COT QUIZ

Question 1

“1 year ago”, “Constant”, “Suddenly” are all examples of what component of the HPI?

a. Quality
b. Modifying Factors
c. Context
d. Timing

Answer 1

a. Quality
b. Modifying Factors
c. Context
d. Timing

Question 2

1 mm radius of corneal curvature equals

a. 1 D.
b. 2.5 D.
c. 5 D.
d. 10 D.

Answer 2

a. 1 D.
b. 2.5 D.
c. 5 D.
d. 10 D.

Question 3

A +1D lens is decentered by 10mm. What is the amount of prism inflicted by this decentered lens?

a. 0.1D
b. 1D
c. 5D
d. 10D

Answer 3

a. 0.1D
b. 1D
c. 5D
d. 10D

Question 4

A +5D spectacle lens is decentered by 4mm. What is the amount of prism inflicted by this decentered lens?

a. 0.5 D.
b. 2 D.
c. 10 D.
d. 20 D.

Answer 4

a. 0.5 D.
b. 2 D.
c. 10 D.
d. 20 D.

Question 5

A 0.50 D lens has a focal length of

a. 0.25 meters.
b. 2 meters.
c. 5 meters.
d. 10 meters.

Answer 5

a. 0.25 meters.
b. 2 meters.
c. 5 meters.
d. 10 meters.

Question 6

A contact Lens that doesn’t center well and is uncomfortable indicates the contact lens is

a. too flat.
b. too steep.
c. too tight.
d. just right.

Answer 6

a. too flat.
b. too steep.
c. too tight.
d. just right.

Question 7

A dark shadow arising from inferior VF or an ascending veil are symptoms of

a. advanced glaucoma.
b. cataract.
c. retinal detachment.
d. macular degeneration.

Answer 7

a. advanced glaucoma.
b. cataract.
c. retinal detachment.
d. macular degeneration.

Question 8

A direct ophthalmoscope should be

a. stored with viewing lens at zero
b. kept in charge when not in use
c. used with the transformer set on the highest setting.
d. all of the above

Answer 8

a. stored with viewing lens at zero
b. kept in charge when not in use
c. used with the transformer set on the highest setting.
d. all of the above

Question 9

A fluorescein pattern on a contact lens wearer that shows bubbles are under the contact lens indicates the lens is

a. too flat.
b. too steep.
c. fit just right.
d. none of the above

Answer 9

a. too flat.
b. too steep.
c. fit just right.
d. none of the above

Question 10

A Goldmann tonometer prism should be disinfected with

a. Alcohol
b. Hydrogen Peroxide
c. Acetone
d. UV Radiation

Answer 10

a. Alcohol
b. Hydrogen Peroxide
c. Acetone
d. UV Radiation

Question 11

A patient who reports they were scratched in the eye with a palm frond is MOST at risk of developing what kind of infection?

a. Bacterial
b. Fungal
c. Viral
d. Parasitic

Answer 11

a. Bacterial
b. Fungal
c. Viral
d. Parasitic

Question 12

A patient’s Schirmer’s II readings are 12 mm OD and 14 mm OS. This indicates the patient has

a. dry Eyes.
b. excessive lacrimation.
c. normal tear output.
d. none of the above

Answer 12

a. dry Eyes.
b. excessive lacrimation.
c. normal tear output.
d. none of the above

Question 13

A phoria is

a. a disease involving a cranial nerve.
b. associated with Myasthenia Gravis.
c. normal.
d. present with both eyes open.

Answer 13

a. a disease involving a cranial nerve.
b. associated with Myasthenia Gravis.
c. normal.
d. present with both eyes open.

Question 14

A rapid and weak pulse, skin rash and difficulty breathing after taking a medication are signs of

a. a medication side effect.
b. corticosteroid use.
c. an allergic reaction.
d. Bradycardia.

Answer 14

a. a medication side effect.
b. corticosteroid use.
c. an allergic reaction.
d. Bradycardia.

Question 15

A right esotropia is characterized by the right eye being deviated

Select one:

a. up.
b. down.
c. in.
d. out

Answer 15

a. up.
b. down.
c. in.
d. out

Question 16

A substances’ index of refraction is calculated by

Select one:

a. The speed of light in air divided by the speed of light in the substance.
b. The speed of light in the substance multiplied by the speed of light in air.
c. The speed of sound in air divided by the speed of sound in the substance.
d. The speed of light in the substance divided by the speed of light in water.

Answer 16

a. The speed of light in air divided by the speed of light in the substance.
b. The speed of light in the substance multiplied by the speed of light in air.
c. The speed of sound in air divided by the speed of sound in the substance.
d. The speed of light in the substance divided by the speed of light in water.

Question 17

A trichromat

Select one:

a. cannot detect green pigments.
b. can only see in shades of gray.
c. cannot detect red pigments.
d. has normal color vision.

Answer 17

Select one:

a. cannot detect green pigments.
b. can only see in shades of gray.
c. cannot detect red pigments.
d. has normal color vision.

Question 18

A Typical 55 year old patient is likely to require an ADD power of

Select one:

a. +1.50.
b. +2.00.
c. +2.50.
d. +3.00.

Answer 18

Select one:

a. +1.50.
b. +2.00.
c. +2.50.
d. +3.00.

Question 19

A YAG LASER is used to

Select one:

a. clear posterior capsular opacification.
b. seal leaking blood vessels in the retina.
c. alter the cornea to change the refractive error.
d. alter the trabecular meshwork to lower IOP.

Answer 19

a. clear posterior capsular opacification.
b. seal leaking blood vessels in the retina.
c. alter the cornea to change the refractive error.
d. alter the trabecular meshwork to lower IOP.

Question 20

Accommodative Esotropia occurs due to

Select one:

a. the eyes requiring an extraordinary amount of accommodation.
b. hypertropia.
c. a congenital cranial nerve palsy.
d. none of the above

Answer 20

Select one:

a. the eyes requiring an extraordinary amount of accommodation.
b. hypertropia.
c. a congenital cranial nerve palsy.
d. none of the above

Question 21

All of the following are TRUE about binocular diplopia EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. it can occur with or without glasses.
b. it can be caused by trauma, a nerve palsy or stroke.
c. it goes away when one eye is covered.
d. it only occurs when looking at near.

Answer 21

a. it can occur with or without glasses.
b. it can be caused by trauma, a nerve palsy or stroke.
c. it goes away when one eye is covered.
d. it only occurs when looking at near.

Question 22

All of the following can cause irregularly shaped pupils EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. synechiae.
b. hippus.
c. acute angle closure glaucoma.
d. surgery.

Answer 22

Select one:

a. synechiae.
b. hippus.
c. acute angle closure glaucoma.
d. surgery.

Question 23

All of the following instruments use LASER technology EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. IOL Master.
b. OCT.
c. pachymetry.
d. GDX.

Answer 23

Select one:

a. IOL Master.
b. OCT.
c. pachymetry.
d. GDX.

Question 24

All of the following may be used to measure a contact lens EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. ultrasonic transducer.
b. lensmeter.
c. microspherometer.
d. distometer.

Answer 24

a. ultrasonic transducer.
b. lensmeter.
c. microspherometer.
d. distometer.

Question 25

Alpha Adrenergenics

Select one:

a. work by decreasing the amount of aqueous produced.
b. are the most likely eye drop to cause an allergic reaction.
c. can cause drowsiness and fatigue.
d. all of the above

Answer 25

Select one:

a. work by decreasing the amount of aqueous produced.
b. are the most likely eye drop to cause an allergic reaction.
c. can cause drowsiness and fatigue.
d. all of the above

Question 26

An autoclave sterilizes by

Select one:

a. boiling.
b. moist heat under pressure.
c. ultraviolet rays.
d. chemicals.

