Cosmetic Liposuction / Abdominoplasty Flashcards

1
Q

An otherwise healthy 32-year-old woman is considering liposuction. Assuming that the patient maintains her current weight, which of the following most accurately describes the anticipated changes in her body fat distribution after surgery?

A) Long-term reduction in the abdomen but eventual reaccumulation in the hips
B) Long-term reduction in the hips but eventual reaccumulation in the abdomen
C) Long-term reduction in treated areas but compensatory increase in fat in untreated areas
D) Long-term reduction in treated areas without reaccumulation in treated or untreated areas of the body
E) Short-term reduction in treated areas but eventual long-term fat reaccumulation in these areas

A

The correct response is Option D.

Available recent Level III evidence using prospectively collected standardized photographic measurements in patients who have undergone liposuction and/or abdominoplasty versus retrospective controls demonstrated that removal of excess fat through these methods provided long-term reduction in treated areas without fat reaccumulation in either treated or untreated areas of the body. This evidence contradicts the commonly held notion (mostly by the lay public) that removal of fat in one location leads to “return” of fat in another.

Short-term reductions of fat with reaccumulation in treated and/or untreated areas can occur if the patient does not remain calorically neutral after surgery. However, in this clinical scenario, it is mentioned that this patient has had no postoperative increase in caloric intake.

2018

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2
Q

A 32-year-old woman is evaluated for trunk contouring 12 months after undergoing laparoscopic gastric bypass surgery. Hypertension and sleep apnea have resolved. Current BMI is 32.7 kg/m2. She reports an 80-lb (36.2-kg) weight loss and is still actively losing weight. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Complete blood cell count
B) CT scan of the abdomen
C) Panniculectomy
D) Re-evaluation in 6 months
E) Referral to psychiatry
A

The correct response is Option D.

In patients who have undergone gastric bypass surgery, consensus recommendations are to wait to proceed with body contouring surgery until the patient is at least 1 year from surgery. Additionally, recommendations are to wait until the patient has had a stable weight for at least 3 months and some authors advocate 6 months of weight stability. This is due to the fact that additional weight loss after surgery may result in recurrence of skin laxity. Stability of the long-term result is best achieved when there is stability of the underlying weight. Furthermore, risk of surgery increases with increasing BMI, thus waiting for the patient to achieve their lowest BMI prior to performing surgery will limit weight-associated risks. It is for these reasons that a return visit for reassessment in 6 months is the best choice as opposed to proceeding to panniculectomy at this time.

A CT scan is indicated in those patients where a physical examination is unable to rule out an abdominal wall hernia. In an otherwise asymptomatic patient from a hernia standpoint, reassessment of the physical examination once the patient has achieved a stable weight is the time to determine if there is an abdominal wall hernia that would be addressed at the time of body contouring surgery. At this point in time, the patient may have lost enough weight to adequately assess the abdominal wall for a hernia, and thus make a CT scan unnecessary.

Most post-bariatric patients will be obtaining laboratory assessments from their bariatric surgeon to assess for nutritional deficiencies and will be on supplements as indicated. After undergoing bariatric surgery, many patients have iron deficiency anemia. A complete blood count may be indicated for those who have symptoms or signs of anemia, or in whom a significant blood loss is anticipated. In relation to the body contouring surgery, this test is best undertaken once the plan to proceed with surgery is made. Again, this would occur once a stable weight has been achieved.

Many patients with weight control issues suffer from mental health pathology. A referral to a psychiatrist would be indicated in any patient who has a history of mental health issues or demonstrates signs or symptoms of psychopathology prior to embarking on post bariatric body contouring. As this patient has no medical issues noted, the routine referral to a mental health provider is not indicated.

2018

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3
Q

Which of the following measures reduces the risk for the most common complication in abdominoplasty?

A) Administration of preoperative intravenous antibiotics within 1 hour of incision
B) Attention to offloading pressure points and keeping upper extremities in neutral position
C) Discontinuation of NSAIDs and herbal supplements 4 weeks before surgery
D) Use of pneumatic compression devices before the induction of general anesthesia
E) Use of progressive tension sutures and drain placement

A

The correct response is Option E.

Seroma is the most common complication following abdominoplasty. Progressive tension sutures and/or use of drains have been shown to be effective in preventing this complication.

Use of antibiotics is intended to prevent infection. Discontinuation of NSAIDs, fish oil, and herbal supplements is intended to decrease the incidence of hematoma.

Offloading pressure points and extremities in neutral position is to decrease the incidence of neuropathies postoperatively.

Pneumatic compression devices and subcutaneous heparin and enoxaparin are intended to decrease the incidence of venous thromboembolism.

2018

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4
Q

A 35-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss improving the contour of her thighs. History includes gastric bypass surgery two years ago, followed by a stable 150-lb (68-kg) weight loss. Along with moderate horizontal excess skin, she has significant vertical excess skin, and a full-length vertical thighplasty is considered. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?

A) Hematoma
B) Infection
C) Labial spreading
D) Prolonged edema
E) Seroma
A

The correct response is Option D.

Each of the complications listed in this question has a significant occurrence with thighplasty in the massive-weight-loss population, but prolonged edema has been shown to be a particular risk factor in patients getting a full-length vertical component in their thighplasty, presumably due to circumferential compression of the low pressure lymphatic system. Labial spreading is possible but not likely.

2018

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5
Q

A healthy 29-year-old woman undergoes suction-assisted lipectomy with a tumescent solution for thigh lipodystrophy. A maximal dose of lidocaine 55 mg/kg is planned through the tumescent solution, and aspiration is planned through a 4-mm blunt-tipped cannula. Which of the following best approximates the expected percentage of local anesthetic in the aspirated material?

A) 20%
B) 50%
C) 70%
D) 90%

A

The correct response is Option A.

While there is evidence that doses of up to 55 mg/kg can be safely used in liposuction, the safe dose is likely dependent on the vascularity of the tissue injected rather than aspiration of the local anesthetic during the procedure. Studies have shown that between approximately 10 and 30% of local anesthetic is present in the aspirate, and one study showed that a mean of 9.8% of wetting solution was removed.

The knowledge that the majority of tumescent solution remains in vivo is important because lidocaine toxicity is a risk after tumescent liposuction.

2018

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6
Q

A 48-year-old man who underwent laparoscopic gastric bypass surgery 2 years ago is evaluated for a belt lipectomy after a massive weight loss of 150 lb (68 kg). He has maintained a stable weight for over 6 months. Current BMI is 30 kg/m2. Which of the following factors most increases the risk for hematoma in this patient?

A) Age
B) Gender
C) Location of incision
D) Postoperative BMI

A

The correct response is Option B.

Male gender is an increased risk factor for hematoma and seroma in body contouring patients, independent of hypertension. Age, incision site, and postoperative BMI have not been shown to increase the risk for hematoma.

2018

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7
Q

A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, is interested in a “mommy makeover”, with liposuction of the flanks, extended tummy tuck, brachioplasty, and augmentation mammaplasty. In this combination of surgeries, which of the following percentages best represents the cumulative risk in the general population for postoperative complications requiring reoperation or hospitalization?

A) 3%
B) 12%
C) 25%
D) 35%
E) 50%
A

The correct response is Option B.

Abdominoplasty is known to have a higher complication rate than many common aesthetic procedures. A recent study by Grotting and associates examining complication rates in more than 25,000 abdominoplasties in a multi-surgeon database confirmed that the risk for a complication requiring hospitalization or reoperation increases significantly when abdominoplasty was combined with other surgeries.

In particular, abdominoplasty alone had a complication rate of 3.1%.

Abdominoplasty combined with liposuction – 3.8%

Abdominoplasty combined with a breast procedure – 4.3%

Abdominoplasty combined with a breast procedure and liposuction – 4.6%

Abdominoplasty combined with liposuction and a body contouring procedure – 10.4%

Abdominoplasty combined with liposuction, a breast procedure, and a body procedure – 12.0%

In this study, body procedures included brachioplasty, buttock lift, calf implant, labiaplasty, lower body lift, thigh lift, and upper body lifts.

Hematoma, infection, and suspected or confirmed venous thromboembolism represented 31.5%, 27.2%, and 20.2% of overall abdominoplasty complications in this study.

A second study, by the same group, looking at 129,000 cosmetic surgery patients as a group also confirmed an increased risk for major surgical site infections in cosmetic patients undergoing multiple simultaneous procedures.

Thus, caution is advised when considering multiple procedures concurrently in a higher risk patient.

2018

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most likely result of performing liposuction in conjunction with brachioplasty?

A) Facilitated tissue dissection
B) Lymphedema
C) Skin necrosis
D) Upper arm paresthesia
E) Wound dehiscence
A

The correct response is Option A.

Liposuction is often used in conjunction with excisional brachioplasty to facilitate dissection of the soft tissue, improve contour, and decrease the risks for nerve injury and lymphedema. There are many different techniques posed in the literature. Liposuction of the planned tissues of excision can ease the dissection planes. It can also be performed in the posterior upper arm to improve contour of the remaining tissues. Nerves and lymphatics are more protected by using liposuction instead of excision to debulk the arm. The use of liposuction does not increase the incidence of skin necrosis or wound dehiscence.

2018

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9
Q

Which of the following is the most common complication after cryolipolysis?

A) Hematoma
B) Paradoxical adipose hyperplasia
C) Seroma
D) Surface contour irregularities
E) Transient hypoesthesia
A

The correct response is Option E.

Cryolipolysis is a noninvasive technique to preferentially destroy adipose cells through controlled thermal reduction. Exposure of adipose cells to below normal temperatures results in apoptosis-mediated cell death. Adipose cells are more susceptible to thermal reduction as compared with adjacent tissue. The subsequent inflammatory response results in the removal of damaged adipose cells within 3 months. The most common complication following cryolipolysis is hypoesthesia or decreased sensation of the treated areas, which resolves within 6 months. Other complications, which are less common, include paradoxical adipose hyperplasia, surface contour irregularities, and chronic pain. No hematomas or seromas have been reported in the literature.

2018

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10
Q

A 28-year-old woman comes to the office for a consultation on liposuction of the abdomen. She has already had consultations with several other physicians and is unsure whether to undergo suction-assisted liposuction (SAL) or ultrasound-assisted liposuction (UAL). Which of the following is the most significant advantage of choosing UAL over SAL?

A) Better aesthetic outcome
B) Better skin tightening
C) Greater patient satisfaction
D) Less surgeon fatigue
E) Lower complication rates
A

The correct response is Option D.

The main advantage of ultrasound-assisted liposuction over suction-assisted liposuction is less surgeon fatigue.

In traditional or suction-assisted liposuction, the fat is removed by the repetitive arm movements breaking up the fat. The suction then aspirates the loosened fat. In ultrasound-assisted liposuction, ultrasound energy breaks the fat apart and emulsifies it, thus allowing it to be removed by the suction cannula. The main advantage of this is to decrease surgeon fatigue from the repetitive arm movements and also to help break apart the fat in fibrous areas or areas of scar from prior procedures.

Peer-reviewed studies have not shown any consistent evidence-based benefits for the use of ultrasound-assisted liposuction over suction-assisted liposuction. The aesthetic outcomes, patient satisfaction, and rates of long-term complications appear to be more related to technique and not technology. As a result, suction-assisted liposuction continues to remain the predominant technique of liposuction due to its relatively low cost and the rapid rate at which new technologies are introduced with little objective evidence supporting any additional benefit.

2018

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11
Q

A 39-year-old woman comes to the office for a consultation regarding abdominoplasty. Three years ago, she underwent gastric sleeve bariatric surgery, which was followed by a 100-lb (43-kg) weight loss. Weight has been stable for 1 year. Past medical history includes mitral valve prolapse, sleep apnea, and exercise-induced asthma. The patient is gravida 5, para 2, with 3 miscarriages. Her mother had deep vein thrombosis at 70 years of age while on a 5-hour flight. BMI is 31 kg/m2. Physical examination shows an overhanging panniculus with intertrigo. An evaluation by which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A) Cardiologist
B) Dermatologist
C) Hematologist
D) Nutritionist
E) Sleep specialist
A

The correct response is Option C.

This patient presents with multiple risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). According to the 2005 Caprini Tool for DVT Risk Assessment, this patient has a minimum of 7 points (3 points for family history of thrombosis, 1 point multiple miscarriages (>3 miscarriages), 1 point for BMI > 25, and 2 points for Major Surgery > 45 minutes). With both a family history of thrombosis and multiple miscarriages, there is a significant likelihood that the patient has a genetic thrombophilia. A hematologist will be able to diagnose and quantify the significance of a genetic thrombophilia. A genetic thrombophilia such as Positive factor V Leiden gene mutation, if present, would add an additional 3 points of risk for DVT and pulmonary embolus, bringing the total risk score from 7 to 10. If abdominoplasty were performed, chemoprophylaxis would be highly recommended with these risk factors.

The mechanism of multiple miscarriages in women with thrombophilia is clotting of the placenta and subsequent fetal loss. These women are given anticoagulation chemoprophylaxis during pregnancy to help prevent placental thrombosis.

The most common inherited thrombophilia is factor V Leiden, which is present in 3 to 7% of the Caucasian population. Multiple inherited thrombophilia conditions can be present in the same individual.

Consultations with a sleep apnea specialist, cardiologist, dermatologist, and nutritionist are all reasonable considerations; however, the evaluation for genetic thrombophilia is most crucial to this patient’s evaluation for abdominoplasty.

2018

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12
Q

A 32-year-old woman is interested in post-pregnancy body contouring. BMI is 34 kg/m2. When combined with abdominoplasty, liposuction of which of the following areas has an increased risk for wound healing complications?

A) Flank
B) Lateral hip
C) Lateral thigh
D) Mons pubis
E) Supraumbilical abdomen
A

The correct response is Option E.

Traditionally, the supraumbilical abdomen has been considered the area where liposuction might further disrupt blood supply already interrupted by the abdominoplasty undermining. Techniques to minimize undermining and preserve blood supply to allow more aggressive liposuction in this area have been reported and are in use. The mons pubis, lateral hip, flank, and lateral thigh blood supplies are less affected by abdominoplasty, and therefore, these areas have traditionally been less prone to complications when liposuction is performed in them at the time of abdominoplasty.

2018

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13
Q

A 43-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding abdominoplasty. She says she is concerned about postoperative hypoesthesia of the abdominal wall. Which of the following areas is most likely to have the greatest decrease in sensation after a traditional abdominoplasty in this patient?

A) Epigastric
B) Infraumbilical
C) Lateral abdominal
D) Mons pubis
E) Subxiphoid
A

The correct response is Option B.

The innervation to the anterior abdominal wall comes from the anterior cutaneous branches of the 6th to 12th intercostal nerves. The anterior cutaneous nerves perforate the anterior rectus sheath and are severed during the undermining of the abdominal flap during abdominoplasty. The hypogastric or infraumbilical region becomes the distal-most point for sensory innervation from the surrounding intact lateral cutaneous branches of the intercostal nerves that innervate the lateral anterior abdominal wall. The transverse incision from the abdominoplasty limits innervation from the pubic and thigh regions. The mons pubis should not demonstrate much change in sensation as it lies inferior to the surgical scar.

Patients undergoing abdominoplasty should be made aware of the likely decrease in sensation of this area, including superficial touch, superficial pain, pressure, vibration, and temperature.

2017

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14
Q

A 48-year-old woman with a history of a 160-lb (73-kg) weight loss after gastric bypass surgery comes to the office because she seeks a trimmer torso. Current BMI is 29 kg/m2. Physical examination shows excessive skin on the horizontal and vertical dimensions of the abdomen. Which of the following procedures is most likely to result in aesthetic correction of the deformity?

