Cosmetic Abdominoplasty/Liposuction/Abdominoplasty Flashcards
For women undergoing abdominoplasty after massive weight loss, which of the following is the best position of the navel? A) Along the line drawn between the iliac crests B) At the horizontal level of the tenth ribs C) Between the first and second tendinous inscriptions D) In the midline 10 cm above the vulvar commissure E) One-third of the distance from the xiphoid to the pubis
The correct response is Option A. As a result of the rapid increase in the number of bariatric surgical procedures performed each year, the frequency of body contouring procedures has risen concomitantly over the past decade. Among the most popular of these is abdominoplasty for resection of redundant skin on the torso. When designing the outline of skin to be resected, among the preeminent concerns is maximizing the aesthetic result of the procedure. Removal of the redundant panniculus may involve a low transverse incision only or a more extensive resection such as the fleur-de-lis or corset pattern incisions. The length of the navel stalk may limit any transposition of this structure. Accordingly, one must plan for sitting the navel in an aesthetically pleasing location to complement the finished result. The umbilicus is typically inset along a horizontal line that spans the iliac crests. This will result in the most natural appearance for most individuals. A location 10 cm above the anterior vulvar commissure would result in a placement that is unnaturally low. The other options would yield a position of the umbilicus that is too high.
A 51-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation for abdominal and lower extremity liposuction. The procedure is expected to last approximately 2.5 hours. BMI is 30 kg/m2. The patient takes an oral contraceptive. The patient reports having had a small venous thromboembolism (VTE) during lumpectomy for breast cancer that took place in her early 40s. Which of the following factors increases the risk of VTE and Caprini risk assessment score most significantly? A) Age B) History of malignancy C) History of VTE D) Length of surgery E) Use of an oral contraceptive
The correct response is Option C. In this patient, the highest Caprini risk factor is the history of a VTE, which carries a score of 3. The length of surgery is greater than 45 minutes so it would be considered major and would carry a score of 2, as would her history of malignancy. Age, obesity, and contraceptive use all carry a score of 1. This gives the patient a Caprini score of 10.
Which of the following symptoms meet the current Medicare guidelines for approval of abdominal lipectomy/panniculectomy following massive weight loss? A) Neck and back pain B) Psychological distress C) Unsatisfactory appearance D) Diastasis recti E) Recurrent intertrigo
The correct response is Option E. Medically necessary criteria for Medicare approval of abdominal lipectomy/panniculectomy include: Inability to walk normally Chronic pain and ulceration created by the abdominal skin fold When the panniculus hangs below the level of the pubis Intertrigo of the pannus that is persistent or recurrent over a 3-month period while receiving appropriate medical therapy Stable weight for at least 6 months and 18 months after gastric bypass surgery According to Medicare guidelines, the other four options listed are not considered reasons that make this procedure medically necessary: Treatment of neck and back pain Repairing abdominal wall laxity or diastasis recti Improving appearance Treating psychological symptomatology
A 48-year-old woman undergoes liposuction of the abdomen, flanks, and thighs. Liposuction is performed using 4 L of infiltration fluid. Each liter is mixed with 50 mL of 2% plain lidocaine and 1 mL of 1:1000 epinephrine. At which of the following times after infiltration are concentrations of lidocaine in the blood expected to be the highest in this patient? A) Immediately after injection B) 1 hour after surgery C) 2 to 4 hours after surgery D) 8 to 18 hours after surgery E) 24 to 48 hours after surgery
The correct response is Option D. The safe dosage of lidocaine in liposuction is 35 to 55 mg/kg. Peak lidocaine levels are reported to be 8 to 18 hours after infiltration. Oftentimes, patients are discharged to home when peak levels occur. Surgeons should keep this in mind when calculating lidocaine dosage.