Answer 26

select one:

a. boiling.
b. moist heat under pressure.
c. ultraviolet rays.
d. chemicals.

Question 27

An axial length of 24.9 is

Select one:

a. within the standard dimensions of the eye.
b. longer than the standard dimensions of the eye.
c. shorter than the standard dimensions of the eye.
d. none of the above

Answer 27

a. within the standard dimensions of the eye.
b. longer than the standard dimensions of the eye.
c. shorter than the standard dimensions of the eye.
d. none of the above

Question 28

An NEMB notifies the patient that

Select one:

a. the practice does not accept Medicare Assignment.
b. a service may not be covered by Medicare.
c. they will have to pay the fee because their deductible has not been met.
d. a service will not be covered by Medicare.

Answer 28

Select one:

a. the practice does not accept Medicare Assignment.
b. a service may not be covered by Medicare.
c. they will have to pay the fee because their deductible has not been met.
d. a service will not be covered by Medicare.

Question 29

Aniseikonia refers to the

Select one:

a. difference in refractive error between 2 eyes.
b. difference in pupil sizes of > 1mm.
c. amount of prism in a spectacle Rx.
d. difference in perceived image size due to refractive error.

Answer 29

Select one:

a. difference in refractive error between 2 eyes.
b. difference in pupil sizes of > 1mm.
c. amount of prism in a spectacle Rx.
d. difference in perceived image size due to refractive error.

Question 30

Applanation tonometry is based on what principle?

Select one:

a. The Prentice Principle
b. The Imbert-Fick Principle
c. The Goldmann Principle
d. Snell’s Law

Answer 30

Select one:

a. The Prentice Principle
b. The Imbert-Fick Principle
c. The Goldmann Principle
d. Snell’s Law

Question 31

Aqueous fluid forms in the _____ and exits through the _________.

Select one:

a. ciliary process / trabecular meshwork then aqueous veins
b. ciliary body / trabecul meshwork
c. iris / canal of Sclemm then aqueous veins
d. ciliary body / canal of Schlemm

Answer 31

Select one:

a. ciliary process / trabecular meshwork then aqueous veins
b. ciliary body / trabecul meshwork
c. iris / canal of Sclemm then aqueous veins
d. ciliary body / canal of Schlemm

Question 32

Avastin, Macugen and Lucentis are examples of

Select one:

a. Beta-Blockers.
b. Anti VEGF drugs.
c. NSAIDs.
d. steroids.

Answer 32

Select one:

a. Beta-Blockers.
b. Anti VEGF drugs.
c. NSAIDs.
d. steroids.

Question 33

Binocular diplopia occurs

Select one:

a. when one eye is covered.
b. due to ocular misalignment.
c. when a patient has head tilt.
d. due to anisocoria.

Answer 33

Select one:

a. when one eye is covered.
b. due to ocular misalignment.
c. when a patient has head tilt.
d. due to anisocoria.

Question 34

Blurred vision secondary to organic disease

Select one:

a. is corrected with spectacles.
b. usually occurs at all distances and with all activities.
c. usually occurs at a particular distance.
d. is usually associated with a specific activity.

Answer 34

Select one:

a. is corrected with spectacles.
b. usually occurs at all distances and with all activities.
c. usually occurs at a particular distance.
d. is usually associated with a specific activity.

Question 35

Bulbs in Welch Allyn Retinoscopes and Transilluminators are removed by

Select one:

a. loosening with a 5/16 Allen wrench, then flipping with a screwdriver.
b. pulling them straight out.
c. unscrewing them.
d. none of the above

Answer 35

Select one:

a. loosening with a 5/16 Allen wrench, then flipping with a screwdriver.
b. pulling them straight out.
c. unscrewing them.
d. none of the above

Question 36

By age 3 months a child should be able to

Select one:

a. use an Allen chart.
b. reach for a toy.
c. follow light.
d. none of the above

Answer 36

Select one:

a. use an Allen chart.
b. reach for a toy.
c. follow light.
d. none of the above

Question 37

Calculate the spherical equivalent of -3.50 +1.00 x 180

Select one:

a. -2.50.
b. -3.00.
c. +2.50.
d. -0.50.

Answer 37

Select one:

a. -2.50.
b. -3.00.
c. +2.50.
d. -0.50.

Question 38

Causes of Color Deficiency include

Select one:

a. optic nerve disease.
b. congenital causes.
c. retinal diseases.
d. all of the Above

Answer 38

Select one:

a. optic nerve disease.
b. congenital causes.
c. retinal diseases.
d. all of the Above

Question 39

Causes of cranial nerve palsies include

Select one:

a. head Trauma.
b. basilar artery insufficiency.
c. stroke.
d. all of the above

Answer 39

Select one:

a. head Trauma.
b. basilar artery insufficiency.
c. stroke.
d. all of the above

Question 40

Cellulitis, boils and styes are caused by the ______ bacteria.

Select one:

a. strep
b. staph
c. corneobacterium
d. gonococcus

Answer 40

Select one:

a. strep
b. staph
c. corneobacterium
d. gonococcus

Question 41

Choroidal flush occurs during which phase of fluorescein angiography?

Select one:

a. Arterial
b. Capillary
c. Venous
d. Pre-Arterial

Answer 41

Select one:

a. Arterial
b. Capillary
c. Venous
d. Pre-Arterial

Question 42

Cold Sterilization is a good option when

Select one:

a. you want to save money.
b. heat would damage or destroy an instrument.
c. you don’t need to use the instrument for at least 20 minutes.
d. all of the above

Answer 42

Select one:

a. you want to save money.
b. heat would damage or destroy an instrument.
c. you don’t need to use the instrument for at least 20 minutes.
d. all of the above

Question 43

Contact lenses are measured by the

Select one:

a. posterior radius at the periphery of lens.
b. anterior radius to the end of the lens.
c. posterior radius at the apex of lens.
d. sagittal height plus radius of lens.

Answer 43

a. posterior radius at the periphery of lens.
b. anterior radius to the end of the lens.
c. posterior radius at the apex of lens.
d. sagittal height plus radius of lens.

Question 44

Convert the following script to minus cyl: +1.00 +1.75 x 170

Select one:

a. +2.75 -1.75 x 170
b. +2.75 -1.75 x 080
c. -0.75 -1.75 x 170
d. -0.75 -1.75 x 080

Answer 44

Select one:

a. +2.75 -1.75 x 170
b. +2.75 -1.75 x 080
c. -0.75 -1.75 x 170
d. -0.75 -1.75 x 080

Question 45

Corneal edema can be caused by

Select one:

a. infection.
b. corneal Scar.
c. inflammation.
d. all of the above

Answer 45

Select one:

a. infection.
b. corneal Scar.
c. inflammation.
d. all of the above

Question 46

Corneal Topographers measure

Select one:

a. only the central 2 mm of K.
b. the K limbus to limbus.
c. corneal thickness.
d. only the peripheral 2 mm of K.

Answer 46

Select one:

a. only the central 2 mm of K.
b. the K limbus to limbus.
c. corneal thickness.
d. only the peripheral 2 mm of K.

Question 47

Distorted vision

Select one:

a. can occur due to macular disorders.
b. tends to occur in emmetropes.
c. typically is the first sign of glaucoma.
d. occurs in patients with Vitamin A deficiency.

Answer 47

Select one:

a. can occur due to macular disorders.
b. tends to occur in emmetropes.
c. typically is the first sign of glaucoma.
d. occurs in patients with Vitamin A deficiency.