A) Circumferential dermolipectomy
B) Corset abdominoplasty
C) Externally applied laser lipolysis
D) Liposuction of the anterior abdomen
E) Revision of the gastric bypass
A

The correct response is Option B.

The increasing popularity of bariatric surgical procedures for the management of obesity has generated a plethora of plastic surgical techniques to deal with the sequelae of massive weight loss. A thorough analysis of the anatomical result of weight loss is key in determining the ideal procedure for each individual’s situation and goals. While liposuction might be helpful as an adjunct to surgical excision, it does not usually produce measurable skin tightening in this group of patients. Skin resection options have been devised based on the skin laxity pattern. When significant horizontal and vertical skin excess is present, a corset trunkplasty, devised by A.P. Moya, is the most likely of the choices to result in a trimmer abdomen shape. This option addresses the upper abdominal skin laxity that is not routinely addressed with traditional abdominoplasty.

Circumferential dermolipectomy, also known as belt lipectomy, creates a vertical tightening but not a horizontal tightening of loose skin.

Laser lipolysis applied externally is not indicated for the management of excessive skin laxity. This patient has achieved an acceptable result (BMI of 29) of bariatric surgery and therefore no revision of the bypass operation is indicated.

2017

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15
Q

A 48-year-old man is evaluated for a panniculectomy for symptomatic panniculitis 18 months status post Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. The patient has lost 150 lb (68 kg), and BMI is 28 kg/m2. He reports taking a multivitamin every day and exercising for 30 minutes three times a week. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Preoperative nutritional evaluation will most likely show a deficiency in which of the following micronutrients?

A) Iron
B) Vitamin A
C) Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
D) Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)
E) Vitamin D
A

The correct response is Option A.

Because of the restrictive and malabsorptive components of the procedure, iron deficiency anemia is very common in post-bariatric patients. Iron deficiency occurs in 30 to 50% of post-bariatric patients despite a recommended daily multivitamin.

Roux-en-Y gastric bypass promotes weight loss through both a restrictive component and a malabsorptive component. This has implications for micronutrient absorption, because pancreatic release of enzymes is no longer synced with gastric emptying, and factors involved in the processing and absorption of micronutrients are decreased. Micronutrient deficiencies are common after bariatric surgery, and while many are asymptomatic, they can have effects on wound healing after surgery.

Vitamin B12 deficiencies are most common at least 12 months after surgery and range from 3.6 to 37%, but they depend on chronicity, degree of supplementation, and type of bypass. Brolin, et al, in 2002, compared patients with a distal Roux-en-Y gastric bypass to those with short Roux limbs (150 cm and 50 to 75 cm). Vitamin B12 deficiency was most common in patients who underwent Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, and B12 deficiency was most common after surgery with short limbs (50 to 75 cm). Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency is approximately 17.6%. Vitamin B1, (thiamine), deficiency is estimated at 18.3% of post-bariatric patients. Most B complex deficiencies are asymptomatic. Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency is estimated to be 13.6% one year after bariatric surgery.

Because of the malabsorptive component of Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies can also occur in the post-bariatric patient. Vitamin A deficiency can be progressive, and deficiency is estimated to be 11% one year after surgery and 69% four years after surgery. Vitamin E deficiency is relatively uncommon in post-bariatric patients who are taking supplementation.

2017

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16
Q

A 36-year-old woman with a BMI of 35 kg/m2 undergoes liposuction of the anterior trunk, posterior trunk, and circumferential thighs. Which of the following is the minimum volume of lipoaspirate that can be classified as “large volume” liposuction?

A) 1000 mL
B) 2500 mL
C) 5000 mL
D) 7500 mL

A

The correct response is Option C.

Lipoaspirate volumes over 5000 mL are what are widely considered to define “large volume” liposuction. This distinction has relevance as it relates to postoperative care. Patients undergoing “large volume” liposuction are often considered for overnight observation as an inpatient admission. The other volumes (1000 mL, 2500 mL, and 7500 mL) are not the cutoffs for consideration as “large volume” liposuction.

2017

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17
Q

A 28-year-old woman suffered a wound dehiscence after an abdominoplasty. History includes a 70-lb (32-kg) weight loss over the past 5 years through diet and exercise. She is angry and wants to know why the separation happened. Which of the following is the most likely contributor to the development of this complication?

A) Central rectus plication
B) Discontinuous release of tissue over the costal margins
C) Extensive undermining over the hips
D) Liposuction of the bilateral mid flanks
E) Liposuction of the central supraumbilical flap

A

The correct response is Option E.

Liposuction of the central supraumbilical flap may further impair blood supply to the area farthest from the remaining blood supply after undermining and is the most likely of the choices to cause wound healing complications. Extensive undermining over the hips is usually well tolerated and a component of most abdominoplasties. Central rectus plication, if too tight, may contribute to respiratory difficulty or umbilical loss due to constricted blood supply, but it is unlikely to directly relate to poor healing of the midline incisional skin and fat. Liposuction of the bilateral mid flanks (in contrast to the central supraumbilical flap) is usually well tolerated as it allows preservation of the blood supply traveling from the costal region into the flap. While wide undermining over the costal margins may promote poor wound healing of the advanced tissue at the superior aspect of the incision, tunneling or discontinuous release aimed at perforator preservation is a described technique to increase the ability to contour the upper abdomen without concomitant significant increase in wound healing complications.

2017

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18
Q

A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of numbness of the right arm that extends from the mid arm to the medial aspect of the forearm to the wrist 5 weeks after undergoing bilateral brachioplasty. Which of the following operative techniques is most likely to decrease the risk for this numbness while adequately correcting the deformity?

A) Dissecting adjacent to the muscle fascia throughout the length of the arm
B) Dissecting deep to the muscle fascia throughout the length of the arm
C) Leaving a 1-cm cuff of fat overlying the deep fascia throughout the length of the arm
D) Performing a skin-only resection

A

The correct response is Option C.

The medial antebrachial cutaneous (MABC) nerve arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus and innervates the medial arm and forearm. Distal to the axilla, the MABC nerve travels with the basilic vein. Anatomic studies have shown that the nerve penetrates the deep fascia approximately 14 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle relatively consistently. It is vulnerable during brachioplasty because of this position. The recommended technique to protect the medial antebrachial cutaneous (MABC) nerve is to leave a 1-cm cuff of fat overlying the deep fascia. A smaller cuff is inadequate to protect the nerve.

In cases where the brachioplasty dissection must extend distal to the elbow, one can minimize injury to the nerve by maintaining a dissection plane superficial to the deep brachial fascia and transitioning to the subcutaneous plane below the elbow.

A skin-only resection is unlikely to adequately correct the defect. Dissecting adjacent to, or deep to, the subcutaneous fascia places the nerve at risk because of the depth of the dissection.

2017

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19
Q

A healthy 40-year-old woman is scheduled for bilateral brachioplasty along with liposuction of the upper arms. Which of the following is the most common unfavorable outcome of this combined procedure?

A) Hematoma
B) Hypertrophic scar
C) Infection
D) Sensory nerve injury
E) Wound dehiscence
A

The correct response is Option B.

Adverse scarring is a common complication after brachioplasty and can warrant surgical revision in some cases. Liposuction of the arm with concomitant brachioplasty is a well-described and safe procedure. Along with seromas, recent studies show that hypertrophic scarring is the most common adverse outcome after this combined procedure. Other adverse outcomes such as hematoma, infection, and wound dehiscence are less frequently encountered. Sensory nerve injury, especially the medial antebrachial nerve, is possible, although it is much less likely than the incidence of hypertrophic scarring.

2017

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20
Q

A 35-year-old woman undergoes suction-assisted lipectomy of the bilateral arms using a tumescent technique. A total of 500 mL of aspirate is recovered. She is discharged home the same day, and returns to the emergency department 8 hours after discharge. Lidocaine toxicity is suspected. Which of the following symptoms is most likely in this patient?

A) Anisocoria
B) Petechial rash of the neck and axillae
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Tachypnea
E) Tinnitus
A

The correct response is Option E.

Although safe doses of lidocaine in tumescent solution can reach 35 mg/kg, lidocaine toxicity is still a risk. Peak plasma levels of lidocaine, when injected into fatty tissue, occur 10 to 14 hours after infiltration.

Lidocaine toxicity symptoms include neurologic or cardiac toxicity. In the early stages, the complications are primarily neurologic, and can include slurred speech, restlessness, tinnitus, and a metallic taste, as well as numbness of the mouth. As the concentrations increase, the neurologic concentrations become more severe, and can progress to muscle twitching, seizures, and cardiac arrest. Treatment of lidocaine toxicity is supportive.

A petechial rash of the neck and axillae is a typical sign of fat embolism, and tachypnea is a typical sign of a pulmonary embolism. Anisocoria can be a benign finding, although if it is a new finding, it is suggestive of Horner syndrome or a brain aneurysm.

Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) refers to tachycardia that occurs above or at the atrioventricular node. Paroxysmal SVT, atrial fibrillation, and Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome are the most common forms of SVT. SVT can cause syncope and long-term cardiac damage.

2017

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21
Q

An overweight 36-year-old woman who underwent full abdominoplasty by another surgeon 6 months ago is referred to the office from the emergency department because of persistent pain around the right lower quadrant of the abdomen with concomitant paresthesia to the lateral thigh. The patient reports her postoperative course was unremarkable. Abdominal CT scan from the emergency department shows postsurgical changes and an 8 x 1-cm linear fluid collection subjacent to the incision. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Administer oral gabapentin
B) Apply compression garment
C) Inject a local anesthetic
D) Massage the scar
E) Surgically explore the wound
A

The correct response is Option C.

In the absence of other postoperative findings, damage to or entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms. The LFCN exits the abdomen near the anterior superior iliac spine and is the most commonly injured nerve during abdominoplasty (incidence of 1.36%).

If a nerve injury is suspected, the diagnosis can be confirmed by injection of local anesthetic just proximal to the location of the pain or Tinel sign. Conservative treatment includes scar massage and physical therapy aimed at desensitization techniques. These nonoperative treatments can be combined with an oral anticonvulsant such as gabapentin for pain management in the short term. More severe or debilitating symptoms may warrant earlier surgical intervention. However, a local anesthetic nerve block is diagnostic and is indicated prior to either conservative or surgical treatment.

A compression garment would be neither therapeutic nor diagnostic for this patient.

2017

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22
Q

A 40-year-old woman comes to the office for body contouring following a 150-lb (68-kg) weight loss after undergoing laparoscopic gastric banding surgery. Medical history includes deep venous thrombosis 7 years ago while taking progestin for oral contraception. Family history includes two first-degree relatives who sustained a pulmonary embolism. Laboratory studies show the patient has a factor V Leiden coagulation disorder. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this disorder in this patient?

A) Increased levels of coagulation factor V
B) Increased resistance to activated protein C
C) Persistent antibodies to coagulation factor V
D) Protein C deficiency
E) Protein S deficiency

A

The correct response is Option B.

Factor V Leiden is the most prevalent hypercoagulation disorder. It is the most common genetic risk factor for venous thromboembolism.

Activated protein C, together with its co-factor protein S, inhibits the coagulation cascade by inactivating factor V and factor VIIIa. Activated protein C cleaves factor V in three sites; a mutation in the first site is known as factor V Leiden. In carriers of factor V Leiden, factor Va is inactivated approximately 10 times slower than normal.

Protein C and S deficiencies are described coagulation disorders. Lower levels of these proteins also inhibit the coagulation cascade and may be associated with warfarin-related skin necrosis and purpura fulminans in the neonatal period.

The most common cause of acquired coagulation disorders is antiphospholipid syndrome, an autoimmune disorder caused by antibodies to phospholipids. These antibodies include anticardiolipin, lupus anticoagulant and anti-beta-2-glycoprotein I.

Increased levels of coagulation factors VIII, IX and XI are associated with increased risk of thromboembolism.

2017

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23
Q

For women undergoing abdominoplasty after massive weight loss, which of the following is the best position of the navel?

A) Along the line drawn between the iliac crests
B) At the horizontal level of the tenth ribs
C) Between the first and second tendinous inscriptions
D) In the midline 10 cm above the vulvar commissure
E) One-third of the distance from the xiphoid to the pubis

A

The correct response is Option A.

As a result of the rapid increase in the number of bariatric surgical procedures performed each year, the frequency of body contouring procedures has risen concomitantly over the past decade. Among the most popular of these is abdominoplasty for resection of redundant skin on the torso. When designing the outline of skin to be resected, among the preeminent concerns is maximizing the aesthetic result of the procedure. Removal of the redundant panniculus may involve a low transverse incision only or a more extensive resection such as the fleur-de-lis or corset pattern incisions. The length of the navel stalk may limit any transposition of this structure. Accordingly, one must plan for sitting the navel in an aesthetically pleasing location to complement the finished result. The umbilicus is typically inset along a horizontal line that spans the iliac crests. This will result in the most natural appearance for most individuals. A location 10 cm above the anterior vulvar commissure would result in a placement that is unnaturally low. The other options would yield a position of the umbilicus that is too high.

2016

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24
Q

A 51-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation for abdominal and lower extremity liposuction. The procedure is expected to last approximately 2.5 hours. BMI is 30 kg/m2. The patient takes an oral contraceptive. The patient reports having had a small venous thromboembolism (VTE) during lumpectomy for breast cancer that took place in her early 40s. Which of the following factors increases the risk of VTE and Caprini risk assessment score most significantly?

A) Age
B) History of malignancy
C) History of VTE
D) Length of surgery
E) Use of an oral contraceptive
A

The correct response is Option C.

In this patient, the highest Caprini risk factor is the history of a VTE, which carries a score of 3. The length of surgery is greater than 45 minutes so it would be considered major and would carry a score of 2, as would her history of malignancy. Age, obesity, and contraceptive use all carry a score of 1. This gives the patient a Caprini score of 10.