A 35-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding a tummy tuck. She wants the scar as low as possible, but she does not want a lower vertical midline scar. Physical examination shows mild upper and lower abdominal skin excess and rectus abdominis diastasis. BMI is 27 kg/m2. Abdominoplasty and repair of diastasis are planned. Intraoperatively, there is marked tension on the lower central abdominal flap closure. Which of the following is the most appropriate maneuver to decrease the tension on the repair? A) Creation of a 3-cm transverse umbilical opening B) Liposuction of the upper abdomen C) Relaxing incision of the external oblique fascia D) Scoring of Scarpa fascia to the dermis E) Use of progressive tension sutures
The correct response is Option E. Progressive tension sutures are placed from Scarpa’s fascia to the abdominal wall fascia. This helps close the dead space, minimize flap movement, and minimize seroma rate. When placing these sutures with progressive tension, final tension on the abdominal suture line can be lessened. In so doing, healing complications can be reduced. The more common method for reducing tension on flap closure is to close the native umbilical skin opening in a vertical direction. This technique leaves a vertical incision in the midline of the abdominal flap. The need for revision of this scar is not infrequent. Further, most patients want to avoid this scar. Creating a 3-cm transverse incision for the umbilicus would decrease the tension on the flap; however, the appearance of the umbilicus would be aesthetically unacceptable. Relaxing incision of the external oblique fascia is used for closure of ventral herniorrhaphy and would not lessen skin flap tension. Scoring Scarpa’s fascia to the dermis would injure the subdermal vascular plexus, on which the vascularity of the abdominal flap depends. Upper abdominal liposuction can be performed at the same time as abdominoplasty, provided care is taken to maximize preservation of the lateral rectus perforators. It would not be a solution to minimize skin tension.
Compared with liposuction, which of the following is the greatest advantage of cryolipolysis? A) No procedural discomfort B) No risk of bruising C) No risk of posttreatment swelling D) No surgical intervention E) Shorter duration of treatment time
The correct response is Option D. Nonsurgical fat freezing treatment (CoolSculpting) is a method of noninvasive fat reduction that occurs via the use of cryolipolysis. It is a noninvasive technique that takes place in an office setting and does not involve the use of surgery. Following CoolSculpting treatment, patients have some aspect of bruising and swelling, which can last for up to several weeks. Results of CoolSculpting treatments typically take 3 to 4 months to develop. Results are additive, however, with multiple treatments. CoolSculpting involves the utilization of different applicators that have been developed to treat various parts of the body effectively. Each actual treatment is for 1 hour; however, most areas of the body may require multiple treatments to be effectively managed. Treatment times for an abdomen can range from 2 to 6 hours alone, whereas outer thighs are treated for at least 2 hours per side and inner thighs at least 1 hour per side. Although not all of these treatments need to be performed in one sitting, the total time for CoolSculpting treatments for most areas of the body are much longer than it would take to surgically perform liposuction. In general, however, CoolSculpting is a less expensive treatment option compared with liposuction as there is no fee necessary for anesthesia or operating-room costs.
During routine brachioplasty, which of the following nerves is/are most likely at risk during typical dissection? A) Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve B) Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve C) Sensory branches of the axillary nerve D) Sensory branches of the radial nerve
The correct response is Option B. The medial antebrachial nerve is most at risk for injury during routine brachioplasty surgery secondary to its superficial location within the subcutaneous tissue within the area of typical skin and soft-tissue excision. This nerve arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus 78% of the time and from the lower trunk in 22%. After emerging from the axilla, the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve travels medial to the brachial artery and lies adjacent to the basilic vein at the distal upper arm. In the distal or mid brachium, this nerve pierces the deep fascia to become very superficial running above the deep fascia at an average of 14 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. Despite some minor anatomical variability, this nerve has been found to be consistently present in the deep plane of dissection for the standard brachioplasty technique.