Question 48

DK Value refers to a contact lens’

Select one:

a. amount of spherical aberration.
b. oxygen transmissibility.
c. thickness at center and periphery.
d. diameter vs. Keratometry.

Answer 48

Select one:

a. amount of spherical aberration.
b. oxygen transmissibility.
c. thickness at center and periphery.
d. diameter vs. Keratometry.

Question 49

Dry heat as a method of sterilization

Select one:

a. is good to use for sterilizing dry goods such as gowns, gloves and drapes.
b. is fast.
c. requires little maintenance and cleaning.
d. all of the above

Answer 49

Select one:

a. is good to use for sterilizing dry goods such as gowns, gloves and drapes.
b. is fast.
c. requires little maintenance and cleaning.
d. all of the above

Question 50

During an automated visual field test, the patient does not respond to a bright stimulus at a point in their visual field at which they previously responded to a dimmer stimulus. This is called a(n)

Select one:

a. false positive.
b. false negative.
c. fixation loss.
d. artifact.

Answer 50

Select one:

a. false positive.
b. false negative.
c. fixation loss.
d. artifact.

Question 51

During an automated visual field test, the patient has several fixation losses; however, you are monitoring the patient’s fixation with the monitor and their eye is remaining fixated properly. What could be the cause of the fixation losses?

Select one:

a. The fellow eye is not patched.
b. The patient is anxious.
c. The patient did not understand your instructions.
d. All of the above

Answer 51

Select one:

a. The fellow eye is not patched.
b. The patient is anxious.
c. The patient did not understand your instructions.
d. All of the above

Question 52

Eye Codes

Select one:

a. are used by all specialties.
b. are much more stringent than E and M codes.
c. have 2 levels – comprehensive and intermediate.
d. none of the above

Answer 52

Select one:

a. are used by all specialties.
b. are much more stringent than E and M codes.
c. have 2 levels – comprehensive and intermediate.
d. none of the above

Question 53

Fluroescein angiography is based on the theory of

Select one:

a. how photons of energy travel from their source in a wave pattern.
b. how ultrasound travels through tissue at varying speeds.
c. how LASER influences sound wave patterns.
d. the reflection pattern of a placido disk.

Answer 53

Select one:

a. how photons of energy travel from their source in a wave pattern.
b. how ultrasound travels through tissue at varying speeds.
c. how LASER influences sound wave patterns.
d. the reflection pattern of a placido d

Question 54

For billing and coding purposes, the primary diagnosis must correlate to the

Select one:

a. NEMB.
b. patient’s chief complaint or past ocular history.
c. exam findings.
d. ABN.

Answer 54

Select one:

a. NEMB.
b. patient’s chief complaint or past ocular history.
c. exam findings.
d. ABN.

Question 55

Fresnel Prism

Select one:

a. is only used for convergence insufficiencies.
b. magnifies images.
c. is heavy.
d. is ground into the lens.

Answer 55

Select one:

a. is only used for convergence insufficiencies.
b. magnifies images.
c. is heavy.
d. is ground into the lens.

Question 56

Fresnel Prism is available in powers up to

Select one:

a. 15 D.
b. 25 D.
c. 40 D.
d. 50 D.

Answer 56

Select one:

a. 15 D.
b. 25 D.
c. 40 D.
d. 50 D.

Question 57

Front surface mirrors should be cleaned with

Select one:

a. dry tissues or paper towels.
b. canned air or a camel hair brush.
c. alcohol.
d. glass cleaner.

Answer 57

Select one:

a. dry tissues or paper towels.
b. canned air or a camel hair brush.
c. alcohol.
d. glass cleaner.

Question 58

Goldmann tonometers are checked for calibration at what pressure readings?

Select one:

a. 10, 20, 40
b. 0, 20, 40
c. 0, 20, 60
d. 10, 40, 60

Answer 58

Select one:

a. 10, 20, 40
b. 0, 20, 40
c. 0, 20, 60
d. 10, 40, 60

Question 59

Ground in prism is used for

Select one:

a. vertical prism of > 1D.
b. convergence insufficiency.
c. large horizontal phorias.
d. all of the above.

Answer 59

Select one:

a. vertical prism of > 1D.
b. convergence insufficiency.
c. large horizontal phorias.
d. all of the above.

Question 60

Herpes Zoster is a

Select one:

a. virus.
b. bacteria.
c. fungus.
d. parasite.

Answer 60

Select one:

a. virus.
b. bacteria.
c. fungus.
d. parasite.

Question 61

Hoffer Q and Haigis IOL Calculation Formulas are used in patients with

Select one:

a. short eyes.
b. long eyes.
c. aphakia.
d. anatomically narrow angles.

Answer 61

Select one:

a. short eyes.
b. long eyes.
c. aphakia.
d. anatomically narrow angles

Question 62

If a +8D spectacle is adjusted so it is positioned 3 mm farther away from the eye, its effective power will be

Select one:

a. increased – more plus.
b. decreased – less plus.
c. unchanged.
d. None of the above

Answer 62

Select one:

a. increased – more plus.
b. decreased – less plus.
c. unchanged.
d. None of the above

Question 63

If a lensmeter is found to be out of calibration it should

Select one:

a. be sent to the factory for recalibration.
b. be recalibrated in the office with trial lenses.
c. have the contact points and bulb housing checked, then recheck calibration.
d. be turned off then back on, then recalibrated using the special calibration balls which are included with the unit.

Answer 63

Select one:

a. be sent to the factory for recalibration.
b. be recalibrated in the office with trial lenses.
c. have the contact points and bulb housing checked, then recheck calibration.
d. be turned off then back on, then recalibrated using the special calibration balls which are included with the unit.

Question 64

If the diameter of a contact lens remains the same but the base curve is made larger, the sagittal vault of the lens is

Select one:

a. decreased and the lens becomes flatter.
b. increased and the lens becomes steeper.
c. decreased and the lens becomes steeper.
d. increased and the lens becomes flatter.

Answer 64

a. decreased and the lens becomes flatter.
b. increased and the lens becomes steeper.
c. decreased and the lens becomes steeper.
d. increased and the lens becomes flatter.

Question 65

In Goldmann Perimetry, an isopter refers to

Select one:

a. the boundaries of an area in which the patient could see a given level of illumination.
b. a measurement of visual field loss.
c. the amount of illumination at which the patient responded at least 50% of the time.
d. the size of the stimulus.

Answer 65

a. the boundaries of an area in which the patient could see a given level of illumination.
b. a measurement of visual field loss.
c. the amount of illumination at which the patient responded at least 50% of the time.
d. the size of the stimulus.

Question 66

In Goldmann tonometry, the pressure is determined by

Select one:

a. the amount of aqueous which is displaced.
b. central corneal thickness divided by the drum reading multiplied by 3.14.
c. the amount of weight required to flatten the cornea a given amount.
d. none of the above

Answer 66

Select one:

a. the amount of aqueous which is displaced.
b. central corneal thickness divided by the drum reading multiplied by 3.14.
c. the amount of weight required to flatten the cornea a given amount.
d. none of the above

Question 67

In measuring the test parameters used in Goldmann Perimetry, what does the Roman numeral represent?

Select one:

a. The brightness of the stimulus
b. The size of the stimulus
c. The sensitivity of the patient’s response
d. The rate at which the stimulus moved

Answer 67

a. The brightness of the stimulus
b. The size of the stimulus
c. The sensitivity of the patient’s response
d. The rate at which the stimulus moved

Question 68

Involuntary bodily functions such as cardiovascular, respiratory and digestive functions are controlled by the

Select one:

a. Somatic Nervous System.
b. Autonomic Nervous System.
c. alpha receptors.
d. beta receptors.