2016

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25
Which of the following symptoms meet the current Medicare guidelines for approval of abdominal lipectomy/panniculectomy following massive weight loss? ``` A) Neck and back pain B) Psychological distress C) Unsatisfactory appearance D) Diastasis recti E) Recurrent intertrigo ```
The correct response is Option E. Medically necessary criteria for Medicare approval of abdominal lipectomy/panniculectomy include: - Inability to walk normally - Chronic pain and ulceration created by the abdominal skin fold - When the panniculus hangs below the level of the pubis - Intertrigo of the pannus that is persistent or recurrent over a 3-month period while receiving appropriate medical therapy - Stable weight for at least 6 months and 18 months after gastric bypass surgery According to Medicare guidelines, the other four options listed are not considered reasons that make this procedure medically necessary: - Treatment of neck and back pain - Repairing abdominal wall laxity or diastasis recti - Improving appearance - Treating psychological symptomatology 2016
26
A 48-year-old woman undergoes liposuction of the abdomen, flanks, and thighs. Liposuction is performed using 4 L of infiltration fluid. Each liter is mixed with 50 mL of 2% plain lidocaine and 1 mL of 1:1000 epinephrine. At which of the following times after infiltration are concentrations of lidocaine in the blood expected to be the highest in this patient? ``` A) Immediately after injection B) 1 hour after surgery C) 2 to 4 hours after surgery D) 8 to 18 hours after surgery E) 24 to 48 hours after surgery ```
The correct response is Option D. The safe dosage of lidocaine in liposuction is 35 to 55 mg/kg. Peak lidocaine levels are reported to be 8 to 18 hours after infiltration. Oftentimes, patients are discharged to home when peak levels occur. Surgeons should keep this in mind when calculating lidocaine dosage. 2016
27
A 35-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding a tummy tuck. She wants the scar as low as possible, but she does not want a lower vertical midline scar. Physical examination shows mild upper and lower abdominal skin excess and rectus abdominis diastasis. BMI is 27 kg/m2. Abdominoplasty and repair of diastasis are planned. Intraoperatively, there is marked tension on the lower central abdominal flap closure. Which of the following is the most appropriate maneuver to decrease the tension on the repair? A) Creation of a 3-cm transverse umbilical opening B) Liposuction of the upper abdomen C) Relaxing incision of the external oblique fascia D) Scoring of Scarpa fascia to the dermis E) Use of progressive tension sutures
The correct response is Option E. Progressive tension sutures are placed from Scarpa’s fascia to the abdominal wall fascia. This helps close the dead space, minimize flap movement, and minimize seroma rate. When placing these sutures with progressive tension, final tension on the abdominal suture line can be lessened. In so doing, healing complications can be reduced. The more common method for reducing tension on flap closure is to close the native umbilical skin opening in a vertical direction. This technique leaves a vertical incision in the midline of the abdominal flap. The need for revision of this scar is not infrequent. Further, most patients want to avoid this scar. Creating a 3-cm transverse incision for the umbilicus would decrease the tension on the flap; however, the appearance of the umbilicus would be aesthetically unacceptable. Relaxing incision of the external oblique fascia is used for closure of ventral herniorrhaphy and would not lessen skin flap tension. Scoring Scarpa’s fascia to the dermis would injure the subdermal vascular plexus, on which the vascularity of the abdominal flap depends. Upper abdominal liposuction can be performed at the same time as abdominoplasty, provided care is taken to maximize preservation of the lateral rectus perforators. It would not be a solution to minimize skin tension. 2016
28
Compared with liposuction, which of the following is the greatest advantage of cryolipolysis? ``` A) No procedural discomfort B) No risk of bruising C) No risk of posttreatment swelling D) No surgical intervention E) Shorter duration of treatment time ```
The correct response is Option D. Nonsurgical fat freezing treatment (CoolSculpting) is a method of noninvasive fat reduction that occurs via the use of cryolipolysis. It is a noninvasive technique that takes place in an office setting and does not involve the use of surgery. Following CoolSculpting treatment, patients have some aspect of bruising and swelling, which can last for up to several weeks. Results of CoolSculpting treatments typically take 3 to 4 months to develop. Results are additive, however, with multiple treatments. CoolSculpting involves the utilization of different applicators that have been developed to treat various parts of the body effectively. Each actual treatment is for 1 hour; however, most areas of the body may require multiple treatments to be effectively managed. Treatment times for an abdomen can range from 2 to 6 hours alone, whereas outer thighs are treated for at least 2 hours per side and inner thighs at least 1 hour per side. Although not all of these treatments need to be performed in one sitting, the total time for CoolSculpting treatments for most areas of the body are much longer than it would take to surgically perform liposuction. In general, however, CoolSculpting is a less expensive treatment option compared with liposuction as there is no fee necessary for anesthesia or operating-room costs. 2016
29
During routine brachioplasty, which of the following nerves is/are most likely at risk during typical dissection? A) Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve B) Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve C) Sensory branches of the axillary nerve D) Sensory branches of the radial nerve
The correct response is Option B. The medial antebrachial nerve is most at risk for injury during routine brachioplasty surgery secondary to its superficial location within the subcutaneous tissue within the area of typical skin and soft-tissue excision. This nerve arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus 78% of the time and from the lower trunk in 22%. After emerging from the axilla, the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve travels medial to the brachial artery and lies adjacent to the basilic vein at the distal upper arm. In the distal or mid brachium, this nerve pierces the deep fascia to become very superficial running above the deep fascia at an average of 14 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. Despite some minor anatomical variability, this nerve has been found to be consistently present in the deep plane of dissection for the standard brachioplasty technique. 2016
30
A 34-year-old woman is evaluated for body contouring after Roux-en-y gastric bypass surgery 6 months ago. There is no evidence of malabsorption. BMI is 36.3 kg/m2. She had a 75-lb (34-kg) weight loss and is actively losing weight. The patient reports low back pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? ``` A) Liposuction B) Panniculectomy C) Revision of the gastric bypass surgery D) Upper GI series E) Observation ```
The correct response is Option E. After bariatric surgery, patients can continue to lose weight as a result of the surgical procedure for approximately 2 years. Thus, most recommendations call for waiting until patients are 12 to 18 months out from their bariatric surgery and at a stable weight for 3 to 6 months. Ideally, patients should be within 10 to 15% of their goal weight. In this case, the patient is still within the time frame of active weight loss, and notes that she is actively losing weight. Thus, the appropriate answer is to wait until weight loss has stabilized. Because this patient is actively losing weight and there are no clinical findings of any issues such as malabsorption, there is no indication currently to evaluate her with an upper GI series or revise her bypass. In addition, as noted above, the risks for surgery are increased at this patient's BMI. Thus, elective liposuction or panniculectomy is not appropriate at this time. Furthermore, because the patient is actively losing weight, the risk for revision surgery to address additional skin laxity that may develop with further weight loss makes undertaking these procedures not appropriate at this point in time. 2016
31
Compared with standard suction-assisted lipectomy, laser-assisted liposuction has been shown to decrease which of the following? ``` A) Contour irregularities B) Ecchymosis C) Postoperative pain D) Skin necrosis E) Swelling ```
The correct response is Option C. A prospective, randomized, double-blind study involving human subjects compared the effects of laser-assisted lipoplasty with suction-assisted lipoplasty. No significant difference was noted between the two groups with respect to cosmetic outcome, ecchymosis, edema, skin retraction, or surgical time. The only measured potential benefit of the laser-assisted technique was an overall decrease in postoperative pain. 2016
32
A 35-year-old woman comes to the office for lipodystrophy of the upper arms. Physical examination shows negligible skin laxity; pinch test shows a thickness of 3 cm of the entire upper arm and the chest wall. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention? ``` A) Extended brachioplasty B) Limited medial brachioplasty C) Mini brachioplasty D) Suction-assisted lipectomy E) Traditional brachioplasty ```
The correct response is Option D. Skin laxity is the single greatest determinant of whether liposuction is an appropriate modality in an algorithmic approach to upper arm lipodystrophy. The determination of excessive fat can be made by the pinch test, and patients with greater than 1.5 cm of fat on a pinch test may be candidates. The classification of lipodystrophy, described by Rohrich et al., includes skin excess, fat excess, and the location of skin excess. Where there is skin excess, the skin must be excised for a favorable result. Liposuction alone can exacerbate the appearance and presence of excess skin. Similarly, skin laxity is a predictor of liposuction success. With marked laxity, the skin is unlikely to have enough elastic properties to retract. Although there are some papers that show increased retraction of skin with laser liposuction, this has not been shown to be a consistent result in large-scale studies. 2016
33
A 37-year-old woman reports nontender swelling of the lumbar area after undergoing lower body lift following massive weight loss. Examination shows tense swelling and a positive fluid wave test. Percutaneous needle aspiration is performed on a weekly basis, and fluid is still present after three aspirations of 150 mL each of a clear, yellowish serum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Compression B) Operative incision and drainage C) Placement of a closed suction drain tube D) Use of an ipsilateral gluteus maximus muscle advancement flap
The correct response is Option C. Among the most common complications following body contouring for post-massive weight loss-induced skin laxity is seroma, occurring in up to 35 to 50% of patients. To minimize the risk for seroma, preoperative nutritional repletion, especially for protein, and intraoperative use of closed suction drains, aggressive minimization of dead space, limited degree of skin flap undermining, and use of well-fitted elastic compression garments are among the techniques that are commonly recommended. None of these, even in combination, can completely guarantee the elimination of this complication. After several ineffective aspirations, compression garments alone are not likely to eliminate a seroma for this patient. The most appropriate next management measure for this patient’s seroma is ultrasound-directed percutaneous closed suction drain placement. Operative incision and drainage is not indicated unless the closed drain fails, following failed sclerosant therapy, or if the seroma is shown to be infected. A muscle flap is not indicated in this setting. 2016
34
A 35-year-old woman with a history of hypertension is evaluated for body contouring. Physical examination shows generalized abdominal adiposity and moderate infraumbilical pannus. The patient undergoes abdominoplasty and large-volume liposuction after induction of epidural anesthesia. A super-wet technique is used and a total volume of 5500 mL is removed. Which of the following factors poses the greatest risk of death for this patient? ``` A) Abdominoplasty B) Epidural anesthesia C) Hypertension D) Liposuction volume E) Super-wet technique ```
The correct response is Option A. The cumulative effect of multiple procedures performed during a single operation increases the potential that complications may develop. Large-volume liposuction, combined with other procedures such as abdominoplasty, can cause serious complications. Death associated with isolated lipoplasty is rare (0.0021%, or one per 47,415), but mortality increases significantly when lipoplasty is combined with other procedures. When combined with non-abdominoplasty procedures, lipoplasty mortality increases to one per 7314; when combined with abdominoplasty, with or without other procedures, the lipoplasty mortality increases to one per 3281. The presumed benefits of combined procedures must thus be weighed against potential untoward events. Studies indicate that epidural anesthesia combined with the infusion of anesthetic infiltrate provides patients with a consistent intraoperative comfort level. Data from the few anesthesia studies that have specifically assessed patients undergoing liposuction confirm the safety of general anesthesia, epidural anesthesia, spinal anesthesia, moderate sedation, and local anesthesia for this procedure. It should be noted, however, that epidural anesthesia and spinal anesthesia can cause vasodilation and hypotension, thereby necessitating the administration of excess fluid and increasing the risk of fluid overload. Based on the patient’s history, physical examination, review of systems, laboratory testing, and/or a medical specialist’s evaluation, the physician should select the patient’s American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical classification rating: - Type 1: A normal healthy patient; - Type 2: A patient with mild systemic disease; - Type 3: A patient with severe systemic disease; - Type 4: A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. ASA Type 1 and Type 2 patients are candidates for ambulatory and office-based surgery. The patient described is a Type 2 patient, a classification rating that represents patients who have any of the following conditions that are under control without systemic compromise: diabetes mellitus, hypertension, asthma, gastroesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, hematologic disorders, arthritis, and neuropathy. Large-volume liposuction is defined as the removal of 5000 mL or greater of total aspirate during a single procedure. A review of the scientific literature shows that there are no scientific data available to support a specific volume maximum at which point liposuction is no longer safe. The super-wet technique, introduced in the mid-1980s, uses larger volumes of subcutaneous infiltrate, whereby 1 to 2 mL of solution is infused for each 1 mL of fat to be removed. The infiltrate solution consists of saline or Ringer’s lactate with epinephrine and, in some cases, lidocaine. Using this method, blood loss generally decreases to less than 1 to 2% of the aspirate volume. 2015
35
An otherwise healthy 41-year-old woman who underwent Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery 24 months ago, followed by a 120-lb (54-kg) weight loss that she maintained for 6 months, undergoes plastic surgery evaluation for a panniculectomy. Medical history includes hypothyroidism that is controlled with levothyroxine. Preoperative cardiovascular examination shows no abnormalities, and results of a pregnancy test on the day of surgery are negative. She undergoes panniculectomy and thigh lift, and on extubation, the patient is lethargic and confused. ECG shows sinus tachycardia, and she remains somnolent and confused. Analysis of thyroid-stimulating hormone and cardiac enzymes, chest x-ray study, and ventilation-perfusion scan show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? ``` A) Acute thyroiditis B) Diabetic ketosis C) Pulmonary embolism D) Undiagnosed pregnancy E) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency ```
The correct response is Option E. Thiamine deficiency is most often identified shortly after bariatric surgery but can be diagnosed later. Some patients can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy (WKE). Body stores of thiamine can last from 3 to 6 weeks, and thiamine deficiency is more associated with decreased dietary intake. Although clinical manifestations are very uncommon, and WKE is considered a rare complication, approximately 11% of patients who have undergone Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery and take vitamin supplementation show evidence of thiamine deficiency 2 years postoperatively. The hallmark of thiamine deficiency is neurologic symptoms, but in contrast to WKE, patients rarely exhibit confusion, ataxia, and oculomotor abnormalities. If thiamine deficiency is not recognized and treated, it can have devastating results, including irreversible brain damage and death. Full nutritional workup of patients is critical. Confusion is a symptom of diabetic ketosis, but diabetic ketosis is notable for signs of dehydration and excessive thirst or urination, and is associated with Kussmaul respirations. Acute thyroiditis has symptoms of pain and swelling of the anterior neck. Pulmonary embolism can have symptoms of respiratory distress and right-sided heart strain. Early pregnancy often results in nausea, but not lethargy and confusion. 2015
36
A 39-year-old woman is evaluated because she is dissatisfied with the appearance of her abdomen. She has had five pregnancies with two full-term deliveries and three second-trimester miscarriages. She takes no birth control pills. Physical examination shows wide diastasis with excess abdominal skin. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Abdominoplasty with translocation of the umbilicus is planned. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications? ``` A) Deep vein thrombosis B) Hematoma C) Infection D) Recurrent diastasis E) Wound dehiscence ```
The correct response is Option A. A history of two late-term miscarriages stands out as a significant risk factor for thrombophilia (inherited and acquired) and subsequent deep vein thrombosis. It is imperative that these patients be identified and further evaluated. If abdominoplasty is performed, chemoprophylaxis is required. The most common inherited thrombophilia is factor V Leiden, which is present in 3 to 7% of the Caucasian population. Multiple inherited thrombophilic conditions can be present in the same individual. Studies have shown that complication rates in abdominoplasty increase in patients with a BMI greater than or equal to 30 kg/m2. Based upon history and physical examination alone, the other complications of hematoma, infection, recurrent diastasis, or wound dehiscence should not be significantly increased. 2015
37
A 32-year-old woman is evaluated for lipodystrophy of the central abdomen with skin laxity. She desires volume reduction as well as improvement of the skin laxity. The patient is scheduled for superficial liposuction of the abdomen. Which of the following postoperative complications is most likely in this patient? ``` A) Contour irregularities B) Hyperpigmentation C) Infection D) Seroma E) Skin necrosis ```