A 34-year-old woman is evaluated for body contouring after Roux-en-y gastric bypass surgery 6 months ago. There is no evidence of malabsorption. BMI is 36.3 kg/m2. She had a 75-lb (34-kg) weight loss and is actively losing weight. The patient reports low back pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Liposuction B) Panniculectomy C) Revision of the gastric bypass surgery D) Upper GI series E) Observation
The correct response is Option E. After bariatric surgery, patients can continue to lose weight as a result of the surgical procedure for approximately 2 years. Thus, most recommendations call for waiting until patients are 12 to 18 months out from their bariatric surgery and at a stable weight for 3 to 6 months. Ideally, patients should be within 10 to 15% of their goal weight. In this case, the patient is still within the time frame of active weight loss, and notes that she is actively losing weight. Thus, the appropriate answer is to wait until weight loss has stabilized. Because this patient is actively losing weight and there are no clinical findings of any issues such as malabsorption, there is no indication currently to evaluate her with an upper GI series or revise her bypass. In addition, as noted above, the risks for surgery are increased at this patient’s BMI. Thus, elective liposuction or panniculectomy is not appropriate at this time. Furthermore, because the patient is actively losing weight, the risk for revision surgery to address additional skin laxity that may develop with further weight loss makes undertaking these procedures not appropriate at this point in time.
Compared with standard suction-assisted lipectomy, laser-assisted liposuction has been shown to decrease which of the following? A) Contour irregularities B) Ecchymosis C) Postoperative pain D) Skin necrosis E) Swelling
The correct response is Option C. A prospective, randomized, double-blind study involving human subjects compared the effects of laser-assisted lipoplasty with suction-assisted lipoplasty. No significant difference was noted between the two groups with respect to cosmetic outcome, ecchymosis, edema, skin retraction, or surgical time. The only measured potential benefit of the laser-assisted technique was an overall decrease in postoperative pain.
A 35-year-old woman comes to the office for lipodystrophy of the upper arms. Physical examination shows negligible skin laxity; pinch test shows a thickness of 3 cm of the entire upper arm and the chest wall. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention? A) Extended brachioplasty B) Limited medial brachioplasty C) Mini brachioplasty D) Suction-assisted lipectomy E) Traditional brachioplasty
The correct response is Option D. Skin laxity is the single greatest determinant of whether liposuction is an appropriate modality in an algorithmic approach to upper arm lipodystrophy. The determination of excessive fat can be made by the pinch test, and patients with greater than 1.5 cm of fat on a pinch test may be candidates. The classification of lipodystrophy, described by Rohrich et al., includes skin excess, fat excess, and the location of skin excess. Where there is skin excess, the skin must be excised for a favorable result. Liposuction alone can exacerbate the appearance and presence of excess skin. Similarly, skin laxity is a predictor of liposuction success. With marked laxity, the skin is unlikely to have enough elastic properties to retract. Although there are some papers that show increased retraction of skin with laser liposuction, this has not been shown to be a consistent result in large-scale studies.
A 37-year-old woman reports nontender swelling of the lumbar area after undergoing lower body lift following massive weight loss. Examination shows tense swelling and a positive fluid wave test. Percutaneous needle aspiration is performed on a weekly basis, and fluid is still present after three aspirations of 150 mL each of a clear, yellowish serum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Compression B) Operative incision and drainage C) Placement of a closed suction drain tube D) Use of an ipsilateral gluteus maximus muscle advancement flap
The correct response is Option C. Among the most common complications following body contouring for post-massive weight loss-induced skin laxity is seroma, occurring in up to 35 to 50% of patients. To minimize the risk for seroma, preoperative nutritional repletion, especially for protein, and intraoperative use of closed suction drains, aggressive minimization of dead space, limited degree of skin flap undermining, and use of well-fitted elastic compression garments are among the techniques that are commonly recommended. None of these, even in combination, can completely guarantee the elimination of this complication. After several ineffective aspirations, compression garments alone are not likely to eliminate a seroma for this patient. The most appropriate next management measure for this patient’s seroma is ultrasound-directed percutaneous closed suction drain placement. Operative incision and drainage is not indicated unless the closed drain fails, following failed sclerosant therapy, or if the seroma is shown to be infected. A muscle flap is not indicated in this setting.