Answer 68

Select one:

a. Somatic Nervous System.
b. Autonomic Nervous System.
c. alpha receptors.
d. beta receptors.

Question 69

IV Fluorescein dosage is administered according to the patient’s

Select one:

a. age.
b. weight.
c. sex.
d. refractive error.

Answer 69

Select one:

a. age.
b. weight.
c. sex.
d. refractive error.

Question 70

Jackson cross cylinders should be cleaned

Select one:

a. by removing from the frame, cleaning with lens cleaner and replaced.
b. by rubbing with a 1:4 alcohol solution.
c. by gently wiping with a damp cloth.
d. with a cotton tipped applicator soaked in alcohol.

Answer 70

Select one:

a. by removing from the frame, cleaning with lens cleaner and replaced.
b. by rubbing with a 1:4 alcohol solution.
c. by gently wiping with a damp cloth.
d. with a cotton tipped applicator soaked in alcohol.

Question 71

LASER is an acronym for

Select one:

a. Light Amplified by Stimulated Energy Radiation.
b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation.
c. Light Amplitude on Site of Emission of Radiation.
d. Light Amplified by Stipulated Energy of Radiation.

Answer 71

Select one:

a. Light Amplified by Stimulated Energy Radiation.
b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation.
c. Light Amplitude on Site of Emission of Radiation.
d. Light Amplified by Stipulated Energy of Radiation.

Question 72

Masks, Gloves, Gowns are examples of

Select one:

a. Universal Precautions.
b. Personal Protective Equipment.
c. Sterile Technique.
d. Aseptic Technique.

Answer 72

Select one:

a. Universal Precautions.
b. Personal Protective Equipment.
c. Sterile Technique.
d. Aseptic Technique.

Question 73

Medication side effects

Select one:

a. can be prevented by the doctor reviewing a complete list of the patient’s current medications prior to prescribing any new medication.
b. can be prevented when using topical eye medications by obstructing drainage of the medication through the naso-lacrimal duct.
c. can occur when taking any medication.
d. should be tolerated by the patient in order to benefit from the medication.

Answer 73

Select one:
a. can be prevented by the doctor reviewing a complete list of the patient's current medications prior to prescribing any new medication.
b. can be prevented when using topical eye medications by obstructing drainage of the medication through the naso-lacrimal duct.
c. can occur when taking any medication.
d. should be tolerated by the patient in order to benefit from the medication.
Clear my choice
Question 74
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Question text
Normal

Question 74

Normal pupils

Select one:

a. are round and within 2 mm in size of one another.
b. constrict unequally and are within 1 mm in size of one another.
c. are within 1 mm in size of one another and constrict equally.
d. all of the above

Answer 74

Select one:

a. are round and within 2 mm in size of one another.
b. constrict unequally and are within 1 mm in size of one another.
c. are within 1 mm in size of one another and constrict equally.
d. all of the above

Question 75

On a Corneal Topography map, warm colors (red, orange, yellow) indicate

Select one:

a. poor test quality.
b. good test quality.
c. flatter areas.
d. steeper areas.

Answer 75

Select one:

a. poor test quality.
b. good test quality.
c. flatter areas.
d. steeper areas.

Question 76

On an automated visual field printout, the normal blind spot is found

Select one:
a. 15 degree temporal and 1.5 degree inferior to fixation.
b. 10 degree temporal and 5 degree superior to fixation.
c. 15 degree nasal and 1.5 degree inferior to fixation.
d. 10 degree nasal and 5 degree superior to fixation.
On an automated visual field printout, the normal blind spot is found

Answer 76

Select one:

a. 15 degree temporal and 1.5 degree inferior to fixation.
b. 10 degree temporal and 5 degree superior to fixation.
c. 15 degree nasal and 1.5 degree inferior to fixation.
d. 10 degree nasal and 5 degree superior to fixation.

Question 77

One candle of light intensity is measured by the light of a single candle falling on a surface at a distance of

Select one:

a. 1”.
b. 1’.
c. 1 meter.
d. 1 mm.

Answer 77

Select one:

a. 1”.
b. 1’.
c. 1 meter.
d. 1 mm.

Question 78

One disadvantage of applanation tonometry is

Select one:

a. it’s influenced by external pressure.
b. repeated readings can be inaccurate due to displaced aqueous.
c. it often needs recalibrated.
d. it’s expensive to buy and maintain.

Answer 78

Select one:

a. it’s influenced by external pressure.
b. repeated readings can be inaccurate due to displaced aqueous.
c. it often needs recalibrated.
d. it’s expensive to buy and maintain.

Question 79

Parasympathomimetics

Select one:

a. activate digestion.
b. slows down the heart rate.
c. constricts pupils.
d. all of the above

Answer 79

Select one:

a. activate digestion.
b. slows down the heart rate.
c. constricts pupils.
d. all of the above

Question 80

Patients who are allergic to Sulfa should NOT have

Select one:

a. Miotics.
b. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors.
c. Beta Blockers.
d. Cycloplegics.

Answer 80

select one:

a. Miotics.
b. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors.
c. Beta Blockers.
d. Cycloplegics.

Question 81

Patients who have anisocoria that varies with illumination levels

Select one:

a. are more likely to have a pathological etiology.
b. are Normal.
c. likely to have an afferent defect.
d. have Light-Near Dissociation.

Answer 81

Select one:

a. are more likely to have a pathological etiology.
b. are Normal.
c. likely to have an afferent defect.
d. have Light-Near Dissociation

Question 82

Patients who have PDT LASER therapy should avoid doing what for 5 days?

Select one:

a. Reading
b. Being in sunlight
c. Contact sports
d. Night driving

Answer 82

Select one:

a. Reading
b. Being in sunlight
c. Contact sports
d. Night driving

Question 83

Preservatives are added to many medications to maintain a drug’s

Select one:

a. concentration.
b. penetration.
c. tonicity.
d. sterility.

Answer 83

Select one:

a. concentration.
b. penetration.
c. tonicity.
d. sterility.

Question 84

Projector slides should be cleaned with

Select one:

a. a camel hair brush.
b. spray lens cleaner and a lint free cloth.
c. alcohol and a lint free cloth.
d. a soft, dry cloth.

Answer 84

Select one:

a. a camel hair brush.
b. spray lens cleaner and a lint free cloth.
c. alcohol and a lint free cloth.
d. a soft, dry cloth.

Question 85

Prostaglandins have what color top?

Select one:

a. Orange
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Teal

Answer 85

Select one:

a. Orange
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Teal

Question 86

PRP LASER is used to treat

Select one:

a. diabetic retinopathy.
b. anatomically narrow angles.
c. advanced glaucoma.
d. auto immune disease.

Answer 86

Select one:

a. diabetic retinopathy.
b. anatomically narrow angles.
c. advanced glaucoma.
d. auto immune disease.

Question 87

Pupillary distance is measured in

Select one:

a. cm.
b. mm.
c. inches.
d. nm.

Answer 87

Select one:

a. cm.
b. mm.
c. inches.
d. nm.

Question 88

Reflecting Projector Screens should be

Select one:

a. cleaned daily with a 1:4 solution of ether.
b. washed with a mild soap only if visibly dirty.
c. cleaned daily with a camel hair brush.
d. wiped with alcohol.

Answer 88

Select one:

a. cleaned daily with a 1:4 solution of ether.
b. washed with a mild soap only if visibly dirty.
c. cleaned daily with a camel hair brush.
d. wiped with alcohol.

Question 89

Risks, possible complications and alternative therapies must be included in

Select one:

a. a living will.
b. advanced directives.
c. informed consent.
d. the assessment and plan.