The correct response is Option A. The subcutaneous fat of the abdomen is anatomically arranged in two layers: superficial and deep. The superficial adipose layer is located 1 to 2 mm below the dermis and is dense and compact with numerous septations. The deep adipose layer is loose and areolar with few septa. Conventional or traditional liposuction is performed within the deep adipose layer with larger cannulas. Superficial liposuction or subdermal liposuction involves the removal of fat from the superficial compartment found 1 to 2 mm below the dermis, disrupting the extensive septations. Most complications following liposuction are minor and resolve without further surgical intervention. However, the most common complications following superficial liposuction are contour irregularities. Less common complications associated with superficial liposuction include seroma, hyperpigmentation, infection, hypertrophic scar, chronic induration, skin necrosis, and infection. 2015
38
A 40-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, with abdominal laxity and rectus diastasis is scheduled to undergo abdominoplasty with rectus plication. Which of the following intraoperative nerve blocks is likely to provide postoperative analgesia to the greatest area of lower abdominal skin for this patient? ``` A) Direct midline injection of plication area B) Iliohypogastric nerve block C) Ilioinguinal nerve block D) Subcostal nerve block E) Transversus abdominis plane block ```
The correct response is Option E. Innervation of the anterolateral abdominal wall arises from the anterior rami of spinal nerves T7 to L1. These branches include the intercostal nerves (T7-T11), the subcostal nerve (T12), and the iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves (L1). Because these nerves travel in the plane between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles, they can be conveniently blocked in this area with a single transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block on each side. Although the other nerve block techniques are frequently used in combination, each covers a smaller territory or single dermatome. The TAP block may be performed via several different approaches. Most experts agree that there is a reliable block of the T10 to L1 dermatomes when the lateral approach from the triangle of Petit is used. The subcostal approach of the TAP block can give a more cephalad block. The combination of bilateral TAP blocks and rectus sheath injections has been found to decrease the need for postoperative narcotic use after abdominoplasty. It has also been useful for patients receiving transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous (TRAM) and deep inferior epigastric artery perforator (DIEP) flaps. The TAP block was also found to be superior to conventional ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve blocks in a comparison study of open inguinal hernia repairs. 2015
39
Which of the following is the most common reason for reoperation after brachioplasty in patients who have undergone significant weight loss? ``` A) Hematoma B) Hypertrophic scar C) Infection D) Seroma E) Wound dehiscence ```
The correct response is Option B. In general, patients are satisfied with the results of brachioplasty. Complications are not uncommon and some studies report complication rates as high as 50%. Most of these complications are minor in nature. Wound dehiscence is managed with dressing changes. Hematoma and seromas are typically managed with observation or aspiration. In the case of infections, the majority are managed with oral antibiotics. The most common reason for additional surgery after brachioplasty is to revise the scar. Many patients will have an unfavorable scar that either hypertrophies or widens. This can be addressed by a scar revision, laser treatment, or triamcinolone acetonide (Kenalog) injection. 2015
40
A 66-year-old woman undergoes minimal-incision brachioplasty to treat bilateral upper extremity skin laxity. Height is 5 ft 6 in (167.6 cm) and weight is 140 lb (63.5 kg). BMI is 22.6 kg/m2. Which of the following suturing techniques is most appropriate to minimize widening of the scar? A) Arm dermis to axillary dermis B) Arm dermis to axillary dermis to axillary fascia C) Arm dermis to axillary dermis to pectoralis major fascia D) Axillary dermis to lateral pectoralis major tendon E) Axillary dermis to superficial pectoralis minor fascia
The correct response is Option B. The popularity of brachioplasty has significantly increased in America over the past decade, in large part because of the number of patients undergoing bariatric surgery for morbid obesity. In this population of patients who have undergone massive weight loss, the severity of excess upper extremity skin mandates a long, often hypertrophic scar in the bicipital groove, which is generally accepted by patients. By contrast, older patients with skin laxity but little lipodystrophy and no history of significant weight change are hard-pressed to accept this visible and often unpredictable scar. For this population, minimal-incision brachioplasty has emerged as an excellent solution and has itself been increasing in popularity over the past few years. In minimal-incision brachioplasty, incisions are limited to the axilla. The procedure is usually combined with suction lipoplasty to remove some excess upper extremity fat, to treat dog ears at the proximal and distal extent of the scar, or to facilitate undermining. Several key maneuvers improve the appearance of the scar and are tantamount to achieving high patient satisfaction after this procedure. The benefit of anchoring the superficial fascial system was first recognized by surgeons performing traditional brachioplasty procedures. A similar concept applies to minimal-incision brachioplasty, where anchoring of the arm and axillary dermis to the superficial fascia is seen to have several advantages. As part of a layered closure, this technique distributes tension in a more even and controlled manner, releasing the high tension on the final skin closure and decreasing the risk of a widened scar. Moreover, these sutures close the dead space within the axilla and recreate the axillary hollow. Suturing the arm dermis to the axillary dermis without fascial reinforcement results in a high-tension closure and often a widened, hypertrophic scar. Suturing the skin to the deeper fascial layers would be difficult and deforming. 2015
41
A 35-year-old woman undergoes abdominoplasty and inner thigh liposuction. After the procedure, burning pain radiating down the right anterior thigh is noted. Pain increases when the patient stands and walks. Injury to which of the following nerves is most likely in this patient? ``` A) Genitofemoral B) Iliohypogastric C) Ilioinguinal D) Lateral femoral cutaneous E) Saphenous ```
The correct response is Option D. In several studies of complications of abdominoplasty, the most common nerve injury was to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. Symptoms include anterior and lateral thigh burning, tingling, and/or numbness that increase with standing, walking, or hip extension. The genitofemoral nerve supplies the proximal portion of the thigh about the femoral triangle just lateral to the skin that is innervated by the ilioinguinal nerve. Nerve injury may result from hernia repair, but injury to this nerve is rare. The ilioinguinal nerve arises from the fusion of T12 and L1 nerve roots and pierces the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles. The nerve then supplies sensory branches to supply the pubic symphysis, the superior and medial aspect of the femoral triangle, and either the root of the penis and anterior scrotum in the male or the mons pubis and labia majora in the female. The nerve can be injured in abdominoplasty and other lower abdominal incisions. Symptoms include paresthesia of the skin along the inguinal ligament. The sensation may radiate to the lower abdomen. Pain may be localized to the medial groin, the labia majora or scrotum, and the inner thigh. The iliohypogastric nerve arises primarily from L1. The distribution of the cutaneous sensation of the iliohypogastric nerve most commonly is a small region just superior to the pubis. The iliohypogastric nerve is rarely injured in isolation. Symptoms include burning pain into the inguinal and suprapubic region. Saphenous nerve symptoms of entrapment may include a deep aching sensation in the thigh, knee pain, and paresthesia in the cutaneous distribution of the nerve in the leg and foot. 2014
42
A 39-year-old woman is referred for abdominoplasty. She has a history of severe uterine fibroids, and her gynecologist is planning a total abdominal hysterectomy (TAH). The patient would like to have the abdominoplasty and the TAH performed at the same time. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient’s inquiry? A) Combining the surgeries can be done safely via any approach for TAH B) The gynecologist may perform TAH, but the abdominoplasty flap must be raised first C) The patient’s risk of a thromboembolic event is decreased by having one large surgery D) TAH cannot be combined with abdominoplasty
The correct response is Option A. Performing abdominoplasty in combination with other procedures has become a much more common request from patients. Advantages to this approach would include one recovery period versus multiple (which would minimize time away from work and or family, financial advantage to the patient, and a reduced need for multiple hospitalizations and exposure to anesthesia). Several studies have proven the safety of performing abdominoplasty combined with intra-abdominal procedures such as total abdominal hysterectomy (TAH). While the safety profile of combining these surgeries has been well proven, the risk of thromboembolic events is increased due to the extended time of surgery, so that aggressive deep venous thrombus prophylaxis must be administered perioperatively such as set forth by the Plastic Surgery Task Force on Deep Venous Thrombosis Prophylaxis. A TAH may be done via open or laparoscopic approach, depending on the gynecologist’s preference or patient’s chosen method. In addition, as robotically assisted gynecologic procedures have gained widespread acceptance, this approach for a TAH may also be combined with abdominoplasty surgery. Typically, if a laparoscopic or robotic method were chosen, the gynecologist would start the procedure; this way the port scars may be planned such that they can be excised within the abdominoplasty flap to be removed. Although the abdominoplasty flap may be raised off of the fascia before port placement, this usually causes the ports to be more unstable without the added support of the skin and soft tissues to properly hold them in place. 2014
43
A 37-year-old man is scheduled to undergo bilateral brachioplasty to correct redundant arm skin due to massive weight loss following gastric bypass surgery. Which of the following methods is most appropriate to minimize sensory cutaneous nerve injury during this procedure? A) Design the longitudinal incision anterior to the bicipital groove B) Divide the intermuscular septum while resecting skin and fat C) Elevate and transpose the basilic vein before closure of the brachioplasty defect D) Leave at least 1 cm of fat over the brachial fascia in the proximal arm E) Maintain a sharp dissection plane deep to the brachial fascia
The correct response is Option D. Among the complications that have been reported following brachioplasty are injuries to the sensory nerves that traverse the medial arm. The most likely nerve to be injured is the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve. It perforates the antebrachial fascia at a fairly constant distance of 14 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle, putting it at a greater risk of injury than either the ulnar or median nerves, both of which lie deep to the brachial fascia. It has a variable relationship with the basilic vein, but this structure is never transposed during brachioplasty. There is a greater danger to nerve injury when the dissection is conducted deeper than the Scarpa’s fascia, therefore dissection deep to the brachial fascia or harvest of the intermuscular septum is contraindicated. A layer of subcutaneous fat at least 1 cm thick should be left over the deep fascia to minimize injury to the sensory nerves in the arm. Placing the longitudinal incision slightly posterior to the bicipital groove decreases chances for injury to the nerve as well. 2014
44
A 56-year-old woman comes to the office after gastric bypass surgery with a weight loss of 155 lb (70 kg). Weight is 143 lb (65 kg) and BMI is 24 kg/m2. She desires an improved appearance of the upper arms. A photograph is shown - hanging skin laxity from axilla to elbow. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical correction of this deformity? A) Liposuction alone B) Liposuction followed by brachioplasty C) Limited medial brachioplasty D) Full brachioplasty
The correct response is Option D. The most appropriate management for this condition is brachioplasty. Surgical management of the upper arm, particularly after massive weight loss, is dependent upon the ratio of fat and skin laxity. There are several classifications, but all address this ratio. Those with a great deal of skin laxity and little fat are best treated by direct excision (brachioplasty). Those patients who have little skin laxity (and good skin tone) and marked fat may benefit from liposuction alone. Those patients in the middle, with skin laxity and residual upper arm fat, are likely to benefit from a combination approach, either in a single or staged fashion. In this case, the patient demonstrates considerable skin laxity and has little extra fat, so a dermatolipectomy alone will address her deformity. A limited medial brachioplasty is useful for patients with skin laxity primarily in the proximal third of the arm and involves resection of a vertical ellipse of skin, leaving the scar in the apex of the axilla. The patient described here has skin laxity throughout the upper arm, which would not be adequately addressed with a medial brachioplasty. Liposuction followed by brachioplasty in a staged fashion will not improve her outcome and will only serve to increase the cumulative risks of two surgeries. Liposuction alone does not address the underlying issue of skin laxity. The patient’s age and her history of obesity/massive weight loss severely decrease the ability of her skin to retract after liposuction. 2014
45
A 38-year-old woman comes to the office because of excess fullness of the proximal posterior arm. Pinch test shows a thickness of greater than 2 cm, and skin laxity is not excessive. Liposuction is planned. Which of the following is the most likely complication of liposuction of the upper extremity? ``` A) Contour irregularities B) Hyperpigmentation C) Injury to the ulnar nerve D) Lymphedema E) Seroma ```
The correct response is Option A. The most common complication associated with liposuction of the arm is areas of overresection resulting in contour irregularities. Because such irregularities can be due to postoperative swelling, they should be treated conservatively for at least 6 months after surgery. Treatment may consist of fat grafting if contour abnormalities persist after 6 months. Early treatment may include lymphatic massage. Although hyperpigmentation is possible, it is more commonly seen in the medial thigh in association with ultrasound-assisted liposuction. Seromas are rare in the upper extremity. Injury to the ulnar nerve at the elbow is possible, but it has not been reported. Care should be taken to avoid the nerve in placement of the cannula. While lymphedema is possible, if liposuction of the arm is limited to the posterior aspect, where major lymphatic channels are avoided, it can be prevented. Transient postoperative swelling is expected. 2014
46
A 53-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of abdominal skin redundancy. Physical examination shows muscle laxity and lipodystrophy of the central abdomen and flank regions. Abdominoplasty and liposuction of the flank and anterior abdominal skin are planned. After this combined procedure, the patient is at greatest risk for skin necrosis of which of the following abdominal zones? A) I B) II C) III D) IV
The correct response is Option A. Abdominoplasty in combination with liposuction has been associated with a higher risk of complications. Combining both procedures has been reported to increase the risk of delayed healing, thrombotic emboli, fat emboli, skin necrosis, and fat necrosis. Increased complication rates are reported in patients with risk factors such as obesity, smoking, and diabetes mellitus. Direct undermining of the abdominal skin combined with liposuction can lead to vascular compromise of the overlying skin. The blood supply to the abdominal wall is divided into three zones: zone I, mid abdomen supplied by the deep inferior epigastric artery; zone II, lower abdomen supplied by the external iliac artery; and zone III, lateral abdomen and flanks supplied by the intercostal, subcostal, and lumbar arteries. Zone IV has not been described. Following abdominoplasty, elevation of the abdominal flap disrupts the blood supply from zones I and II, leaving the flap to be perfused by blood vessels from zone III. Liposuction with abdominoplasty of the central abdomen, zone I, is associated with the highest rate of skin necrosis. “Safe zones” include the flanks and upper lateral abdomen. 2014
47
A 32-year-old man is brought to the office 24 hours after he underwent liposuction of the upper extremities, breasts, and chest. He appears disoriented and confused. Examination shows a petechial rash over the anterior trunk and axilla. Which of the following is the most likely cause? ``` A) Allergic reaction to a medication B) Fat embolism C) Lidocaine toxicity D) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura E) Transient ischemic attack ```
The correct response is Option B. Fat embolization syndrome (FES) is clinically characterized by a triad of symptoms occurring within 24 to 72 hours following surgery or trauma: 1) alterations in mental status, 2) respiratory dysfunction, including hypoxemia or tachypnea, and 3) a petechial rash involving the anterior trunk, axillary, or head and neck regions. Common predisposing conditions include traumatic long bone and pelvic fractures, orthopedic procedures, liposuction, and soft-tissue injuries. Non-traumatic etiologies include pancreatitis, diabetes mellitus, osteomyelitis, and alcoholic liver disease. Proposed mechanisms for fat embolism include 1) mechanical disruption—release of fat droplets from disrupted bone marrow or adipose tissue forced into torn venules in areas of trauma, or 2) biochemical—release of free fatty acids as chylomicrons induced by systemic changes from trauma or sepsis. Diagnosis of FES is primarily clinical. Major diagnostic criteria include respiratory distress, cerebral dysfunction, and petechial rash. Minor criteria include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, hypoxemia, thrombocytopenia, and hypocalcemia. Treatment for FES is primarily supportive. Respiratory support should focus on maintaining adequate tissue oxygenation and arterial saturation. Mechanical ventilation may be necessary. Hemodynamic and fluid resuscitation may be required. Use of corticosteroids remains controversial. The triad of symptoms including the petechiae concentrated in the upper truncal region would be an unusual occurrence for an allergic medication reaction. Lidocaine toxicity occurs initially with perioral numbness, vertigo, and visual disturbances, and progresses to muscle twitching, unconsciousness, seizures, and finally to cardiorespiratory failure. Lidocaine toxicity would be earlier in onset and is not associated with a petechial rash. Although thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) may initially occur with petechiae, TTP is more commonly associated with headache, confusion, and digestive symptoms such as diarrhea, nausea, and abdominal pain. Transient ischemic attack may occur with temporary loss of vision, hemiparesis, confusion, or paresthesia. 2014