A 35-year-old woman with a history of hypertension is evaluated for body contouring. Physical examination shows generalized abdominal adiposity and moderate infraumbilical pannus. The patient undergoes abdominoplasty and large-volume liposuction after induction of epidural anesthesia. A super-wet technique is used and a total volume of 5500 mL is removed. Which of the following factors poses the greatest risk of death for this patient? A) Abdominoplasty B) Epidural anesthesia C) Hypertension D) Liposuction volume E) Super-wet technique
The correct response is Option A. The cumulative effect of multiple procedures performed during a single operation increases the potential that complications may develop. Large-volume liposuction, combined with other procedures such as abdominoplasty, can cause serious complications. Death associated with isolated lipoplasty is rare (0.0021%, or one per 47,415), but mortality increases significantly when lipoplasty is combined with other procedures. When combined with non-abdominoplasty procedures, lipoplasty mortality increases to one per 7314; when combined with abdominoplasty, with or without other procedures, the lipoplasty mortality increases to one per 3281. The presumed benefits of combined procedures must thus be weighed against potential untoward events. Studies indicate that epidural anesthesia combined with the infusion of anesthetic infiltrate provides patients with a consistent intraoperative comfort level. Data from the few anesthesia studies that have specifically assessed patients undergoing liposuction confirm the safety of general anesthesia, epidural anesthesia, spinal anesthesia, moderate sedation, and local anesthesia for this procedure. It should be noted, however, that epidural anesthesia and spinal anesthesia can cause vasodilation and hypotension, thereby necessitating the administration of excess fluid and increasing the risk of fluid overload. Based on the patient’s history, physical examination, review of systems, laboratory testing, and/or a medical specialist’s evaluation, the physician should select the patient’s American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical classification rating: Type 1: A normal healthy patient; Type 2: A patient with mild systemic disease; Type 3: A patient with severe systemic disease; Type 4: A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. ASA Type 1 and Type 2 patients are candidates for ambulatory and office-based surgery. The patient described is a Type 2 patient, a classification rating that represents patients who have any of the following conditions that are under control without systemic compromise: diabetes mellitus, hypertension, asthma, gastroesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, hematologic disorders, arthritis, and neuropathy. Large-volume liposuction is defined as the removal of 5000 mL or greater of total aspirate during a single procedure. A review of the scientific literature shows that there are no scientific data available to support a specific volume maximum at which point liposuction is no longer safe. The super-wet technique, introduced in the mid-1980s, uses larger volumes of subcutaneous infiltrate, whereby 1 to 2 mL of solution is infused for each 1 mL of fat to be removed. The infiltrate solution consists of saline or Ringer’s lactate with epinephrine and, in some cases, lidocaine. Using this method, blood loss generally decreases to less than 1 to 2% of the aspirate volume.
An otherwise healthy 41-year-old woman who underwent Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery 24 months ago, followed by a 120-lb (54-kg) weight loss that she maintained for 6 months, undergoes plastic surgery evaluation for a panniculectomy. Medical history includes hypothyroidism that is controlled with levothyroxine. Preoperative cardiovascular examination shows no abnormalities, and results of a pregnancy test on the day of surgery are negative. She undergoes panniculectomy and thigh lift, and on extubation, the patient is lethargic and confused. ECG shows sinus tachycardia, and she remains somnolent and confused. Analysis of thyroid-stimulating hormone and cardiac enzymes, chest x-ray study, and ventilation-perfusion scan show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Acute thyroiditis B) Diabetic ketosis C) Pulmonary embolism D) Undiagnosed pregnancy E) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency
The correct response is Option E. Thiamine deficiency is most often identified shortly after bariatric surgery but can be diagnosed later. Some patients can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy (WKE). Body stores of thiamine can last from 3 to 6 weeks, and thiamine deficiency is more associated with decreased dietary intake. Although clinical manifestations are very uncommon, and WKE is considered a rare complication, approximately 11% of patients who have undergone Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery and take vitamin supplementation show evidence of thiamine deficiency 2 years postoperatively. The hallmark of thiamine deficiency is neurologic symptoms, but in contrast to WKE, patients rarely exhibit confusion, ataxia, and oculomotor abnormalities. If thiamine deficiency is not recognized and treated, it can have devastating results, including irreversible brain damage and death. Full nutritional workup of patients is critical. Confusion is a symptom of diabetic ketosis, but diabetic ketosis is notable for signs of dehydration and excessive thirst or urination, and is associated with Kussmaul respirations. Acute thyroiditis has symptoms of pain and swelling of the anterior neck. Pulmonary embolism can have symptoms of respiratory distress and right-sided heart strain. Early pregnancy often results in nausea, but not lethargy and confusion.