Answer 89

Select one:

a. a living will.
b. advanced directives.
c. informed consent.
d. the assessment and plan.

Question 90

Rods are responsible for

Select one:

a. seeing in dim light.
b. seeing moving objects.
c. seeing in bright light.
d. seeing color.

Answer 90

Select one:

a. seeing in dim light.
b. seeing moving objects.
c. seeing in bright light.
d. seeing color.

Question 91

Sabouraund’s Dextrose Agar and Thioglycollate Broth are examples of

Select one:

a. bacteria.
b. culture media.
c. specimens.
d. stains.

Answer 91

Select one:

a. bacteria.
b. culture media.
c. specimens.
d. stains.

Question 92

Scribe Mark(s) on a contact lens is/are visible at what clock hour position(s)?

Select one:

a. 12 o’clock
b. 4 o’clock
c. 3 o’clock and 9 o’clock
d. 12 o’clock and 6 o’clock

Answer 92

Select one:

a. 12 o’clock
b. 4 o’clock
c. 3 o’clock and 9 o’clock
d. 12 o’clock and 6 o’clock

Question 93

Scrub Techs are responsible to do ALL of the following EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. set up surgical instruments and equipment.
b. gown and glove themselves and others.
c. supervise the circulator.
d. check that instruments and equipment are working properly.

Answer 93

Select one:

a. set up surgical instruments and equipment.
b. gown and glove themselves and others.
c. supervise the circulator.
d. check that instruments and equipment are working properly.

Question 94

Sharps and sponge counts should be performed

Select one:

a. before and after every case.
b. at the beginning of the day.
c. at the end of every case.
d. at the end of the day.

Answer 94

Select one:

a. before and after every case.
b. at the beginning of the day.
c. at the end of every case.
d. at the end of the day.

Question 95

Signs of Horner’s Syndrome can include all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. heterochromia.
b. eye deviated down and out.
c. anisocoria.
d. ptosis.

Answer 95

Select one:

a. heterochromia.
b. eye deviated down and out.
c. anisocoria.
d. ptosis.

Question 96

Simultaneous movement of both eyes in the same direction is termed

Select one:

a. versions.
b. vergence.
c. phoria.
d. tropia.

Answer 96

select one:

a. versions.
b. vergence.
c. phoria.
d. tropia.

Question 97

Slab off

Select one:

a. uses bicentric lenses with base up prism.
b. is placed in the most plus or least minus lens.
c. is used to correct horizontal imbalances.
d. none of the above

Answer 97

Select one:

a. uses bicentric lenses with base up prism.
b. is placed in the most plus or least minus lens.
c. is used to correct horizontal imbalances.
d. none of the above

Question 98

SLT is used to treat

Select one:

a. macular degeneration.
b. glaucoma.
c. posterior capsular opacification.
d. myopia.

Answer 98

Select one:

a. macular degeneration.
b. glaucoma.
c. posterior capsular opacification.
d. myopia.

Question 99

Snell’s Law governs the behavior of

Select one:

a. light with mirrors.
b. light as it passes through a medium.
c. illuminated light on a surface.
d. light as it passes through air.

Answer 99

Select one:

a. light with mirrors.
b. light as it passes through a medium.
c. illuminated light on a surface.
d. light as it passes through air.

Question 100

Sterile is defined as

Select one:

a. absence of microorganisms that cause disease.
b. the inhibition of growth of microorganisms that cause disease.
c. the complete destruction of all microorganisms including spores.
d. treating every patient as if they’re known to have an infectious disease.

Answer 100

Select one:

a. absence of microorganisms that cause disease.
b. the inhibition of growth of microorganisms that cause disease.
c. the complete destruction of all microorganisms including spores.
d. treating every patient as if they’re known to have an infectious disease.

Question 101

The “Time Out” Procedure includes which of the following steps?

Select one:

a. Identifying the patient
b. Confirming surgical procedure to be performed
c. Confirming body part upon which surgical procedure will be performed
d. all of the above

Answer 101

Select one:

a. Identifying the patient
b. Confirming surgical procedure to be performed
c. Confirming body part upon which surgical procedure will be performed
d. all of the above

Question 102

The automated lensmeter

Select one:

a. provides subjective measurements.
b. is more accurate than manual lensmeters.
c. is ideal for measuring prism.
d. does not require that the eye piece be focused.

Answer 102

Select one:

a. provides subjective measurements.
b. is more accurate than manual lensmeters.
c. is ideal for measuring prism.
d. does not require that the eye piece be focused.

Question 103

The barrier filter on a fluorescein angiogram Unit is

Select one:

a. yellow-green and filters out blue.
b. blue and filters out green.
c. blue and filters out red.
d. green and filters out yellow.

Answer 103

select one:

a. yellow-green and filters out blue.
b. blue and filters out green.
c. blue and filters out red.
d. green and filters out yellow

Question 104

The behavior of light and mirrors can be explained as

Select one:

a. the angle of refraction = the angle of reflection.
b. the angle of incidence = the angle of reflection.
c. the angle of refraction is twice the angle of reflection.
d. the angle of incidence is half the angle of reflection.

Answer 104

Select one:

a. the angle of refraction = the angle of reflection.
b. the angle of incidence = the angle of reflection.
c. the angle of refraction is twice the angle of reflection.
d. the angle of incidence is half the angle of reflection.

Question 105

The BEST instrument for measuring prism in spectacles is a(n)

Select one:

a. automatic lensmeter.
b. a Risley Prism.
c. manual lensmeter.
d. Ultrasonic Transducer.

Answer 105

Select one:

a. automatic lensmeter.
b. a Risley Prism.
c. manual lensmeter.
d. Ultrasonic Transducer.

Question 106

The consensual pupillary light reflex tests of the integrity of

Select one:

a. the afferent nerve pathway system.
b. the efferent nerve pathway system.
c. both the afferent and efferent nerve pathway systems.
d. neither the afferent or efferent nerve pathway systems.

Answer 106

select one:

a. the afferent nerve pathway system.
b. the efferent nerve pathway system.
c. both the afferent and efferent nerve pathway systems.
d. neither the afferent or efferent nerve pathway systems.

Question 107

The Cross Cover Test is used to detect

Select one:

a. a phoria.
b. a version.
c. a tropia.
d. a vergence.

Answer 107

Select one:

a. a phoria.
b. a version.
c. a tropia.
d. a vergence.

Question 108

The deficit caused by a Cranial Nerve Palsy

Select one:

a. varies depending which nerve is involved.
b. can be caused by disease or trauma.
c. can cause abnormal pupillary response.
d. All of the above

Answer 108

Select one:

a. varies depending which nerve is involved.
b. can be caused by disease or trauma.
c. can cause abnormal pupillary response.
d. All of the above

Question 109

The EDTRS Eye Chart is designed for use in

Select one:

a. elementary school classrooms.
b. pilot visual assessment.
c. clinical studies.
d. Pre Surgical Evaluations.

Answer 109

Select one:

a. elementary school classrooms.
b. pilot visual assessment.
c. clinical studies.
d. Pre Surgical Evaluations.

Question 110

The equivalent of 6/24 metric visual acuity is

Select one:

a. 20/40.
b. 6/80.
c. 20/200.
d. 20/80.

Answer 110

Select one:

a. 20/40.
b. 6/80.
c. 20/200.
d. 20/80.

Question 111

The EVA (Electronic Visual Acuity) Test is calibrated for a distance of

Select one:

a. 3 meters.
b. 20 feet.
c. 1 meter.
d. 10 feet.

Answer 111

Select one:

a. 3 meters.
b. 20 feet.
c. 1 meter.
d. 10 feet.