48
A 60-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain 2 days after she underwent an uncomplicated abdominoplasty. Heart rate is 100 bpm, respiratory rate is 20/min, blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Chest x-ray study shows no abnormalities. Serum creatinine concentration is 2.5 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in management? ``` A) CT angiography B) Emergency cardiac catheterization C) Enoxaparin therapy D) Lower extremity venous Doppler E) Ventilation/perfusion scanning ```
The correct response is Option E. The most appropriate first step in management is to obtain a ventilation/perfusion scan. The patient described presents with the clinical picture of a pulmonary embolus (PE). Normal chest X-ray study rules out an obvious pulmonary process like pneumonia, atelectasis, or pneumothorax. The right-sided strain pattern on electrocardiography points to a PE as well. Vitals are abnormal, but she is hemodynamically stable. CT angiography (CTA) would have been the investigation of choice; however, serum creatinine is abnormally high, which precludes giving her the high doses of contrast dye a CTA would require. Empirically starting her on anticoagulation is another management option, though one has to weigh the risk-benefit of full-anticoagulation therapy so soon after major surgery. However, subcutaneous enoxaparin therapy in a patient with renal insufficiency is not ideal. Instead, systemic heparin therapy would be the agent of choice because it is not dependent on renal excretion, has a much shorter half-life, and its therapy can easily be measured with activated partial thromboplastin time levels. Therefore, it can be titrated more reliably, and its anticoagulation effects can be shut off quickly if the need arises. A venous Doppler examination of the lower extremities will probably need to be done, but it is not the first step in management. Additionally, it does not diagnose a PE. An emergent cardiac catheterization is not indicated because this is not an acute myocardial ischemic event. A ventilation/perfusion scan is performed in situations where an angiogram (conventional or CTA) is not indicated or available. It is especially useful in patients with renal insufficiency because the perfusion portion does not utilize contrast that could negatively affect the kidneys, but rather uses a radioactive tracer. The ventilation/perfusion scan helps stratify the probability of a patient having a PE, and thus helps the clinician to choose the appropriate way to potentially treat the patient. 2013
49
An otherwise healthy 34-year-old woman calls the office because of nonspecific left-sided chest pain and mild shortness of breath 2 weeks after she underwent abdominoplasty with plication of a rectus diastasis and liposuction of the flanks. The procedure was performed during general anesthesia in 3 hours and 15 minutes. She was admitted overnight, and heparin was administered subcutaneously during her hospital stay, including one dose preoperatively. She reports no postoperative complications and feels extremely well otherwise. She says she is "finally getting back to herself physically" and does not want to worry her husband or children. She just wanted to make sure she had not "pulled a muscle or injured anything." Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the plastic surgeon? A) Evaluation at the emergency department B) Reassurance C) Reduction of physical activity D) Use of incentive spirometer at home to assist in improving pulmonary toilet E) Use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory drugs
The correct response is Option A. This patient is likely suffering from a pulmonary embolism and requires emergent workup and treatment with anticoagulation. Although she was treated perioperatively with subcutaneous heparin, deep venous thrombosis (DVT) can still develop as well as a resultant pulmonary embolism (PE). In one survey of board-certified plastic surgeons, PE was found to be the leading cause of death following liposuction. In aesthetic plastic surgery patients, abdominoplasty patients appear to be at a higher risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) when compared to those undergoing other commonly performed elective procedures. Rates range from 1 in 1000 to 1 in 300 for standard abdominoplasty, and when combined with other procedures, the risk of VTE and death from PE increases significantly. Any possible symptoms that are suspicious for PE, even several weeks postoperatively, must be taken very seriously and treated urgently with immediate presentation to the closest emergency department for aggressive and urgent medical workup as well as imaging and laboratory studies to evaluate for DVT and/or PE. Venous thrombus formation occurs secondary to a triad of factors describes by Virchow: venous stasis, vascular injury, and hypercoagulability. During abdominoplasty, the combination of general anesthesia, supine positioning, and immobilization promotes venous stasis. In addition, decreased venous return prevents clearance of activated clotting factors, further leading to thrombus formation. The highest risk period for fatal postoperative PE occurs 3-7 days after surgery, with approximately 10% of symptomatic PE being fatal within 1 hour of first symptoms. The risk of symptomatic venous thromboembolism is highest within 2 weeks of surgery and remains elevated for 2 to 3 months. Two thirds of patients with a DVT may appear clinically silent making the need for thromboprophylaxis extremely important. Current strategies to reduce risk include proper patient positioning, early ambulation postoperatively, flexion of the patient’s knees 5 degrees, supplemented with mechanical (e.g., pneumatic compression boots) and/or pharmacological prophylaxis in most patients. The most common practice for pharmacological prophylaxis is to begin therapy preoperatively and continue treatment until 5 to 10 days after surgery. Some studies have even suggested a full month of postoperative treatment for those patients at a higher risk. 2013
50
A 45-year-old woman comes to the office because of persistent dysesthesias of the medial forearm 2 months after she underwent brachioplasty for brachial ptosis. Examination shows a well-healed scar on the medial aspect of the arm extending to the proximal elbow. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the procedure? ``` A) Axillary B) Medial antebrachial cutaneous C) Median D) Posterior interosseous E) Ulnar ```
The correct response is Option B. When performing brachioplasty, injury to the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve can occur. This nerve runs along to the medial epicondyle and adjacent to the basilic vein. Maintaining superficial dissection at the ulnar aspect of the elbow and preserving the basilic vein is paramount in minimizing injury to the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve. Although theoretically possible, injury to the ulnar and median nerves has not been reported with brachioplasty. The axillary nerve and posterior interosseous nerve should not be in the field of dissection when performing a brachioplasty. 2013
51
A 48-year-old man comes to the office because he is dissatisfied with the appearance of his "enlarged" breasts. He underwent gastric bypass surgery 2 years ago followed by a 110-lb (50-kg) weight loss. Current weight is 185 lb (84 kg), which has been stable for 6 months. Physical examination shows nipples with an enlarged areola inferior to the inframammary fold, excess skin with loss of skin elasticity, and a moderate amount of fatty tissue. No palpable or painful masses are noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical procedure for correction of this patient's deformity? ``` A) Injection of phosphatidylcholine B) Nonsurgical radiofrequency fat ablation C) Reduction mammaplasty D) Skin-sparing mastectomy E) Ultrasound-assisted liposuction ```
The correct response is Option C. This patient suffers from pseudogynecomastia, also known as lipomastia. Reduction mammaplasty with repositioning the nipple at or above the inframammary fold, reduction of the size of the areola, removal of excess skin, and removal of excess fatty tissue will most appropriately correct this patient’s deformity. However, many insurance companies recognize this code as a gender-specific code for women. This patient’s concerns are primarily with appearance. Breast reduction should be performed as a cosmetic procedure. No good controlled studies show the benefit of radiofrequency in the treatment of gynecomastia or pseudogynecomastia. The safety and efficacy of phosphatidylcholine injections have yet to be established. Liposuction will not address the skin problem or correct the enlarged areolae. Mastectomy for gynecomastia is a surgical procedure for the removal of painful, periareolar glandular tissue usually in pubescent males and is sometimes covered by insurance. 2013
52
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, comes to the office for consultation regarding a slimmer abdominal contour. She says the most weight she lost after pregnancy was 30 lb (13.6 kg). Current BMI is 23 kg/m2. Examination shows mild diastasis recti and vertical skin redundancy above and below the umbilicus. No hernias or scars are noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? A) Suction-assisted lipectomy B) Repair of the diastasis with prosthetic mesh and cryolipolysis C) Miniabdominoplasty and suction-assisted lipectomy of the epigastrium D) Abdominoplasty with rectus plication E) Fleur-de-Lis abdominoplasty
The correct response is Option D. In addition to a thorough medical history, careful analysis of the patient’s goals and evaluation of the anatomy is the basis for correctly selecting the optimum choice for aesthetic restoration of the abdomen after child bearing. This patient’s skin redundancy above and below the navel requires that panniculectomy incorporate downward tension for the portions superior to and inferior to the umbilicus. Miniabdominoplasty fails to include supraumbilical skin tensioning. Liposuction alone may actually worsen the degree of skin laxity by deflating fat compartments or disrupting musculocutaneous suspensory fasciae. It is unlikely that prosthetic material will be necessary to repair a diastasis when plication (folding adjacent fascial halves with sutures) suffices unless a concurrent hernia of significant proportions exists. Traditional abdominoplasty incorporates mobilization of the abdominal panniculus, addresses laxity above and below the navel, and may incorporate more recent techniques such as progressive tension sutures to ensure an optimum aesthetic result while minimizing the need for revision. Fleur-de-Lis abdominoplasty involves a vertical incision and is not indicated. Cryolipolysis is not effective in this level of skin laxity. 2013
53
A 60-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of a poor outcome after liposuction of the arms. She says she is dissatisfied with the marked laxity of the skin of her arms. A photograph is shown - skin laxity from axilla to elbow. History includes gastric bypass surgery followed by a 100-lb (45.3-kg) weight loss. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to improve contour of the arm in this patient? ``` A) Laser-assisted liposuction B) Lipobrachioplasty C) Radiofrequency treatment (Thermage) D) T-incision brachioplasty E) Ultrasound-assisted liposuction ```
The correct response is Option D. Traditional brachioplasty comprises a T-shaped scar along the length of the arm and the axilla. This patient has excess skin on her arm, which dictates the necessity for an excisional procedure. Further liposuction of any modality will exaggerate her presentation further, including Vaser liposuction, a form of ultrasound-assisted liposuction, and laser-assisted liposuction, both of which are reported to tighten skin through heating its undersurface. There is no evidence to support Thermage as an effective treatment for lax skin. Lipobrachioplasty is a technique which safely combines liposuction with excisional surgery, performing liposuction on the proposed area to be excised. In a thinned arm, potential risks of neuropathy and seroma that accompany liposuction are unnecessary in a patient with lax skin that requires excision to improve contour. Limited incision brachioplasty with excision limited to an ellipse in the axilla, with or without liposuction, provides very limited results with regard to improving overall arm contour, particularly with moderate-to-severe skin redundancy. 2013
54
A 21-year-old female cheerleader is scheduled to undergo suction-assisted lipectomy for contouring of the outer thigh. She is physically fit and has lost 10 lb (4.5 kg) over the past 6 months. Current weight is 145 lb (65.8 kg). Preoperative examination showed adiposity along the outer thigh area. To decrease the risk of postoperative deformities in this patient, particular attention should be paid to which of the following zones of adherence? ``` A) Gluteal crease B) Iliotibial tract C) Lateral gluteal depression D) Mid medial thigh E) Posterior thigh ```
The correct response is Option C. The key element to avoid postoperative deformities in liposuction is avoiding the zones of adherence. These are zones where the superficial fascial system sends elements through the deep compartment attaching to the investing fascia of the underlying musculature. These zones of adherence accentuate localized fat deposits between them. The lateral gluteal depression is just superior to the outer lateral thigh and attention to that zone is important when performing liposuction along the outer thigh area. The other zones are not related to the outer thigh, except the inferolateral iliotibial tract, which is distal to the area of concern. 2013
55
A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 1 day after undergoing outpatient liposuction because of difficulty breathing and confusion. A tumescent technique with lidocaine was used during the procedure, in which 4000 mL of tumescent fluid was infiltrated and 4000 mL of lipoaspirate was removed. Physical examination shows respiratory distress and petechial rash. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition? ``` A) Drug allergy B) Fat embolism C) Lidocaine toxicity D) Pulmonary edema E) Pulmonary embolism ```
The correct response is Option B. A known risk of liposuction is fat embolism syndrome (FES), and clinical examination remains the gold standard for diagnosis. The three classic symptoms of FES are respiratory distress, decreased cerebral function, and petechial rash. This generally occurs within 48 hours postoperatively. With manual disruption of both fatty tissue and blood vessels that occurs with liposuction, microparticulate fat showers the lung, brain, kidney, and skin with emboli, leading to mechanical obstruction and/or a biochemical inflammatory reaction. Overall mortality from FES after liposuction is approximately 10 to 15%. Lidocaine at high concentrations can cause serious central nervous system disturbances, including anxiety, agitation, psychosis, seizures and/or coma, and cardiovascular toxicity, including arrhythmias and hypotension. Symptoms of toxicity include light-headedness, euphoria, digital paresthesia, restlessness, and drowsiness. Symptoms of objective toxicity include nausea, vomiting, tremors, blurred vision, tinnitus, confusion, excitement, psychosis, and muscular fasciculations. Seizures and cardiorespiratory depression occur typically when blood levels reach 8 to 12 mcg/mL. Above this level, subjects may become comatose, with respiratory arrest and cardiac asystole. A rash is not associated with lidocaine toxicity. The safe dose of lidocaine has been established as 35 mg/kg during liposuction, and some authors suggest using 55 mg/kg may be safe. Anaphylaxis from a drug allergy also does not cause a rash but can cause respiratory distress from laryngeal edema. Pulmonary edema is characterized by respiratory distress that does not respond to oxygen therapy. This can occur because of fluid overload or from physiologic issues related to extubation. Pulmonary embolism must be considered with respiratory distress but is not associated with rash and can occur at any time postoperatively. 2013
56
A 43-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo mastopexy and circumferential lower body lift in an accredited hospital setting for body contouring. She lost 150 lbs (68 kg) after undergoing bariatric surgery 3 years ago. The planned duration of the procedure is 6 hours. In the preoperative holding room, she is dressed in an air-heated gown. Maintenance of normothermia during the perioperative period is most likely to decrease the risk of which of the following complications in this patient? ``` A) Deep venous thrombosis B) Fat necrosis C) Pulmonary embolism D) Seroma formation E) Surgical site infection ```
The correct response is Option E. There is a significant and growing body of evidence showing that normal body temperature during surgery specifically reduces the likelihood of surgical site infections and reduces the risk of bleeding. For this patient with a long operative time and exposure of a significant amount of body surface area, she is at increased risk for hypothermia and surgical site infection. Fat necrosis is attributable to devascularization of fatty tissue. Seroma formation is attributable to inadequate drainage of the surgical wounds. The likelihood of deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolus is reduced by the use of subcutaneous heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin, and/or sequential compression devices. 2013
57
A 50-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo a cosmetic procedure in an ambulatory surgery center (ASC). The patient is concerned about her risk of dying during this procedure. This patient's postoperative risk of death from a pulmonary embolism is highest if she undergoes which of the following procedures in an ASC? ``` A) Abdominoplasty B) Augmentation mammaplasty C) Rhinoplasty D) Rhytidectomy E) Suction lipectomy ```
The correct response is Option A. Abdominoplasty is the procedure associated most frequently with postoperative mortality from a pulmonary embolism in an ASC. The American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities, Inc. (AAAASF) has collected statistics on morbidity and mortality for its accredited facilities. Mortality from office-based surgery is extremely rare. From 2001 to 2006, there were over 1 million outpatient procedures performed with 23 deaths. Pulmonary embolism was the cause in 13 of the 23 deaths. Twelve of the 13 pulmonary embolism deaths were associated with abdominoplasty alone or in conjunction with another procedure. 2012
58
A 46-year-old woman scheduled to undergo abdominoplasty and lipoplasty is concerned about postoperative discomfort. A regional block during the procedure is planned for pain management to minimize the need for narcotics. The anesthetic for the regional block should be injected to which of the following tissue planes? A) Between the external oblique and the internal oblique B) Between the internal oblique and the transverse abdominis C) Between the skin and the external oblique D) Between the transverse abdominis and the transverse fascia E) Between the transverse fascia and the peritoneum
