Cortext - Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe an osteochondroma?
Where do they commonly occur?
Risk of malignant transformation?

A

Bony outgrowth on external surface of bone covered in a cartilaginous cap

Around epiphysis of long bones, most common around the knee

1% risk of malignant transformation - any lesion growing in size or causing pain may require excisional biopsy
(multiple osteochondromas assoc w genetic conditions)

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2
Q

Describe an enchondroma?
What can happen to it to change its appearance?
Where do they occur?
Management?

A

Intramedullary, metaphyseal cartilaginous tumour

It can undergo mineralisation with a patchy sclerotic appearance

Small, tubular bones of hands and feet

Scraped out of bone if causing bother. Usually an incidental finding or cause of pathological fracture

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3
Q

Describe a simple (unicameral) bone cyst?
Cause?
Where are they found?
Management?

A

Solitary unicystic fluid-filled neoplasm

Probably a growth defect from physis (therefore metaphyseal in long bones)

Long bones - proximal humerus/femur, but also in talus/calcaneus

Usually incidental finding - if cause of pathological fracture then curettage and bone grafting

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4
Q
Describe an aneurysmal bone cyst?
Cause?
Where do they occur?
Consequence?
Management?
A

Cyst with many chambers, filled with blood or serum - the chambers can be seen on XR

Small AVM

Metaphysis of long bones, flat bones (ribs, skull), vertebral bodies

Can be locally aggressive causing cortical expansion and destruction, usually painful

Risk of pathological fracture - treat with curettage and grafting or bone cement

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5
Q
Describe a giant cell tumour?
Where do they occur?
Histology?
XR appearance?
Management? Malignant transformation?
A

Locally aggressive metaphyseal tumour which can extend to subchondral bone and epiphysis

Knee and distal radius but can affect other ling bones, pelvis or spine

Multi-nucleate giant cells, characterised by translocation between chromosome 1 and 2

Soap bubble appearance

Can cause pathological fractures, treat with phenol, bone cement and liquid nitrogen.
5% met risk to lungs

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6
Q
Describe fibrous dysplasia?
Where does it affect?
Cause?
What bone problems can it lead to?
What is seen on bone scans?
Management?
A

Lesions of fibrous tissue and immature bone in adolescence due to a genetic mutation

Any bone, but most commonly head & neck

Abnormal G-protein signalling

Angular deformities, e.g. Shephard’s crook deformity of proximal femur - caused by defective bone mineralisation

Increased uptake during development, but lesions become inactive

Bisphosphonates reduce pain
ORIF for fractures

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7
Q
Describe an osteoid osteoma?
Where do they occur?
Clinical features?
Ix?
Management?
A

Small nidus of immature bone surrounded by intense sclerotic halo

Proximal femur, diaphysis of long bones and vertebrae - usually in adolescence

Intense, constant pain worse at night
(mediated by PG’s, NSAIDs relieve pain)

Can be seen on XR but bone scan/CT confirmatory

May resolve spontaneously, may need CT-guided radiofrequency ablation or en bloc excision

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8
Q

What is a Brodie’s abscess?

A

Subacute osteomyelitis - can present as lytic lesion of bone

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9
Q

What is a Browns tumour?

A

Hyperparathyroidism - can preset as lytic lesion of bone

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10
Q

When are bone tumours more common?

When are primary bone tumours more common?

A

In older age, but metastatic from e.g. prostate, breast, lung - or myeloma

Primary bone tumours are more common in younger patients

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11
Q

How can primary bone tumours sometimes show up early on?

A

ill-defined bony swelling on XR - this mandates further Ix

Unexplained MSK pain (commonly misdiagnosed as growth pains)

Systemic symptoms may then appear

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12
Q

How can malignant primary bone tumours show up XR?

A

Aggressive and destructive signs

  • Cortical destruction
  • Periosteal reaction (raised periosteum producing bone)
  • New bone formation (sclerosis as well as lysis from destruction)
  • Extension into surrounding soft tissues
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13
Q
What is the most common primary bone malignancy?
Gene association?
Age?
Location?
Mets?
Management?
A

Osteosarcoma - bone-producing tumour

Mutation in tumour suppressor retinoblastoma
gene

Bones around knee (60%),, proximal femur, proximal humerus, pelvis

Adolescence/early adulthood

Haematological - most commonly to lung

Chemo

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14
Q
What is a chondrosarcoma?
Age?
Growth/mets?
Location?
Management?
A

Cartilage-producing primary bone tumour - less common and less aggressive than osteosarcoma

Older (mean 45 yo)

Can grow to be large, slow to metastasise

Pelvis/prox femur

Not radio/chemo-sensitive

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15
Q
What is a Ewing's Sarcoma?
Age?
Where?
What is seen radiologically?
Gene?
How does it present?
A

More commonly occurring bone tumour of uncertain cell origin, similar to neuroectodermal tumours
(small round blue cell tumours)

Young

Long bones

Onion-skin pattern

t11;22 EWS gene

Fever, raised inflam markers, warm swelling - may be mis-diagnosed as osteomyelitis

Radio&chemo-sensitive

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16
Q

Staging of primary bone malignancies?

A

Bone scan and CT chest

MRI and CT can determine extent of local spread

Biopsy for histological diagnosis and grading

17
Q

Surgery for primary bone malignancies?

A

Removal of tumour with 3-4cm margin and some muscle as well, reconstruct joints with special replacements

Adjuvant radio/chemo can improve survival

18
Q

Is lymphoma a primary or metastatic bone cancer?

A

Can be either - primary usually in pelvis or femur

Met - splenomegaly/lymphadenopathy usually present

19
Q
What is myeloma?
Name of a single lesion?
Type of amyloid?
Presentation?
Ix?
A

Malignant clonal proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, producing defective Ig

Myelocytoma (multiple = multiple myeloma)
Lytic lesions

AL amyloid (due to deposition of Ig light chain in organ tissues)

Age 45-65 - weakness, back pain, bone pain, fatigue, weight loss, anaemia, renal problems, recurrent infection, pathological #

Plasma protein electrophoresis (high level of paraprotein) OR urine collection for Bence Jones protein asssay

Skeletal survey of XR required as bone scan may not pick up due to no osteoblastic response to osteoclastic resorption

20
Q

5 cancers which met to bone?

A
Breast
Prostate
Lung
Renal cell
Thyroid
21
Q

What lesion does breast cancer cause in bone?

What type mets to bone?

A

Blastic (sclerotic) or lytic

Both lobular and ductal variants can

22
Q

What lesion does prostate cancer cause in bone?
Do fractures heal?
What can help?

A

Sclerotic

Yes - due to osteoblastic activity

Radiotherapy and hormone therapy can reduce fracture risk

23
Q

What lesion does lung cancer cause in bone?

A

Lytic

Mean survival 6 months once met to bone

24
Q

What lesion does renal cell cancer cause in bone?

Prognosis?

A

Large and very vascular lytic (blow out) lesions

Can bleed lots on biopsy/surgery

With single bony met and primary tumour, surgery can be curative
Multiple bony mets 12-18 months

25
Q

Ix for suspicious bony pain?

A

XR
Then bone scan

If tumour confirmed - CT/MRI, PR, breast exam, CXR, Calcium, U&E, plasma electrophoresis