Question 112

The Farnsworth-Munsell color vision test chips vary in

Select one:

a. brightness.
b. hue.
c. saturation.
d. A and B

Answer 112

Select one:

a. brightness.
b. hue.
c. saturation.
d. A and B

Question 113

The focal length of a 4D lens is

Select one:

a. 0.25 meters.
b. 1 meter.
c. 4 meters.
d. 20 meters.

Answer 113

Select one:

a. 0.25 meters.
b. 1 meter.
c. 4 meters.
d. 20 meters.

Question 114

The layer of the cornea that is directly posterior to the epithelium is the

Select one:

a. stroma.
b. Descemet’s membrane.
c. Bowman’s membrane.
d. endothelium.

Answer 114

Select one:

a. stroma.
b. Descemet’s membrane.
c. Bowman’s membrane.
d. endothelium.

Question 115

The main purpose of obtaining a History of Present Illness is to

Select one:

a. document the history of medication interactions.
b. help the doctor determine the cause for the chief complaint.
c. determine if corrective lenses will be required.
d. enhance the patient/physician relationship.

Answer 115

Select one:

a. document the history of medication interactions.
b. help the doctor determine the cause for the chief complaint.
c. determine if corrective lenses will be required.
d. enhance the patient/physician relationship.

Question 116

The measure Pupillary Distance one should measure from

Select one:

a. the center of one pupil to the center of the other pupil.
b. the nasal edge of one pupil to the nasal edge of the other pupil.
c. the nasal edge of one pupil to the temporal edge of the other pupil.
d. the temporal edge of one pupil to the temporal edge of the other pupil.

Answer 116

Select one:

a. the center of one pupil to the center of the other pupil.
b. the nasal edge of one pupil to the nasal edge of the other pupil.
c. the nasal edge of one pupil to the temporal edge of the other pupil.
d. the temporal edge of one pupil to the temporal edge of the other pupil.

Question 117

The metric equivalent of 20/50 is

Select one:

a. 20/15.
b. 6/12.
c. 6/30.
d. 6/15.

Answer 117

Select one:

a. 20/15.
b. 6/12.
c. 6/30.
d. 6/15.

Question 118

The MOST common strep that invades the eye, causing conjunctivitis, corneal ulcers and endophthalmitis is

Select one:

a. streptococcus Pneumoniae.
b. pseudomonas.
c. syphilis.
d. adenovirus.

Answer 118

Select one:

a. streptococcus Pneumoniae.
b. pseudomonas.
c. syphilis.
d. adenovirus.

Question 119

The optic nerve is protected by

Select one:

a. rods and Ccnes.
b. layers of fat and muscles.
c. choroid.
d. retinal pigment epithelium.

Answer 119

Select one:

a. rods and Ccnes.
b. layers of fat and muscles.
c. choroid.
d. retinal pigment epithelium.

Question 120

The outermost layer of the tear film is the

Select one:

a. goblet.
b. aqueous.
c. mucous.
d. lipid.

Answer 120

Select one:

a. goblet.
b. aqueous.
c. mucous.
d. lipid.

Question 121

The part of the nervous system that allows the body to function under stress is called the

Select one:

a. Parasympathetic Nervous System.
b. Sympathetic Nervous System.
c. Somatic Nervous System.
d. none of the above

Answer 121

Select one:

a. Parasympathetic Nervous System.
b. Sympathetic Nervous System.
c. Somatic Nervous System.
d. none of the above

Question 122

The purpose of binocular balancing is to

Select one:
a. determine the dominant eye.
b. check for amblyopia.
c. equalize accommodative effort of both eyes.
d. reverse the patient's eye dominance.
The purpose of binocular balancing is to

Answer 122

Select one:
a. determine the dominant eye.
b. check for amblyopia.
c. equalize accommodative effort of both eyes.
d. reverse the patient's eye dominance.
The purpose of binocular balancing is to

Question 123

The staph bacteria is _________ shaped and is Gram stain _________.

Select one:

a. rod, positive
b. spiral, negative
c. round, positive
d. round, negative

Answer 123

Select one:

a. rod, positive
b. spiral, negative
c. round, positive
d. round, negative

Question 124

The sterile field in an operating room includes

Select one:

a. the instrument table from the top to the bottom of the sterile drape.
b. the surgeon and sterile assistant(s) from chest to sterile field in the front and from gloved fingers to 2” above elbows.
c. the patient’s blood pressure cuff.
d. all of the above

Answer 124

select one:

a. the instrument table from the top to the bottom of the sterile drape.
b. the surgeon and sterile assistant(s) from chest to sterile field in the front and from gloved fingers to 2” above elbows.
c. the patient’s blood pressure cuff.
d. all of the above

Question 125

The syphilis bacteria is ______ shaped.

Select one:

a. rod
b. round
c. spiral
d. none of the above

Answer 125

Select one:

a. rod
b. round
c. spiral
d. none of the above

Question 126

The theory behind A Scan technology is

Select one:

a. light waves travel through tissue at varying speeds.
b. tissue reflect light waves at various wavelengths.
c. sound waves travel through tissue at varying speeds due to different densities of tissues.
d. B and C

Answer 126

Select one:

a. light waves travel through tissue at varying speeds.
b. tissue reflect light waves at various wavelengths.
c. sound waves travel through tissue at varying speeds due to different densities of tissues.
d. B and C

Question 127

The type of tissue which will absorb the LASER beam depends on

Select one:

a. the wavelength of the LASER.
b. the power of the LASER beam.
c. the angle of the LASER.
d. the coherency of the LASER.

Answer 127

Select one:

a. the wavelength of the LASER.
b. the power of the LASER beam.
c. the angle of the LASER.
d. the coherency of the LASER.

Question 128

The visible spectrum of light is from

Select one:

a. 400 – 700 nanometers.
b. 300-700 nanometers.
c. 500-900 meters.
d. 400-600 meters.

Answer 128

Select one:

a. 400 – 700 nanometers.
b. 300-700 nanometers.
c. 500-900 meters.
d. 400-600 meters.

Question 129

The Visual Acuity Optotype letter “E” subtends how many minutes of arc?

Select one:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10

Answer 129

Select one:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10

Question 130

To avoid instrument staining when using an autoclave

Select one:

a. warm the instruments with a dry cycle first.
b. soak them in warm water for 20 minutes before sterilizing.
c. open the door immediately after the cycle is complete.
d. all of the above

Answer 130

Select one:

a. warm the instruments with a dry cycle first.
b. soak them in warm water for 20 minutes before sterilizing.
c. open the door immediately after the cycle is complete.
d. all of the above

Question 131

To evaluate the conjunctival or corneal surface for degenerated cells, one should use

Select one:

a. fluorescein dye.
b. Rose Bengal.
c. Indocyanine Green.
d. 5-Fluorouracil.

Answer 131

Select one:

a. fluorescein dye.
b. Rose Bengal.
c. Indocyanine Green.
d. 5-Fluorouracil.

Question 132

To measure pupillary distance in a patient with one seeing eye, measure from

Select one:

a. the center of one pupil to the center of the other pupil.
b. the center of the bridge of the nose to the center of the pupil of the good eye.
c. the center of the bridge of the nose to the temporal edge of the pupil of the good eye.
d. the center of the pupil of the bad eye to the nasal edge of the pupil in the good eye.

Answer 132

Select one:

a. the center of one pupil to the center of the other pupil.
b. the center of the bridge of the nose to the center of the pupil of the good eye.
c. the center of the bridge of the nose to the temporal edge of the pupil of the good eye.
d. the center of the pupil of the bad eye to the nasal edge of the pupil in the good eye.

Question 133

To sterilize an entire room the best method would be

Select one:

a. EO gas.
b. UV light.
c. moist heat.
d. dry heat.