The correct response is Option B. The thoracolumbar nerves that innervate the anterior abdominal wall travel as multiple mixed segmental nerves that branch and communicate widely in the transverse abdominis plane (TAP), located between the internal oblique and transverse abdominis muscles. The TAP regional block provides abdominal wall analgesia by affecting the sensorial afferent nerves of T6 to L1 found in this plane. Local anesthetic injected into the TAP has been shown to decrease the amount of postoperative narcotic requirements in abdominal wall surgery. 2012
59
An otherwise healthy 38-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m2 is scheduled to undergo suction lipectomy of the abdomen, hips, and thighs using a tumescent technique and a 5000-mL lipoaspirate. The infiltrate contains lidocaine and epinephrine. Which of the following adjustments to the planned procedure is most appropriate to decrease the risk of intraoperative complications? A) Decreased rate of infusion of the wetting solution B) Infiltration of all areas simultaneously C) Removal of the epinephrine from the wetting solution D) Substitution of bupivacaine for lidocaine E) Use of a superwet technique instead of tumescent
The correct response is Option E. In the tumescent technique of infiltration of wetting solution, the tissues are infiltrated with roughly a 3:1 ratio of wetting solution to lipoaspirate. This is generally done to effect, with the tissues becoming firmer once engorged with fluid. In large-volume liposuction (greater than 4 or 5 L), it is especially important to understand the possible side effects of the constituent parts of the wetting solution, including the volume of administration, the local anesthetic, and the epinephrine. In terms of lidocaine toxicity, there are various factors to take into consideration, including the level and rate of drug absorption, drug interactions, fluid management, prothrombogenic factors, and volume of the wetting solution and aspirate. According to the ASPS Safety Committee Advisory on Liposuction, two options are available to decrease the risk of lidocaine toxicity in large-volume liposuction cases: 1) decrease the concentration of lidocaine in the wetting solution; and 2) use smaller volumes of infiltrate by applying the superwet technique (1:1 ratio of infiltrate: lipoaspirate) rather than the tumescent technique. Furthermore, one can omit the lidocaine altogether from the infiltration solution. The pressure and rate of infusion of the wetting solution do not affect the rate of lidocaine absorption. Infiltration of all areas simultaneously will be counterproductive. The use of epinephrine in wetting solutions is critical because it causes vasoconstriction, which results in both improved hemostasis as well as delayed absorption of the anesthetic agent, which prolongs its effect, decreases the amount of anesthetic needed, and reduces the risk of lidocaine toxicity. Therefore, its removal from the wetting solution is not indicated. However, in large-volume liposuction cases, staged infiltration of multiple anatomical sites may provide a wider safety margin. The use of bupivacaine and prilocaine in wetting solutions has not been clinically studied or assessed. Bupivacaine should be used with caution if added to infiltrate solutions because of its slow elimination and reversal and its potential for severe side effects involving the cardiovascular, neurologic, and hematologic systems. 2012
60
A 29-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of upper arm fullness. Physical examination shows moderate excess subcutaneous fat and minimal skin laxity. Circumferential liposuction is planned. Which of the following is the most likely complication after liposuction of the bicipital groove region? ``` A) Compartment syndrome B) Contour deformity C) Paresthesia D) Seroma E) Skin necrosis ```
The correct response is Option B. When performing suction lipoplasty of the upper arm, the medial portion around and below the area of the bicipital groove should be avoided. The fat layer in this area is very thin, and wrinkling and poor skin contraction may occur. The most common areas of liposuction of the upper arm include the posterior brachial and the lateral aspects. The treatment of the para-axillary region, the deltoid bulge, and the upper back were popularized in the 1980s and the 1990s and are still performed today. 2012
61
A 42-year-old man comes to the office because of numbness and pain near the elbow 1 year after undergoing bilateral L-brachioplasty following a 150-lb (68-kg) weight loss. Current weight is 200 lb (90 kg) and BMI is 32 kg/m2. Nerve electrical conduction studies are most likely to demonstrate injury to which of the following sensory nerves? ``` A) Lateral antebrachial cutaneous B) Medial antebrachial cutaneous C) Posterior antebrachial cutaneous D) Radial dorsal cutaneous E) Ulnar dorsal cutaneous ```
The correct response is Option B. 2012
62
A 46-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding abdominal contouring surgery 18 months after gastric bypass surgery. She has lost 125 lb (57 kg). Physical examination shows excess abdominal, flank, and back skin. Which of the following nutritional parameters is most likely abnormal in this patient at this time? ``` A) Albumin B) Calcium C) Folate D) Iron E) Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) ```
The correct response is Option D. Following gastric bypass, many patients have poor nutrition that may adversely affect post-bariatric surgical outcomes. Advanced age, changes in body mass index, and presence of dumping syndrome may contribute to the patient’s overall nutritional status. Preoperative assessment is important in identifying patients with inadequate nutrition. Evaluation should include protein-calorie intake, serum protein measures, vitamin and mineral status, coagulation, liver function, and electrolytes. Iron deficiency is the most common abnormality found in post-gastric bypass patients. Despite iron supplementation, 50% of patients show evidence of low ferritin concentrations. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency is often detected. Deficiencies in calcium and folate are less common. Protein deficiency identified by hypoalbuminemia has been reported to be as high as 14% in patients following gastric bypass surgery. 2012
63
A 35-year-old woman comes to the office 2 weeks after undergoing abdominoplasty. She says she has felt bloated for the past week, and that she expects her menstrual period in 2 days. Physical examination shows ballottable swelling of the infraumbilical region. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? ``` A) Application of a compression garment B) Diagnostic ultrasonography C) Doxycycline sclerosis D) Needle aspiration E) Oral administration of a diuretic agent ```
The correct response is Option D. Seroma formation is the most frequent complication of abdominoplasty procedures. The occurrence rate quoted in the literature varies from 0.3 to 90%. The most common figure is 7 to 35%. The diagnosis of seroma can usually be made on physical examination. Ballottable swelling or fluid wave is both visible and palpable and represents the sine qua non of seroma. In this patient, a needle aspiration should be performed. It is not unusual for seroma to recur, and additional aspirations may be required on a weekly basis. The average seroma takes two to three aspirations to eradicate. If seroma is ignored, it can lead to a permanent condition that requires operative excision. Risk factors for increased seroma formation include BMI greater than or equal to 30, concomitant liposuction, large skin resections, and shear forces. Most plastic surgeons put their patients in compression garments postoperatively; however, studies have shown that garments do not prevent seromas. Diagnostic ultrasound is an unnecessary test when the patient has a ballottable mass. Doxycycline sclerosis is indicated when aspiration is unsuccessful or if the suction drains cannot be removed because of persistent high-volume output. Oral diuretics will not cure seroma. 2012
64
A 40-year-old woman comes to the office because she is dissatisfied with the “deflated” appearance of her buttocks after undergoing gastric bypass surgery, followed by a 100-lb (45-kg) weight loss. Physical examination shows skin laxity and deflation of the buttocks. In addition to performing a lower body lift, which of the following is the most appropriate management of the buttock deformity? A) Application of external radiofrequency (Thermage) B) Augmentation with gluteal artery perforator flap coverage C) Fat grafting D) Implantation of prostheses E) Suction lipectomy
The correct response is Option B. Gluteal changes related to loss of volume, ptosis, and skin laxity following massive weight loss require aggressive surgical techniques to improve contour and augmentation. External radiofrequency (Thermage) does not address deflation and has shown conservative results with regard to skin tightening. It does not offer the degree of tightening that would adequately treat the massive weight-loss patient. The gluteal region in patients who have sustained massive weight loss following gastric bypass surgery is characterized by excessive skin and exaggerated fat loss. Lower body lift procedures remove excess skin and lift sagging buttock tissue, but they do not address deflation and may result in further gluteal flattening. Autologous gluteal augmentation flaps, such as those vascularized by the superior and inferior gluteal artery perforator arteries, can be transferred reliably during lower body lifts to add volume and projection to the buttocks. Fat grafting is the most prevalent form of gluteal augmentation with the greatest safety profile, currently surpassing gluteal prostheses. The greatest challenge in using autologous fat in a patient who has sustained massive weight loss is assessing whether the patient has adequate donor fat to overcome severe volume loss and skin laxity. The amount of donor fat needed to achieve a pleasing shape is much greater than it seems, ranging from 450 to 1100 mL per side, depending on patient size and gluteal dimension. The ideal candidate for autologous buttock augmentation is slightly overweight, but in good health. Implantation of gluteal prostheses is not often performed by plastic surgeons due to well-known risks that include wound dehiscence, extrusion, seroma, and infection. Furthermore, gluteal prostheses carry risks of rotation, capsular contracture, and displacement. Suction lipectomy would exacerbate volume deficiency and result in little to no skin tightening. 2012
65
A 42-year-old woman is undergoing brachioplasty after a massive weight loss. The surgeon is most likely to avoid injury to the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve during the procedure if he or she is able to identify it in the elbow at which of the following locations? A) Deep to the deep fascia traveling with the basilic vein B) Deep to the deep fascia traveling with the cephalic vein C) Superficial to the deep fascia traveling with the basilic vein D) Superficial to the deep fascia traveling with the cephalic vein
The correct response is Option C. The position of the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve (MABC) makes it vulnerable to injury during a brachioplasty. Understanding its course and relationship to other structures allows the surgeon to identify and protect it. The MABC is a sensory nerve. It is a terminal branch of the medial cord of the brachial plexus. It travels with the basilic vein medial to the biceps brachii muscle, and it pierces the fascia at the basilic hiatus proximal to the elbow. Injury to the MABC can cause areas of numbness of the median forearm, as well as painful neuromas. The MABC is best identified in the distal aspect of the brachioplasty incision with the basilic vein and protected during the dissection. 2012
66
An otherwise healthy 35-year-old man comes to the office because of a 15-year history of bilateral Grade III gynecomastia. Height is 5 ft 10 in (178 cm) and weight is 187 lb (85 kg). BMI is 27 kg/m2. Physical examination shows breast enlargement with skin redundancy and palpable glandular and fatty tissue. Ultrasound-assisted lipectomy is planned because the patient wishes to avoid visible scars. Which of the following is most likely to minimize the need for skin resection? A) Disruption of the inframammary fold B) High energy setting C) Peripheral feathering with standard liposuction D) Treatment of the intermediate fat layer E) Tumescent infiltration with a 3:1 ratio
The correct response is Option A. Although surgery remains the mainstay of treatment for gynecomastia in this country, results have been inconsistent, with reported dissatisfaction rates as high as 50%. Common aesthetic problems reported after surgery include unacceptable scarring and nipple and areolar deformities such as tethering and malposition. As a result, less invasive techniques have evolved and are now the mainstay of treatment for all but the most severe forms of gynecomastia. The use of ultrasound-assisted lipectomy has improved the outcomes in the treatment of all grades of gynecomastia. In the more severe grades, certain maneuvers will improve skin retraction and redraping and may thus eliminate the need for a subsequent procedure for skin excision. While fatty and fibrous tissue is best approached from a deeper subcutaneous plane, transition to a subdermal plane can allow for greater skin retraction. Moreover, disruption of the inframammary fold is essential in that it allows the skin to drape more naturally onto the abdomen, which is typical of a male breast. The use of wetting solutions is imperative with ultrasound-assisted lipectomy to avoid burns. Both superwet (1:1) and tumescent (3:1) techniques are acceptable. The power of the unit should generally not exceed 90% to avoid burns and dermal injuries. Peripheral feathering improves contour, providing a smoother transition to the outer border of the breast, but does not specifically address skin excess. 2012
67
A 65-year-old woman comes for evaluation of persistent sharp, stabbing pain in the lower abdomen that radiates to the groin. She underwent abdominoplasty 6 months ago, and the pain first occurred 1 month after the procedure. The patient says that the pain is aggravated when she walks. Weight is 154 lb (70 kg). Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management? A) Electromyography and nerve conduction studies B) Initiation of a 6-month course of gabapentin C) MRI of the abdomen and pelvis D) Nerve block with lidocaine E) Surgical exploration and excision of neuroma
The correct response is Option D. Although nerve injury is not the most common complication of abdominoplasty, it does occur in approximately 1% of patients undergoing cosmetic procedures and in 2 to 4% of patients who have similarly located Pfannenstiel incisions for obstetric and/or gynecologic procedures. Patients with symptoms of neuropathic pain after abdominoplasty are often referred for a series of diagnostic tests and consultations that may not be necessary, delaying definitive treatment. Patients experiencing neuropathic pain after abdominoplasty have most often sustained an injury to the lateral femoral cutaneous, iliohypogastric, or ilioinguinal nerve. The typical symptom is pain that can occur immediately or develop over time. Patients usually report a stabbing pain at the corner of the incision that may radiate to the pubic area and/or upper leg. Hyperextension or "twisting" upper body movements can aggravate the pain. If abdominal muscle contraction intensifies the pain (Carnett sign), the pain is probably located in the abdominal wall. When nerve entrapment is suspected, a nerve block using a short-acting anesthetic injected into the trigger point is the next step in diagnosis. MRI and nerve conduction studies are rarely useful in this setting. If the patient reports relief with the injection, a second block with corticosteroids may provide long-term relief. If not, a well-targeted exploration with possible neurectomy and replantation may be indicated. While treatment with gabapentin (Neurontin) may provide temporary relief, its use is poorly tolerated in the long term and does not aid in the diagnosis or the definitive treatment of the problem. 2012
68
Which of the following is more likely to occur with internal ultrasound-assisted lipoplasty when compared with traditional suction-assisted lipectomy? ``` A) Contour deformities B) Infection C) Seroma D) Skin laxity E) Surgeon fatigue ```
The correct response is Option C. Internal ultrasound-assisted lipoplasty (UAL) has been associated with an increased incidence of seroma formation, tissue damage, and thermal damage, as well as neurapraxia. With the use of a cannula or solid probe, ultrasound energy is transmitted to the fat layer, where it disrupts the fat cell. The "liquefied" fat is then aspirated with suction. To prevent thermal injuries to the skin, infiltration of solution is mandatory, and the cannula or probe needs to be in constant motion. Although there are unique advantages and disadvantages of each lipoplasty technique, in experienced hands, excellent results can be achieved with any of the techniques, including suction-assisted lipectomy, power-assisted lipoplasty, UAL, and laser-assisted lipoplasty. Contour deformities are related to how the operator performs the technique rather than the technique itself. Infection rates are similar for the two procedures. Some studies have noted a decrease in both skin laxity and surgeon fatigue with UAL. 2012
69
A 27-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding liposuction of the abdomen, hips, flanks, and thighs. Height is 5 ft 5 in (165 cm) and weight is 156 lb (71 kg). BMI is 26 kg/m2. Physical examination shows lipodystrophy of the abdomen, hips, flanks, and thighs. Aspiration of 4 L using suction-assisted lipectomy and a superwet technique is planned. Which of the following is the most likely complication in this patient? ``` A) Contour irregularities B) Deep venous thrombosis C) Hyperpigmentation D) Seroma E) Wound infection ```
The correct response is Option A. Contour irregularity is reported to occur in 20% of cases and is the most common complication in liposuction. Deep venous thrombosis is reported in less than 1% of patients. Cutaneous hyperpigmentation is reported in about 4% of patients. It is often related to friction burns or cutaneous compromise. Seromas are relatively uncommon and are believed to occur more frequently in patients with an increased body mass index. Finally, wound infections are rare following liposuction. 2012
70
A 55-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation about arm contouring. She underwent gastric bypass surgery 18 months ago, followed by a 100-lb (45-kg) weight loss. She says she has difficulty finding clothing that fits her upper arms. A photograph is shown -- Physical examination shows skin laxity and lipodystrophy of the upper arms. Brachioplasty with a T-scar and posterior liposuction is planned. Which of the following complications is most likely to occur in this patient? ``` A) Cellulitis B) Lymphedema C) Numbness D) Thromboembolism E) Wound dehiscence ```
