condition

82
Q

What are the risk factors for mesothelioma?

A

asbestos exposure

83
Q

What are the symptoms associated with mesothelioma?

A
  • a cough that is dry
  • shortness of breath
  • weight loss
  • loss of appetite
  • night sweats
84
Q

What sign is present on auscultation in mesothelioma?

A

pleural friction rub

this sounds like walking on fresh snow

85
Q

What bedside tests, blood tests and imaging would be done in the investigation for mesothelioma?

A

Bedside tests:

  • sputum cytology
  • pleural fluid cytology via thoracocentesis

Bloods:

  • FBC
  • calcium (bone mets or PTHrp)
  • ALP (bone mets)
  • LFTs (liver mets)

Imaging:

  • CXR
  • CT PAP or PET scan for staging

Biopsy

86
Q

How can mesothelioma be identified on CXR?

A
  • there is pleural thicking
  • pleural plaques may be visible due to asbestos
  • sometimes pleural effusions may occur