Answer 133

Select one:

a. EO gas.
b. UV light.
c. moist heat.
d. dry heat.

Question 134

Tonicity refers to a drug’s

Select one:

a. concentration.
b. pH.
c. stability.
d. sterility.

Answer 134

Select one:

a. concentration.
b. pH.
c. stability.
d. sterility.

Question 135

Tumbling E’s should be used to assess vision on a

Select one:

a. 3 year old.
b. 1 year old.
c. infant.
d. teenager.

Answer 135

Select one:

a. 3 year old.
b. 1 year old.
c. infant.
d. teenager.

Question 136

Typical side effects of antihistamines include

Select one:

a. blurred vision, pupil dilation, dry eyes.
b. increased IOP, PSC cataracts.
c. subconj heme, vitreoretinal heme.
d. keratopathy, optic neuritis, ptosis.

Answer 136

Select one:

a. blurred vision, pupil dilation, dry eyes.
b. increased IOP, PSC cataracts.
c. subconj heme, vitreoretinal heme.
d. keratopathy, optic neuritis, ptosis.

Question 137

Under what circumstances must the Goldmann tonometer prism must be positioned at the patient’s axis?

Select one:

a. When the patient has more than 1D of cyl.
b. When the patient has had corneal refractive surgery.
c. When the patient has > 3D of cyl.
d. When measuring IOP for a diurnal curve.

Answer 137

Select one:

a. When the patient has more than 1D of cyl.
b. When the patient has had corneal refractive surgery.
c. When the patient has > 3D of cyl.
d. When measuring IOP for a diurnal curv

Question 138

Vertex distance is measured from

Select one:

a. the back surface of cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens.
b. the front surface of the spectacle lens to the back surface of the cornea.
c. the back surface of the spectacle lens to the front surface of the cornea.
d. None of the above

Answer 138

Select one:

a. the back surface of cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens.
b. the front surface of the spectacle lens to the back surface of the cornea.
c. the back surface of the spectacle lens to the front surface of the cornea.
d. None of the above

Question 139

Wavelengths are measured in

Select one:

a. meters.
b. feet.
c. degrees.
d. millimeters.

Answer 139

Select one:

a. meters.
b. feet.
c. degrees.
d. millimeters.

Question 140

What area of the cornea is flattened by the prism of a Goldmann tonometer?

Select one:

a. 2.56 mm
b. 3.54 mm
c. 3.06 mm
d. 2.74 mm

Answer 140

Select one:

a. 2.56 mm
b. 3.54 mm
c. 3.06 mm
d. 2.74 mm

Question 141

What is asepsis?

Select one:

a. Free of all micro-organisms including spores
b. The absence of micro-organisms that cause disease
c. Arresting the growth of micro-organisms
d. A disease state caused by infection with micro-organisms

Answer 141

Select one:

a. Free of all micro-organisms including spores
b. The absence of micro-organisms that cause disease
c. Arresting the growth of micro-organisms
d. A disease state caused by infection with micro-organisms

Question 142

What is the main neuro-transmitter of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

Select one:

a. Benzalkonium
b. Acetylcholine
c. Epinephrine
d. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

Answer 142

Select one:

a. Benzalkonium
b. Acetylcholine
c. Epinephrine
d. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

Question 143

What line is used to calibrate a 20’ Snellen Eye Chart?

Select one:

a. 20/20
b. 20/50
c. 20/200
d. 20/400

Answer 143

Select one:

a. 20/20
b. 20/50
c. 20/200
d. 20/400

Question 144

What organism does biological monitoring use as a gauge?

Select one:

a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Spore
d. Fungus

Answer 144

Select one:

a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Spore
d. Fungus

Question 145

What size white target would be advisable to use when performing a Goldmann Visual Field test on an older patient who has 20/200 vision?

Select one:

a. 2 mm.
b. 1 mm.
c. 5 mm.
d. 10 mm.

Answer 145

Select one:

a. 2 mm.
b. 1 mm.
c. 5 mm.
d. 10 mm.

Question 146

When a mirror is touched with a pencil, it shows space between the pencil and its reflection. This mirror is a

Select one:

a. front surface mirror.
b. convex mirror.
c. back surface mirror.
d. concave mirror.

Answer 146

Select one:

a. front surface mirror.
b. convex mirror.
c. back surface mirror.
d. concave mirror

Question 147

When a provider “Accepts Medicare Assignment” it means they

Select one:

a. accept what Medicare pays as payment in full.
b. agree not charge the patient more than the Medicare Allowable.
c. agree not to bill the patient for anything Medicare doesn’t cover.
d. agree to bill the insurance on behalf of the patient.

Answer 147

Select one:

a. accept what Medicare pays as payment in full.
b. agree not charge the patient more than the Medicare Allowable.
c. agree not to bill the patient for anything Medicare doesn’t cover.
d. agree to bill the insurance on behalf of the patient.

Question 148

When handling instrument bulbs, it’s important NOT to hold the glass part of the bulb with bare hands because

Select one:

a. it may break.
b. oils can dim the illumination.
c. it may decrease the life of the bulb.
d. all of the above

Answer 148

Select one:

a. it may break.
b. oils can dim the illumination.
c. it may decrease the life of the bulb.
d. all of the above

Question 149

When measuring VA, the patient cannot read anything on the Snellen chart nor can he detect the light of your transilluminator from any of the 4 of their visual field. Your next course of action should be

Select one:

a. check again for LP with an indirect ophthalmoscope.
b. check for hand motion.
c. turn room lights on and try again.
d. record NLP.

Answer 149

Select one:

a. check again for LP with an indirect ophthalmoscope.
b. check for hand motion.
c. turn room lights on and try again.
d. record NLP.

Question 150

When performing a horizontal B Scan the examiner should orient the probe

Select one:

a. vertically.
b. nasally.
c. temporally.
d. inferiorly.

Answer 150

Select one:

a. vertically.
b. nasally.
c. temporally.
d. inferiorly.

Question 151

When performing Direct Light Reflex testing your subject’s pupils constrict briskly, both pupils slowly dilate to an intermediate size followed by a state of unrest. This characterizes what?

Select one:

a. An Adies Tonic Pupil
b. Normal Pupils
c. Anisocoria
d. A Reverse Marcus Gunn Pupil

Answer 151

When performing Direct Light Reflex testing your subject’s pupils constrict briskly, both pupils slowly dilate to an intermediate size followed by a state of unrest. This characterizes what?

Select one:

a. An Adies Tonic Pupil
b. Normal Pupils
c. Anisocoria
d. A Reverse Marcus Gunn Pupil

Question 152

When performing retinoscopy, which of the following steps should be performed first?

Select one:

a. Add plus sphere.
b. Add minus sphere.
c. Level phoropter.
d. Subtract sphere lenses to account for working distance

Answer 152

Select one:

a. Add plus sphere.
b. Add minus sphere.
c. Level phoropter.
d. Subtract sphere lenses to account for working distance.

Question 153

When performing the Cover/Uncover Test the examiner should

Select one:

a. look at the uncovered eye.
b. never allow the patient to be binocular.
c. have the patient look at a large distant object.
d. all of the above

Answer 153

Select one:

a. look at the uncovered eye.
b. never allow the patient to be binocular.
c. have the patient look at a large distant object.
d. all of the above

Question 154

When performing the Swinging Flashlight Test the examiner should have

Select one:

a. a small fixation target.
b. dim room light.
c. bright room light.
d. a dim hand light.

Answer 154

Select one:

a. a small fixation target.
b. dim room light.
c. bright room light.
d. a dim hand light.