The correct response is Option E. The most likely risk of a combination brachioplasty liposuction procedure is wound dehiscence. Wound dehiscence has been most commonly reported when liposuction is performed in conjunction with brachioplasty, and most commonly reported with the excisional technique alone. Dehiscence most often occurs in the axilla at the T point in traditional brachioplasty and in the axilla in the L-brachioplasty approach. Lymphedema also may occur after brachioplasty with or without liposuction and is also often temporary. There is no increased risk with liposuction. Lymphedema occurs because of scarring around the axillary lymph nodes. Cellulitis may also be associated with lymphatic obstruction or interruption in the arm. Numbness is a common complication following brachioplasty but is often temporary in nature. The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve is located within the field of surgery in the distal arm and may undergo traction injury or laceration. Thromboembolism is a rare occurrence after brachioplasty. 2012
71
A 40-year-old woman says she has a burning pain in the thigh with movement the day after undergoing abdominoplasty. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the procedure? ``` A) Genitofemoral B) Iliohypogastric C) Ilioinguinal D) Lateral femoral cutaneous E) Saphenous ```
The correct response is Option D. In several studies of complications of abdominoplasty, the most common nerve injury was to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. Symptoms include anterior and lateral thigh burning, tingling, and/or numbness, all of which increase with standing, walking, or hip extension. Injury or entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is also known as meralgia paresthetica. The genitofemoral nerve supplies the proximal portion of the thigh about the femoral triangle just lateral to the skin that is innervated by the ilioinguinal nerve. Nerve injury may result from hernia repair, but injury to this nerve is rare. The iliohypogastric nerve arises primarily from L1. The distribution of the cutaneous sensation of the iliohypogastric nerve is most commonly a small region just superior to the pubis. The iliohypogastric nerve is rarely injured in isolation. Symptoms include burning pain into the inguinal and suprapubic region. The ilioinguinal nerve arises from the fusion of the T12 and L1 nerve roots and pierces the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles. The nerve then supplies sensory branches to the pubic symphysis, the superior and medial aspect of the femoral triangle, and either the root of the penis and anterior scrotum in men or the mons pubis and labia majora in women. The nerve can be injured in abdominoplasty and other lower abdominal incisions. Symptoms include paresthesia of the skin along the inguinal ligament. The sensation may radiate to the lower abdomen. Pain may be localized to the medial groin, the labia majora or scrotum, and the inner thigh. Saphenous nerve symptoms of entrapment may include a deep aching sensation in the thigh, knee pain, and paresthesias in the cutaneous distribution of the nerve in the leg and foot. 2011
72
A 27-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding mesotherapy for minimal lipodystrophy of the flank regions. She asks about the relative effectiveness of nonsurgical treatment with mesotherapy as compared to suction lipectomy. Which of the following is the most appropriate response? A) Mesotherapy is as effective as suction lipectomy, and it is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) B) Mesotherapy is as effective as suction lipectomy, but it is not FDA-approved C) Mesotherapy is not as effective as suction lipectomy, and it is FDA-approved D) Mesotherapy is not as effective as suction lipectomy, and it is not FDA-approved
The correct response is Option D. Mesotherapy involves the subcutaneous injection of medications as a nonsurgical alternative to suction lipectomy. Currently, mesotherapy is not an effective alternative to suction lipectomy and is not approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Although used initially in the treatment of psoriasis, chronic pain, and cellulite, mesotherapy has been advocated as an alternative to suction lipectomy. In mesotherapy, a variety of medications are injected into the mesoderm, the layer of fat and connective tissue below the skin. The most common medications utilized for lipolysis are phosphatidylcholine and isoproterenol. Currently, there are no clinical reports demonstrating the effectiveness of mesotherapy in body contouring. 2011
73
A 53-year-old woman who underwent laparoscopic gastric bypass surgery comes to the office for consultation regarding abdominal contouring. History includes an open cholecystectomy, ventral hernia repair, appendectomy, and caesarean delivery. The presence of which of the following scars on this patient's abdomen is most likely to result in postoperative wound healing complications? ``` A) Laparoscopic port scar B) Pfannenstiel (low transverse) scar C) Right lower quadrant scar D) Right subcostal scar E) Upper midline scar ```
The correct response is Option D. The blood supply to the abdominal wall arises from the intercostal arteries, the superior and inferior superficial epigastric arteries, and the perforators from the deep superior epigastric arteries through the rectus abdominis muscle. In a traditional abdominoplasty with undermining of the superior flap up to the costal margin, the superficial inferior epigastric arteries and the perforators that arise from the rectus abdominis muscles are divided. This leaves the abdominal flap to survive on the flow from the intercostal vasculature. The subcostal scar from the prior open cholecystectomy is the most likely scar to pose a problem for wound healing in the patient described. This scar has divided the blood flow through the intercostal circulation; thus, flow inferior to the scar may be unreliable. The port scars are unlikely to cause problems with blood supply due to their small size. The Pfannenstiel, or low transverse, caesarean section scar will require either inclusion within the tissue to be removed or placement within the inferior incision in the old scar line if it is sufficiently low. Placement of the incision above the old scar may impair the blood flow between the two scars. However, even in the scenario described, it is less likely to cause a healing issue because of the transverse orientation of the scar and the lack of undermining between the new incision and old scar. The right lower quadrant (appendectomy) scar will not be an issue, as this will be removed with the tissue resection. The upper midline scar is not as likely to cause a wound healing issue, as circulation from the intercostal vessels from both sides should supply blood flow to the flap on each side of the midline. 2011
74
A 38-year-old woman undergoes suction-assisted lipectomy of the hips, abdomen, and outer thighs. Using a super-wet technique, 3 L of aspirate is obtained. Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of the percentage of fluid infiltrate that remains in the body at the end of the procedure? ``` A) 10% B) 30% C) 50% D) 70% E) 90% ```
The correct response is Option D. The most accurate estimate of infiltrate remaining in the body is 70%. Fluid management is critical in the treatment of suction lipectomy patients. Profound hemodynamic changes occur with increasing significance as the volume of infiltrate and aspirate increases. To avoid fluid overload leading to pulmonary edema, the plastic surgeon must realize that the majority of infiltrate will remain in the patient’s body and be absorbed over time. Fluid requirements should include maintenance fluid (the amount of fluid required to replace normal daily requirements plus deficits related to being nothing-by-mouth), aspirate removed, and fluid infiltrated (70% estimated to be intravascular). These calculations will be vastly different depending on the type of wetting solution used, such as dry technique (no additional infiltrate), wet technique (200 to 300 mL per site), super-wet technique (1 mL of infiltrate for every 1 mL of aspirate), or tumescent technique (3 mL of infiltrate for every 1 mL of aspirate). 2011
75
A 42-year-old man comes to the office because of numbness and pain near the elbow 1 year after undergoing bilateral L-brachioplasty following a 150-lb (68-kg) weight loss. Current weight is 200 lb (90 kg) and BMI is 32 kg/m2. Nerve electrical conduction studies are most likely to demonstrate injury to which of the following sensory nerves? ``` A) Lateral antebrachial cutaneous B) Medial antebrachial cutaneous C) Posterior antebrachial cutaneous D) Radial dorsal cutaneous E) Ulnar dorsal cutaneous ```
The correct response is Option B. The demand for brachioplasty in the United States has increased as the number of patients undergoing bariatric surgery has increased. While brachioplasty is considered a safe and effective method of treating upper arm skin excess, the reported complication rate ranges from 25 to 40%. Most common complications of brachioplasty are considered minor and include seroma, poor scarring, edema, wound dehiscence, and underresection. The most common major complication is cutaneous nerve injury, which can occur in up to 5% of patients. Medial placement of the brachioplasty incision in the bicipital groove is preferred because the ultimate scar will be hidden when the arm is adducted. Medial placement of the incision may damage the cutaneous nerves that run in this area. Both the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve and the medial brachial cutaneous nerve arise from the medial cord of the brachial plexus. The medial brachial cutaneous nerve runs with the basilic vein and sends two to four branches to the skin 7 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. Another three to five branches pierce the fascia to innervate the skin at about 15 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve runs in close proximity with the intramuscular septum and penetrates the fascia approximately 14 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. At this point, the nerve runs superficially and is at risk for injury. While injuries to motor branches of the median and ulnar nerve have been reported, these branches run deep to the brachial fascia and are not injured unless the intramuscular septum is inadvertently punctured. 2011
76
A 45-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding body contouring 2 years after undergoing gastric bypass surgery. She has lost 120 lb (54 kg) since the procedure was performed. Height is 5 ft 5 in (165 cm), and weight has been stable at 160 lb (72 kg) for 11 months. The patient desires to undergo as few stages as possible. Lower body lift and bilateral mastopexy are scheduled to be performed in a single stage. Which of the following postoperative complications is most likely to occur in this patient? ``` A) Dehiscence B) Hematoma C) Infection D) Pulmonary embolism E) Seroma ```
The correct response is Option A. In appropriately selected patients, multiple body contouring procedures can be combined into a single stage if the surgery can be done in a timely fashion. Overall minor complication rates are higher; however, per procedure complication rates do not seem to increase if more procedures are performed in a single stage. The most common complication in patients undergoing combined procedures in a single stage is related to wound healing issues (approximately 15%). Seroma is the next most common complication (approximately 10%). Infection, hematoma, and pulmonary embolism occur at rates of less than 5%. 2011
77
A 35-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation because she is unhappy with the unevenness of her skin 1 year after undergoing power-assisted suction lipectomy using the super-wet technique. Physical examination shows skin surface irregularities that are radially oriented around a single 1-cm-wide scar. Which of the following modalities was most likely used for this outcome? ``` A) Improper power source B) Multiple access sites C) Poor postoperative compression D) Superficial plane of suction E) Use of fine cannulas ```
The correct response is Option D. One of the most common deformities of suction lipectomy is surface irregularity, which can have several causes. A large cannula will create a large furrow that may be visualized if the suction lipectomy is not performed evenly. Use of a single port may also lead to irregularities because the suctioning is done from only one angle. Superficial suctioning is also more prone to visible irregularities. The best way to avoid these deformities is to use small cannulas in the deep fat, with cross-tunneling from two sites, such that the tunnels are at right angles to each other. The power source would not cause surface irregularities. Lack of compression will cause prolonged edema, but not surface irregularities. 2011
78
A 48-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo abdominoplasty. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. During the preoperative visit, she informs the plastic surgeon that she has been on a nicotine patch and has not been smoking for 3 weeks. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to cause wound healing complications in this patient? A ) Decreased availability of hemoglobin B ) Decreased red blood cell deformability C ) Impairment of leukocyte function D ) Increased fibrinogen production E ) Increased microvascular vasoconstriction
The correct response is Option E. The nicotine in cigarettes causes vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels with resultant decreased tissue oxygenation. Smoking also increases carboxyhemoglobin, increases platelet aggregation, increases blood viscosity, decreases collagen deposition, and decreases prostacyclin formation, which all negatively affect wound healing. In addition, vasoconstriction associated with smoking is not a transient phenomenon. Smoking a single cigarette may cause cutaneous vasoconstriction for up to 90 minutes; hence, a patient who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily remains tissue hypoxic for most of each day. Vasoconstriction is mediated directly and indirectly by nicotine, a colorless, odorless, and poisonous alkaloid. A reduction in tissue perfusion results from elevated cellular levels of nicotine. The indirect pathways of vasoconstriction include the enhancement of thromboxane A2 and the stimulation of catecholamine release from the adrenal medulla, sympathetic ganglia and nerve endings, and cardiac chromaffin tissue. Other by-products, such as hydrogen cyanide, inhibit the enzymatic pathways vital for cellular oxidative metabolism and oxygen transport, effectively diminishing the ability for cellular repair and wound healing. Combined with acrolein, another toxic gaseous component, hydrogen cyanide inhibits leukocyte function, further impairing the inflammatory phase of healing. The proliferation of macrophages and fibroblasts, which are integral to the phases of wound healing, is also diminished by the presence of nicotine. Additionally, the presence of nicotine and catecholamines stimulates the production of chalones, which are hormones that retard and decrease the rate of wound epithelialization. Collagen deposition is also decreased in smokers. Nicotine is also associated with thrombogenesis by interfering with prostaglandin I2 (prostacyclin) activity. Prostaglandin I2 is a potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation. Platelet adhesiveness is augmented, raising the potential for thrombotic microvascular occlusion and subsequent tissue ischemia. Carbon monoxide is another toxic by-product common in tobacco smoke. The oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced by the competitive, inhibitory binding of carbon monoxide to hemoglobin. Carboxyhemoglobin levels rise, and tissue delivery of oxygen is reduced as the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve is shifted to the left. The decrease in oxygen available for tissue consumption leads to diminished wound healing. The resulting hypoxic state stimulates erythropoiesis, red blood cell aggregation, and fibrinogen production, leading to increased blood viscosity, which potentiates an environment already ripe for thrombogenesis. Decreased red blood cell deformability is also noted in smokers but through an unknown mechanism. 2010
79
A 23-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding significant skin laxity and volume loss in the face, torso, and upper and lower extremities following gastric bypass surgery 22 months ago. She has lost 120 lb (54 kg) since the procedure was performed. Rhytidectomy, abdominoplasty, brachioplasty, back lift, and thigh lift will be performed in three stages. Which of the following procedures will most likely result in hypertrophic scarring? ``` A ) Abdominoplasty B ) Back lift C ) Brachioplasty D ) Mastopexy E ) Rhytidectomy ```
The correct response is Option C. Hypertrophic scarring is reported to occur in up to 40% of brachioplasty cases. These scars require compression therapy, silicone sheeting, or mild corticosteroid injections. The other body regions are less likely to scar in a hypertrophic fashion. 2010
80
A 38-year-old woman comes to the office desiring abdominoplasty. History includes easy bruising and four spontaneous abortions in the first trimester and one live birth. Her infant weighed 10 lb 8 oz (4.5 kg) at birth. The patient's BMI is 28 kg/m2. Examination shows a 6-cm diastasis recti, an abdominal pannus, and a well-healed Pfannenstiel incision. Which of the following consultations is most appropriate for this patient before proceeding with surgery? ``` A ) Cardiologist B ) Endocrinologist C ) General surgeon D ) Hematologist E ) Nutritionist ```
The correct response is Option D. Venous thromboembolic events (VTEs), which include both deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary emboli, remain a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in surgical patients. The most commonly associated aesthetic procedure is abdominoplasty. For this reason, protocols should be in place to identify patients who are at higher risk. Multiple spontaneous abortions are highly suggestive of a hypercoagulation diathesis and should be further evaluated. The most common genetic abnormality is Factor V Leiden, which is a mutated factor V resistant to inactivation by activated protein C. This abnormality is present in 3 to 7% of the Caucasian population. Other genetic thrombophilic conditions include prothrombin variant 20210A, antiphospholipid antibodies, protein C or S deficiency, antithrombin deficiency, and hyperhomocysteinemia. The risk of VTE increases greatly when more than one of these abnormalities is present. Hematologic evaluation through blood testing can identify these high-risk patients. Following this evaluation, the hematologist can provide insight regarding the risk of VTE. The decision is then made to use VTE prophylaxis or not to perform the operation at all. The most common protocol is subcutaneous administration of enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg once daily begun 12 hours postoperatively and continued until full ambulation. Protocols vary in both time of initiation of low-molecular-weight heparin and length of treatment. The patient delivered an infant weighing 10 lb 8 oz (4.5 kg). This occurrence may represent gestational diabetes; however, a more thorough history can identify this possibility. A trained plastic surgeon should be able to identify the difference between a diastasis recti and a true hernia. Only in extraordinary cases should a general surgeon be required, for example, if the patient has a history of multiple recurrent hernias or a very thin abdominal wall. Studies have shown that complication rates in abdominoplasty increase in patients with a BMI greater than or equal to 30 kg/m2. 2010
81