A 39-year-old woman is evaluated because she is dissatisfied with the appearance of her abdomen. She has had five pregnancies with two full-term deliveries and three second-trimester miscarriages. She takes no birth control pills. Physical examination shows wide diastasis with excess abdominal skin. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Abdominoplasty with translocation of the umbilicus is planned. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications? A) Deep vein thrombosis B) Hematoma C) Infection D) Recurrent diastasis E) Wound dehiscence
The correct response is Option A. A history of two late-term miscarriages stands out as a significant risk factor for thrombophilia (inherited and acquired) and subsequent deep vein thrombosis. It is imperative that these patients be identified and further evaluated. If abdominoplasty is performed, chemoprophylaxis is required. The most common inherited thrombophilia is factor V Leiden, which is present in 3 to 7% of the Caucasian population. Multiple inherited thrombophilic conditions can be present in the same individual. Studies have shown that complication rates in abdominoplasty increase in patients with a BMI greater than or equal to 30 kg/m2. Based upon history and physical examination alone, the other complications of hematoma, infection, recurrent diastasis, or wound dehiscence should not be significantly increased.
A 32-year-old woman is evaluated for lipodystrophy of the central abdomen with skin laxity. She desires volume reduction as well as improvement of the skin laxity. The patient is scheduled for superficial liposuction of the abdomen. Which of the following postoperative complications is most likely in this patient? A) Contour irregularities B) Hyperpigmentation C) Infection D) Seroma E) Skin necrosis
The correct response is Option A. The subcutaneous fat of the abdomen is anatomically arranged in two layers: superficial and deep. The superficial adipose layer is located 1 to 2 mm below the dermis and is dense and compact with numerous septations. The deep adipose layer is loose and areolar with few septa. Conventional or traditional liposuction is performed within the deep adipose layer with larger cannulas. Superficial liposuction or subdermal liposuction involves the removal of fat from the superficial compartment found 1 to 2 mm below the dermis, disrupting the extensive septations. Most complications following liposuction are minor and resolve without further surgical intervention. However, the most common complications following superficial liposuction are contour irregularities. Less common complications associated with superficial liposuction include seroma, hyperpigmentation, infection, hypertrophic scar, chronic induration, skin necrosis, and infection.
A 40-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, with abdominal laxity and rectus diastasis is scheduled to undergo abdominoplasty with rectus plication. Which of the following intraoperative nerve blocks is likely to provide postoperative analgesia to the greatest area of lower abdominal skin for this patient? A) Direct midline injection of plication area B) Iliohypogastric nerve block C) Ilioinguinal nerve block D) Subcostal nerve block E) Transversus abdominis plane block
The correct response is Option E. Innervation of the anterolateral abdominal wall arises from the anterior rami of spinal nerves T7 to L1. These branches include the intercostal nerves (T7-T11), the subcostal nerve (T12), and the iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves (L1). Because these nerves travel in the plane between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles, they can be conveniently blocked in this area with a single transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block on each side. Although the other nerve block techniques are frequently used in combination, each covers a smaller territory or single dermatome. The TAP block may be performed via several different approaches. Most experts agree that there is a reliable block of the T10 to L1 dermatomes when the lateral approach from the triangle of Petit is used. The subcostal approach of the TAP block can give a more cephalad block. The combination of bilateral TAP blocks and rectus sheath injections has been found to decrease the need for postoperative narcotic use after abdominoplasty. It has also been useful for patients receiving transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous (TRAM) and deep inferior epigastric artery perforator (DIEP) flaps. The TAP block was also found to be superior to conventional ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve blocks in a comparison study of open inguinal hernia repairs.