Question 155

When taking fundus photos on a patient with dark pigmentation, the examiner should

Select one:

a. turn the flash setting up.
b. turn the fixation light off.
c. use cylinder corrective lenses.
d. use a non-myd camera.

Answer 155

Select one:

a. turn the flash setting up.
b. turn the fixation light off.
c. use cylinder corrective lenses.
d. use a non-myd camera.

Question 156

When testing the visual field beyond the central 30 dregee with a Goldmann Perimeter, it’s important to

Select one:

a. remove the trial lens.
b. recalibrate the instrument.
c. turn the room lights on.
d. change the fixation target.

Answer 156

Select one:

a. remove the trial lens.
b. recalibrate the instrument.
c. turn the room lights on.
d. change the fixation target.

Question 157

When the right eye abducts it is looking

Select one:

a. right.
b. left.
c. up.
d. down.

Answer 157

Select one:

a. right.
b. left.
c. up.
d. down.

Question 158

Which disorder causes the eyes to have incomplete closure with blink?

Select one:

a. Xanthalasma
b. Lagophthalmos
c. Dermatochalsis
d. Ptosis

Answer 158

Select one:

a. Xanthalasma
b. Lagophthalmos
c. Dermatochalsis
d. Ptosis

Question 159

Which method is BEST used to detect a central visual field defect?

Select one:

a. Confrontation visual field testing
b. Amsler Grid testing
c. Binocular automated perimetry
d. Ptosis visual field test

Answer 159

Select one:

a. Confrontation visual field testing
b. Amsler Grid testing
c. Binocular automated perimetry
d. Ptosis visual field test

Question 160

Which of the following disorders can cause an APD?

Select one:

a. Optic neuritis
b. Strabismus
c. Bilateral, severe optic neuropathy
d. High myopia in one eye

Answer 160

Select one:

a. Optic neuritis
b. Strabismus
c. Bilateral, severe optic neuropathy
d. High myopia in one eye

Question 161

Which of the following is a symptom?

Select one:

a. Red eye
b. Flashes of light
c. Discharge
d. Growth on lid

Answer 161

Select one:

a. Red eye
b. Flashes of light
c. Discharge
d. Growth on lid

Question 162

Which of the following is important to get accurate IOL Master readings?

Select one:

a. A spherical cornea.
b. A good tear film.
c. 3 or more consistent ultrasound measurements.
d. A dilated pupil.

Answer 162

Select one:

a. A spherical cornea.
b. A good tear film.
c. 3 or more consistent ultrasound measurements.
d. A dilated pupil.

Question 163

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Near Reflex Triad?

Select one:

a. Pupillary constriction
b. Divergence
c. Accommodation
d. Convergence

Answer 163

Select one:

a. Pupillary constriction
b. Divergence
c. Accommodation
d. Convergence

Question 164

Which of the following is NOT a descriptive used when documenting the History of Present Illness?

Select one:

a. Timing
b. Side Effects
c. Modifying Factors
d. Context

Answer 164

Select one:

a. Timing
b. Side Effects
c. Modifying Factors
d. Context

Question 165

Which of the following is TRUE about Threshold Visual Field Testing?

Select one:

a. The values represent the level of stimulus which the patient saw only 50% of the time.
b. It requires multiple tests of the same point at varying intensities of light.
c. It can be performed with static or kinetic stimuli.
d. All of the above

Answer 165

Select one:

a. The values represent the level of stimulus which the patient saw only 50% of the time.
b. It requires multiple tests of the same point at varying intensities of light.
c. It can be performed with static or kinetic stimuli.
d. All of the above

Question 166

Which of the following is TRUE for the Visual Potential Test (PAM)?

Select one:

a. It uses a Snellen chart.
b. The patient’s astigmatism must be corrected.
c. It cannot be used in patients with visually significant cataracts.
d. All of the above

Answer 166

Select one:

a. It uses a Snellen chart.
b. The patient’s astigmatism must be corrected.
c. It cannot be used in patients with visually significant cataracts.
d. All of the above

Question 167

Which of the following patients should be considered to be immune-compromised?

Select one:

a. Alcoholics
b. Diabetics
c. Renal transplant patients
d. all of the above

Answer 167

Select one:

a. Alcoholics
b. Diabetics
c. Renal transplant patients
d. all of the above

Question 168

Which of the following visual assessment methods is suitable for a patient with a language barrier?

Select one:

a. Sheridan-Gardiner
b. Teller Acuity Cards
c. Tumbling E’s
d. ETDRS Chart

Answer 168

Select one:

a. Sheridan-Gardiner
b. Teller Acuity Cards
c. Tumbling E’s
d. ETDRS Chart

Question 169

While measuring spectacle lenses in a manual lensmeter, you notice you cannot center the target. This indicates

Select one:
a. the lenses must be read from the back.
b. the presence of prism.
c. the presence of slab off.
d. a lens with high spherical aberration.
Clear my choice
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Question text

Answer 169

Select one:
a. the lenses must be read from the back.
b. the presence of prism.
c. the presence of slab off.
d. a lens with high spherical aberration.
Clear my choice

Question 170

While you are performing retinoscopy, you see ‘with’ movement. This indicates you should dial in

Select one:

a. more plus sphere.
b. more minus cyl.
c. more minus sphere.
d. more plus cyl.

Answer 170

Select one:

a. more plus sphere.
b. more minus cyl.
c. more minus sphere.
d. more plus cyl.

Question 171

Why is it important to keep BSS flowing during phacoemulsification?

Select one:

a. To maintain a sterile field
b. To keep the temperature at a safe level inside the eye
c. To stabilize the energy flow
d. all of the above

Answer 171

Select one:

a. To maintain a sterile field
b. To keep the temperature at a safe level inside the eye
c. To stabilize the energy flow
d. all of the above

Question 172

With Amblyopia it’s important to

Select one:

a. patch the amblyopic eye.
b. begin treatment at an early age.
c. keep the amblyopic eye covered when not in use.
d. all of the above

Answer 172

Select one:

a. patch the amblyopic eye.
b. begin treatment at an early age.
c. keep the amblyopic eye covered when not in use.
d. all of the above

Question 173

With LASER technology, the longer the wavelength the

Select one:

a. shorter the duration.
b. deeper the penetration.
c. higher the emission.
d. longer the frequency.

Answer 173

Select one:

a. shorter the duration.
b. deeper the penetration.
c. higher the emission.
d. longer the frequency.

Question 174

You are opening supplies in the OR for a staff member who is scrubbed in. A sterile instrument in an intact peel pack is dropped on the dry floor of the OR. Your BEST course of action is to

Select one:

a. peel the instrument package open using aseptic technique and let the sterile scrub grasp the instrument.
b. put the package with the instrument back in the sterile storage area for future use.
c. open the package, repackage and resterilize the instrument.
d. put the unopened package on the sterile back table.

Answer 174

Select one:

a. peel the instrument package open using aseptic technique and let the sterile scrub grasp the instrument.
b. put the package with the instrument back in the sterile storage area for future use.
c. open the package, repackage and resterilize the instrument.
d. put the unopened package on the sterile back table.

Question 175

Your subject’s pupils are 4.0 mm OD and 4.5 mm OS in ambient light. Both are briskly reactive to direct light. When performing SWIFT, the right pupil constricts to 3.5 mm and the left pupil dilates to 5.0. This characterizes

Select one:

a. anisocoria.
b. Marcus Gunn Pupil OS.
c. Marcus Gunn Pupil OD.
d. Horner’s Syndrome.

Answer 175

Select one:

a. anisocoria.
b. Marcus Gunn Pupil OS.
c. Marcus Gunn Pupil OD.
d. Horner’s Syndrome.