A 40-year-old man becomes increasingly disoriented and obtunded 1 day after belt lipectomy. He has had a 200-lb (91-kg) weight loss since undergoing gastric bypass surgery 22 months ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management? ``` A ) Anesthesia consultation B ) Duplex ultrasonography of the legs C ) Heparin therapy D ) Psychiatric evaluation E ) Thiamine therapy ```
The correct response is Option E. Many massive weight-loss patients suffer from malnutrition, including thiamine deficiency, which can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy. Treatment is intravenous administration of 100 mg/d of thiamine, continuing with 100 mg every 8 hours until resolution of symptoms. Administration of thiamine is low risk and may reverse symptoms. CT scan of the head is worthwhile but can wait until after thiamine is administered. It is possible the patient could have suffered a €œkink € in his carotid or vertebrobasilar system with prone positioning, particularly if the head was positioned to the side and the neck was not in neutral position. Duplex ultrasonography of the legs, which can rule out deep venous thrombosis and possible pulmonary embolism, is recommended if there is a high-risk background, but it is unlikely 1 day after surgery. Therapeutic heparin administration would present a danger for postoperative bleeding only 1 day after belt lipectomy. Metabolic or surgical issues should be addressed before a psychiatrist is involved. 2010
82
A 57-year-old woman comes for evaluation for body contouring. She takes no medications except garlic herbal tablets daily. Use of the herbal medication increases her risk for which of the following postoperative events? ``` A ) Bleeding B ) Hypertension C ) Nausea and vomiting D ) Prolonged anesthesia effects E ) Tachycardia ```
The correct response is Option A. Among the general population, garlic is used as a common herbal supplement and, as such, is taken by a significant percentage of surgical patients. Proposed benefits of this supplement include its activity as a potential antibiotic, diuretic, antihypertensive, lipid-lowering agent, and antitussive. However, garlic ingestion may also increase the risk of intraoperative or postsurgical bleeding secondary to its platelet inhibitor activity or its role as a stimulator of fibrinolytic activity. Common medication classes that may interact with garlic include anticoagulants, hypoglycemics, cardiovascular medications, and monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Because a number of prescription medications may interact with garlic, and because most patients do not consider herbal substances €œmedications, € it is important to make the appropriate inquiries during the evaluation of the surgical patient. It is generally recommended that patients discontinue garlic use 7 days prior to surgery to reduce the risk of possible bleeding complications. Hypertension, nausea and vomiting, prolonged anesthesia effects, and tachycardia are not well-documented sequelae of garlic supplementation. 2010
83
A 32-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo suction lipectomy of the outer thighs and flank areas. One liter of solution composed of Ringer's lactate solution mixed with 20 mL of 2% lidocaine and one ampule of epinephrine with a concentration of 1:1000 will be used. Which of the following is the amount of lidocaine in the mixture described? ``` A ) 100 mg B ) 200 mg C ) 300 mg D ) 400 mg E ) 500 mg ```
The correct response is Option D. Each liter of solution contains 400 mg of lidocaine with a concentration of 0.04% and 1:1,000,000 epinephrine. Lidocaine is used more often as the anesthetic agent in the wetting solution. It has a wider range of safety than bupivacaine (Marcaine) and is more easily reversed. Historically, the recommended dose of lidocaine is less than 7 mg/kg. However, this dose does not take into consideration the slow absorption from fat, the persistent vasoconstriction from epinephrine, and the lidocaine removed in the suction lipectomy aspirate, all of which contribute to a reduced risk of systemic toxicity. It is generally accepted that a dose of lidocaine up to 35 mg/kg is safe when injected into the subcutaneous fat with solutions containing epinephrine, although doses up to 50 mg/kg have been utilized. 2010
84
An otherwise healthy 38-year-old woman reports feeling faint when she stands up 1 day after undergoing contouring of the abdomen, back, and thighs. Prior to the contouring procedure, she underwent a Roux-en-Y procedure 2 years ago and lost 183 lb (83 kg). BMI is now 23 kg/m2. Pulse is 120/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition? ``` A ) Anemia B ) Hypothermia C ) Pain D ) Skin necrosis E ) Vitamin deficiency ```
The correct response is Option A. Many patients who have undergone Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery have underlying iron deficiency anemia, vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency, and fat soluble vitamin deficiency. These deficiencies may lead to blood clotting disorder. Significant blood loss may occur during body contouring procedures, which is underestimated, and there is little reserve and potential difficulty with blood clotting from malnutrition. It is important to examine the patient carefully for any signs of hematoma. High output of bloody drainage, possibly followed by no drainage at all from clogging of the drain by blood, should be Prolonged hypothermia may increase risk of infection or wound healing problems. Pain is more likely to cause hypertension and tachycardia. Skin necrosis is a complication of lower body lift, particularly in patients who smoke or wear tight garments. This complication would not lead to the systemic issues described. Skin necrosis risk can be minimized by limiting undermining. 2010
85
A 44-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of the sudden onset of heart palpitations and anxiety 12 hours after undergoing abdominoplasty and liposuction. History includes breast cancer. She uses a transdermal patch for contraception. Height is 5 ft 5 in (165 cm) and weight is 152 lb (69 kg). During the abdominoplasty procedure, 4 L of Ringer's lactate containing lidocaine 25 mg/L and epinephrine 1 mg/L were infused prior to the first incision, and 4.1 L of aspirate were obtained. Recovery had been uneventful until the current episode. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A ) Administration of 0.5 mg alprazolam (Xanax) B ) CT scan of the chest C ) Determination of serum lidocaine concentration in the blood D ) Doppler ultrasonography of the lower extremities E ) Reassurance and observation
The correct response is Option B. The patient described most likely has an acute pulmonary embolism (PE) and should receive urgent medical attention at the nearest emergency department. Her age, recent diagnosis of breast cancer, and estrogen-based contraceptive use places her at moderate-to-high risk for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and/or PE following surgery. In addition, the combination of large-volume liposuction and full abdominoplasty as a single procedure further increases her risk for these complications. Heart palpitations and anxiety are common complaints in patients experiencing a PE, as are shortness of breath and hyperventilation, but the diagnosis should not be overlooked in a situation like this, even if it is not a presenting symptom. A CT scan of her chest as dictated in a PE protocol is the appropriate diagnostic study to evaluate for PE and will provide the necessary justification to initiate anticoagulation therapy. Advising her to go to the nearest emergency department to be monitored for lidocaine toxicity is not appropriate because lidocaine toxicity is not likely to be the correct diagnosis. Although serum lidocaine concentrations peak approximately 12 hours postoperatively, the lidocaine dose that she received was well within the established limits of safe lidocaine administration based on her body weight (7 mg/kg with the use of epinephrine). Attributing her complaints to a preexisting anxiety disorder could have disastrous consequences in the scenario described. The patient is at a significant risk for a PE based on her medical history and her procedure; therefore, she should receive urgent medical care. Alprazolam (Xanax) is a respiratory depressant that could exacerbate her apparent hypoxia. Doppler ultrasonography would be useful to evaluate for a lower extremity DVT, but it is not the most appropriate study to diagnose a PE. Reassurance over the phone and arranging to see the patient in your office early the next morning is inappropriate, as any delay in diagnosis of such a serious complication could be potentially lethal. 2010
86
A plastic surgeon is approached by a guest while attending a fund-raising event. The woman asks whether she should have an abdominoplasty procedure, and they discuss specific details regarding it. The woman subsequently calls the office and makes an appointment. On arrival, she gives a detailed history to the office nurse and is examined by the plastic surgeon. The procedure is scheduled and performed 3 weeks later. At which of the following stages of this scenario was a doctor-patient relationship established? A ) When the discussion at the fundraiser took place B ) When the patient made an appointment C ) When the nurse took a detailed history D ) When the physician examined the patient E ) When the procedure was performed
The correct response is Option A. Malpractice is negligence that occurs in the performance of a profession. The four elements of negligence are 1. Duty owed: the existence of an obligation 2. Duty breached: failure to deliver the obligation 3. Causation: the link between breach and harm 4. Damages: patient injury Duty is created when the doctor-patient relationship is established. Simply being a physician does not obligate one to establish that relationship. The doctor-patient relationship is formed when a doctor has professional contact with a patient, but it is not necessary to see the patient physically to form this relationship. Anyone the physician supervises and has authority over, even an office clerk, can form the doctor-patient relationship with the physician. If the plastic surgeon gives specific advice, it establishes a doctor-patient relationship. A physician should never enter into a doctor-patient relationship by accident. 2010
87
A 35-year-old man is scheduled to undergo a medial thigh lift. He underwent bariatric surgery 2 years ago and has lost 120 lb (54 kg). To decrease the risk of seroma formation, care must be taken to preserve the area defined by the inguinal ligament and which of the following additional structures? A ) Adductor longus muscle and sartorius muscle B ) Gracilis muscle and adductor magnus muscle C ) Great saphenous vein and sartorius muscle D ) Iliopsoas muscle and adductor magnus muscle
The correct response is Option A. The incidence of seroma following medial thigh lift ranges from 4 to 20%, making it one of the most common complications of body contouring. It is critical to have an appreciation of the anatomical borders of the femoral triangle for two reasons. First, the concentration of lymphatics draining the lower extremity is very high within the femoral triangle. Second, direct injury to the inguinal lymphatic system often occurs inconspicuously, and so a preemptive approach should be taken to protect these structures. The femoral triangle is bordered by the inguinal ligament, adductor longus muscle, and sartorius muscle. The iliopsoas muscle, pectineus muscle, inguinal lymph nodes, and femoral nerve, artery, and vein reside within the femoral triangle, as does the proximal portion of the great saphenous vein. 2010
88
A 45-year-old woman is undergoing abdominal and flank liposuction. When the superwet liposuction technique is used, estimated blood loss is closest to which of the following percentages of the lipoaspirate? ``` A) 0.1% B) 1% C) 15% D) 30% E) 50% ```
The correct response is Option B. The best estimate of blood loss during either superwet or tumescent technique liposuction is 1% of the lipoaspirate. There may, however, be differences in true blood loss based on interstitial extravasation. Techniques that employ smaller ratios of tumescent solution infusion generally lead to higher levels of blood loss, as high as 20 to 40% of the lipoaspirate. 2019
89
A 28-year-old woman with history of lipodystrophy of the abdomen and waist plans to undergo suction-assisted lipectomy while receiving general anesthesia. The surgeon anticipates 1.5 L of lipoaspirate. With a superwet technique, how much fluid is the patient most likely to receive in the form of subcutaneous tissue infiltration? ``` A) 0 mL B) 375 mL C) 750 mL D) 1500 mL E) 3000 mL ```
The correct response is Option D. Originally, liposuction was performed without wetting solutions, but this technique was associated with reported estimated blood loss of up to 45% of aspirate. Infiltrating wetting solutions with a base of normal saline or Ringer's lactate with additives epinephrine and lidocaine prior to suctioning improves hemostasis and pain control. The current options for wetting solutions are dry, wet, superwet, and tumescent. The dry technique is rarely used and no wetting solution is infused. The wet technique employs injecting a standard 200 to 300 mL per anatomic area to be treated, irrespective of the anticipated lipoaspirate. The superwet technique is predicated on a 1:1 ratio of instilling 1 mL of solution per 1 mL of aspirate. True tumescent infiltration involves infiltration at a ratio of 2 to 3:1 of wetting solution per mL of expected lipoaspirate. 0 mL is a dry technique, 375 mL is a wet technique, 750 mL does not fall into any category, and 3000 mL is tumescent technique. 2019
90
Which of the following procedures has the greatest risk of potential venothromboembolism (VTE)? A) Abdominoplasty B) Bilateral reduction mammaplasty C) Implant-based calf augmentation D) Liposuction of the trunk
The correct response is Option A. There is level II evidence provided by Winocour et al in 2017 by querying the Cosmetassure database of more than 129,000 patients that body procedures such as lower body lift and abdominoplasty have higher risk than breast, liposuction, or facial procedures. More specific level II evidence about abdominoplasty and venothromboembolism (VTE) was published in 2018 Keyes et al. after querying the Internet Based Quality Assurance Program database, that BMI greater than 25 kg/m2 and age greater than 40 were independent predictors of VTE risk. Most of the patients in this study who had VTE had pre-operative Caprini scores of 2 to 8, which would not typically make these patients recipients of chemoprophylaxis against VTE. Although operating in the area of the calf muscles seems like a good source of potential VTE, there is no reference to calf implants in these large database studies, and a PubMed search of VTE and calf implants returns no literature. For a generalized summary of risk stratification, consult the Pannucci et al. article. 2019
91
A patient who had massive weight loss comes to the office to discuss reconstruction. The surgeon determines that the patient would benefit from a lower body lift. Advancement of the flaps in this procedure will be best achieved by undermining which of the following zones of adherence? ``` A) Distal posterior thigh B) Gluteal crease C) Inferolateral iliotibial tract D) Lateral gluteal depression E) Mid medial thigh ```
The correct response is Option D. Continuous or discontinuous release of the lateral gluteal depression would be the most effective in allowing the advancement of the flaps in a lower body lift. Though the gluteal crease is in proximity of the flaps, release here would undesirably blunt this crease. The other choices are not in proximity and their release would have little effect on advancing the flaps. 2019
92
To avoid damage to the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve during brachioplasty, which of the following veins is most important to mark? ``` A) Axillary vein B) Basilic vein C) Brachial vein D) Cephalic vein E) Innominate vein ```
The correct response is Option B. Care is used to avoid damage to the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve of the forearm in the distal third of the medial arm. The nerve divides into anterior and posterior branches around the basilica vein. The other veins, axillary, cephalic, and brachial are incorrect. 2019
93
A 35-year-old woman who is morbidly obese comes to the plastic surgery clinic to discuss body contouring. She is counseled that losing weight before undergoing contouring may be beneficial. Which of the following methods of weight loss is most likely to increase this patient's risk for surgical complications during body contouring? ``` A) Exercise B) Gastric band/sleeve C) Gastric bypass D) Liposuction E) Low-carbohydrate diet ```
The correct response is Option C. Multiple studies have demonstrated that results from body contouring after massive weight loss depend somewhat on the method of weight loss. Weight loss via gastric bypass has been shown to be associated with higher rates of surgical complications following body contouring than other weight loss methods. 2019
94
A 45-year-old man is evaluated for a body lift after undergoing bariatric surgery and subsequent 100-lb weight loss. Which of the following characteristics would make this patient an inappropriate candidate? ``` A) BMI of 30 kg/m2 B) History of deep venous thromboembolism C) Protein intake of 25 g daily D) Transverse abdominal scar E) Type 2 diabetes ```
The correct response is Option C. Achieving satisfactory outcomes while minimizing morbidity requires careful assessment of the patient's comorbidities, nutritional deficiencies, and psychological issues. A history of venous thromboembolism is not a contraindication for body contouring procedures but requires evaluation of the patient by a hematologist and postoperative thromboembolism prophylaxis. Type 2 diabetes is not a contraindication for a circumferential body lift. BMI is a predictor of complications following body contouring procedures. Higher BMI (BMI >35) is associated with increased complication rates. Nutritional status in the postbariatric patient is important to achieving successful outcomes for the body lift patient. Deficiencies in calcium, vitamin B12, folate and thiamine should be corrected prior to surgery. Protein deficiencies have been shown to significantly lower healing rates among massive weight loss patients. Studies have indicated that a minimum of 60 to 100 g daily of protein is necessary to prevent malnutrition and avoid delayed wound healing in such patients. Daily protein intake of 25 g or less would produce severe malnutrition and be a contraindication for surgery. 2019
95
A 58-year-old woman is evaluated for seroma six weeks after undergoing a lower body lift following massive weight loss. The surgery was uneventful, and the drain had been removed. Repeated aspirations of the seroma were done without success. The surgeon is considering injection of a sclerosant agent into the seroma space. Which of the following agents is most likely to be used? A) Doxorubicin B) Doxycycline C) Erythromycin D) Gentamycin
The correct response is Option B. Seroma presents as a common postoperative management problem in plastic surgery, particularly in body contouring for massive weight loss. The combination of potential injury to a rich lymphatic supply, possible excision of lymphoid tissue, and extensive subcutaneous dissection in adjacent areas, combined with shear forces and motion are the substrates to seroma formation. The most widely used treatment strategies for effusions include percutaneous aspiration, drainage, and injection of sclerosant agents through chest tubes. Doxycycline and bleomycin are the most common sclerosant agents used. 2019