Which of the following is the most common reason for reoperation after brachioplasty in patients who have undergone significant weight loss? A) Hematoma B) Hypertrophic scar C) Infection D) Seroma E) Wound dehiscence
The correct response is Option B. In general, patients are satisfied with the results of brachioplasty. Complications are not uncommon and some studies report complication rates as high as 50%. Most of these complications are minor in nature. Wound dehiscence is managed with dressing changes. Hematoma and seromas are typically managed with observation or aspiration. In the case of infections, the majority are managed with oral antibiotics. The most common reason for additional surgery after brachioplasty is to revise the scar. Many patients will have an unfavorable scar that either hypertrophies or widens. This can be addressed by a scar revision, laser treatment, or triamcinolone acetonide (Kenalog) injection.
A 66-year-old woman undergoes minimal-incision brachioplasty to treat bilateral upper extremity skin laxity. Height is 5 ft 6 in (167.6 cm) and weight is 140 lb (63.5 kg). BMI is 22.6 kg/m2. Which of the following suturing techniques is most appropriate to minimize widening of the scar? A) Arm dermis to axillary dermis B) Arm dermis to axillary dermis to axillary fascia C) Arm dermis to axillary dermis to pectoralis major fascia D) Axillary dermis to lateral pectoralis major tendon E) Axillary dermis to superficial pectoralis minor fascia
The correct response is Option B. The popularity of brachioplasty has significantly increased in America over the past decade, in large part because of the number of patients undergoing bariatric surgery for morbid obesity. In this population of patients who have undergone massive weight loss, the severity of excess upper extremity skin mandates a long, often hypertrophic scar in the bicipital groove, which is generally accepted by patients. By contrast, older patients with skin laxity but little lipodystrophy and no history of significant weight change are hard-pressed to accept this visible and often unpredictable scar. For this population, minimal-incision brachioplasty has emerged as an excellent solution and has itself been increasing in popularity over the past few years. In minimal-incision brachioplasty, incisions are limited to the axilla. The procedure is usually combined with suction lipoplasty to remove some excess upper extremity fat, to treat dog ears at the proximal and distal extent of the scar, or to facilitate undermining. Several key maneuvers improve the appearance of the scar and are tantamount to achieving high patient satisfaction after this procedure. The benefit of anchoring the superficial fascial system was first recognized by surgeons performing traditional brachioplasty procedures. A similar concept applies to minimal-incision brachioplasty, where anchoring of the arm and axillary dermis to the superficial fascia is seen to have several advantages. As part of a layered closure, this technique distributes tension in a more even and controlled manner, releasing the high tension on the final skin closure and decreasing the risk of a widened scar. Moreover, these sutures close the dead space within the axilla and recreate the axillary hollow. Suturing the arm dermis to the axillary dermis without fascial reinforcement results in a high-tension closure and often a widened, hypertrophic scar. Suturing the skin to the deeper fascial layers would be difficult and deforming.
A 35-year-old woman undergoes abdominoplasty and inner thigh liposuction. After the procedure, burning pain radiating down the right anterior thigh is noted. Pain increases when the patient stands and walks. Injury to which of the following nerves is most likely in this patient? A) Genitofemoral B) Iliohypogastric C) Ilioinguinal D) Lateral femoral cutaneous E) Saphenous
The correct response is Option D. In several studies of complications of abdominoplasty, the most common nerve injury was to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. Symptoms include anterior and lateral thigh burning, tingling, and/or numbness that increase with standing, walking, or hip extension. The genitofemoral nerve supplies the proximal portion of the thigh about the femoral triangle just lateral to the skin that is innervated by the ilioinguinal nerve. Nerve injury may result from hernia repair, but injury to this nerve is rare. The ilioinguinal nerve arises from the fusion of T12 and L1 nerve roots and pierces the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles. The nerve then supplies sensory branches to supply the pubic symphysis, the superior and medial aspect of the femoral triangle, and either the root of the penis and anterior scrotum in the male or the mons pubis and labia majora in the female. The nerve can be injured in abdominoplasty and other lower abdominal incisions. Symptoms include paresthesia of the skin along the inguinal ligament. The sensation may radiate to the lower abdomen. Pain may be localized to the medial groin, the labia majora or scrotum, and the inner thigh. The iliohypogastric nerve arises primarily from L1. The distribution of the cutaneous sensation of the iliohypogastric nerve most commonly is a small region just superior to the pubis. The iliohypogastric nerve is rarely injured in isolation. Symptoms include burning pain into the inguinal and suprapubic region. Saphenous nerve symptoms of entrapment may include a deep aching sensation in the thigh, knee pain, and paresthesia in the cutaneous distribution of the nerve in the leg and foot.
A 39-year-old woman is referred for abdominoplasty. She has a history of severe uterine fibroids, and her gynecologist is planning a total abdominal hysterectomy (TAH). The patient would like to have the abdominoplasty and the TAH performed at the same time. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient’s inquiry? A) Combining the surgeries can be done safely via any approach for TAH B) The gynecologist may perform TAH, but the abdominoplasty flap must be raised first C) The patient’s risk of a thromboembolic event is decreased by having one large surgery D) TAH cannot be combined with abdominoplasty
The correct response is Option A. Performing abdominoplasty in combination with other procedures has become a much more common request from patients. Advantages to this approach would include one recovery period versus multiple (which would minimize time away from work and or family, financial advantage to the patient, and a reduced need for multiple hospitalizations and exposure to anesthesia). Several studies have proven the safety of performing abdominoplasty combined with intra-abdominal procedures such as total abdominal hysterectomy (TAH). While the safety profile of combining these surgeries has been well proven, the risk of thromboembolic events is increased due to the extended time of surgery, so that aggressive deep venous thrombus prophylaxis must be administered perioperatively such as set forth by the Plastic Surgery Task Force on Deep Venous Thrombosis Prophylaxis. A TAH may be done via open or laparoscopic approach, depending on the gynecologist’s preference or patient’s chosen method. In addition, as robotically assisted gynecologic procedures have gained widespread acceptance, this approach for a TAH may also be combined with abdominoplasty surgery. Typically, if a laparoscopic or robotic method were chosen, the gynecologist would start the procedure; this way the port scars may be planned such that they can be excised within the abdominoplasty flap to be removed. Although the abdominoplasty flap may be raised off of the fascia before port placement, this usually causes the ports to be more unstable without the added support of the skin and soft tissues to properly hold them in place.
A 37-year-old man is scheduled to undergo bilateral brachioplasty to correct redundant arm skin due to massive weight loss following gastric bypass surgery. Which of the following methods is most appropriate to minimize sensory cutaneous nerve injury during this procedure? A) Design the longitudinal incision anterior to the bicipital groove B) Divide the intermuscular septum while resecting skin and fat C) Elevate and transpose the basilic vein before closure of the brachioplasty defect D) Leave at least 1 cm of fat over the brachial fascia in the proximal arm E) Maintain a sharp dissection plane deep to the brachial fascia
The correct response is Option D. Among the complications that have been reported following brachioplasty are injuries to the sensory nerves that traverse the medial arm. The most likely nerve to be injured is the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve. It perforates the antebrachial fascia at a fairly constant distance of 14 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle, putting it at a greater risk of injury than either the ulnar or median nerves, both of which lie deep to the brachial fascia. It has a variable relationship with the basilic vein, but this structure is never transposed during brachioplasty. There is a greater danger to nerve injury when the dissection is conducted deeper than the Scarpa’s fascia, therefore dissection deep to the brachial fascia or harvest of the intermuscular septum is contraindicated. A layer of subcutaneous fat at least 1 cm thick should be left over the deep fascia to minimize injury to the sensory nerves in the arm. Placing the longitudinal incision slightly posterior to the bicipital groove decreases chances for injury to the nerve as well.
A 56-year-old woman comes to the office after gastric bypass surgery with a weight loss of 155 lb (70 kg). Weight is 143 lb (65 kg) and BMI is 24 kg/m2. She desires an improved appearance of the upper arms. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical correction of this deformity? A) Liposuction alone B) Liposuction followed by brachioplasty C) Limited medial brachioplasty D) Full brachioplasty

The correct response is Option D. The most appropriate management for this condition is brachioplasty. Surgical management of the upper arm, particularly after massive weight loss, is dependent upon the ratio of fat and skin laxity. There are several classifications, but all address this ratio. Those with a great deal of skin laxity and little fat are best treated by direct excision (brachioplasty). Those patients who have little skin laxity (and good skin tone) and marked fat may benefit from liposuction alone. Those patients in the middle, with skin laxity and residual upper arm fat, are likely to benefit from a combination approach, either in a single or staged fashion. In this case, the patient demonstrates considerable skin laxity and has little extra fat, so a dermatolipectomy alone will address her deformity. A limited medial brachioplasty is useful for patients with skin laxity primarily in the proximal third of the arm and involves resection of a vertical ellipse of skin, leaving the scar in the apex of the axilla. The patient described here has skin laxity throughout the upper arm, which would not be adequately addressed with a medial brachioplasty. Liposuction followed by brachioplasty in a staged fashion will not improve her outcome and will only serve to increase the cumulative risks of two surgeries. Liposuction alone does not address the underlying issue of skin laxity. The patient’s age and her history of obesity/massive weight loss severely decrease the ability of her skin to retract after liposuction.
A 38-year-old woman comes to the office because of excess fullness of the proximal posterior arm. Pinch test shows a thickness of greater than 2 cm, and skin laxity is not excessive. Liposuction is planned. Which of the following is the most likely complication of liposuction of the upper extremity?
A) Contour irregularities
B) Hyperpigmentation
C) Injury to the ulnar nerve
D) Lymphedema
E) Seroma
The correct response is Option A.
The most common complication associated with liposuction of the arm is areas of overresection resulting in contour irregularities. Because such irregularities can be due to postoperative swelling, they should be treated conservatively for at least 6 months after surgery. Treatment may consist of fat grafting if contour abnormalities persist after 6 months. Early treatment may include lymphatic massage.
Although hyperpigmentation is possible, it is more commonly seen in the medial thigh in association with ultrasound-assisted liposuction. Seromas are rare in the upper extremity. Injury to the ulnar nerve at the elbow is possible, but it has not been reported. Care should be taken to avoid the nerve in placement of the cannula. While lymphedema is possible, if liposuction of the arm is limited to the posterior aspect, where major lymphatic channels are avoided, it can be prevented. Transient postoperative swelling is expected.
A 53-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of abdominal skin redundancy. Physical examination shows muscle laxity and lipodystrophy of the central abdomen and flank regions. Abdominoplasty and liposuction of the flank and anterior abdominal skin are planned. After this combined procedure, the patient is at greatest risk for skin necrosis of which of the following abdominal zones?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
The correct response is Option A.
Abdominoplasty in combination with liposuction has been associated with a higher risk of complications. Combining both procedures has been reported to increase the risk of delayed healing, thrombotic emboli, fat emboli, skin necrosis, and fat necrosis. Increased complication rates are reported in patients with risk factors such as obesity, smoking, and diabetes mellitus. Direct undermining of the abdominal skin combined with liposuction can lead to vascular compromise of the overlying skin. The blood supply to the abdominal wall is divided into three zones: zone I, mid abdomen supplied by the deep inferior epigastric artery; zone II, lower abdomen supplied by the external iliac artery; and zone III, lateral abdomen and flanks supplied by the intercostal, subcostal, and lumbar arteries. Zone IV has not been described. Following abdominoplasty, elevation of the abdominal flap disrupts the blood supply from zones I and II, leaving the flap to be perfused by blood vessels from zone III. Liposuction with abdominoplasty of the central abdomen, zone I, is associated with the highest rate of skin necrosis. “Safe zones” include the flanks and upper lateral abdomen.


