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Yr 4 - CCC > Corrections - GP > Flashcards

Corrections - GP Flashcards

1
Q

At what eGFR does dose of nitrofurantoin for UTI need to be reduced?

A

<45 mmol/L

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2
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for animal bites?

A

Co-amoxiclav

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3
Q

2nd line Abx for skin infections if penicllin allergic?

A

Erythromycin

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4
Q

Management of subclinical hypothyroidism (i.e. raised TSH and normal T3/T4)?

A

Re-test TSH with thyroid autoantibodies in 3 months

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5
Q

1st line antiemetic in chemical or ‘toxic’ cause of vomiting (stimulation of the chemoceptor trigger zone) in cancer?

A

Haloperidol

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6
Q

What type of laxative is docusate?

A

Stool softener

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7
Q

Why is hypercalcaemia rare in prostate cancer?

A

As bone lesions are sclerotic not lytic

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8
Q

Common cause of renal failure in prostate cancer?

A

Obstructive uropathy

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9
Q

Step 2 in mnagement of asthma in children if not controlled on salbutamol inhaler alone?

A

Add regular standard dose inhaled corticosteroid (e.g. Beclometasone)

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10
Q

What type of antihypertensives are a common cause of hyponatraemia in the elderly?

A

Thiazide diuretics e.g. bendroflumethiazide

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11
Q

What is an alternative to amitriptyline to manage painful peripheral diabetic neuropathy?

A

Duloxetine

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12
Q

When is pregabalin not suitable to prescribe?

A

history of substance misuse

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13
Q

When is a lower BP target recommended in CKD?

A

If ACR>70

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14
Q

When is a SGLT2 inhibitor indicated in CKD?

A

If ACR > 22.6.

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15
Q

What is a seroma?

A

A localised accumulation of fluid beneath the skin surface: composed of blood plasma and inflammatory fluid which has leaked from damaged blood vessels.

Most commonly occurs after surgery.

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16
Q

What can be given in acute opioid withdrawal?

A

1) loperamide: for diarrhoea

2) lofexidine (alpha 2 receptor agonist): alternative to loperamide for physical symptoms

3) benzos: agitation

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17
Q

How do Phyllodes tumours typically present?

A
  • smooth, hard, mobile breast mass
  • rapidly growing in size over period of weeks or months
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18
Q

When do Phyllodes tumours typically present (in contrast to fibroadenomas)?

A

Phyllodes: women aged 40-50

Fibroadenomas: younger women (20s ish)

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19
Q

What metabolic disturbance is seen in patients with purge type bulimia?

A

Hypokalameia with metabolic alkalosis

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20
Q

What electrolyte disturbances can refeeding syndrome cause?

A
  • low phosphate
  • low magnesium
  • low potassium
  • hyperglycaemia
21
Q

Management of lactational mastitis?

A

1) start with conservative management e.g. simple analgesia, continue breastfeeding/milk expression

2) only prescribe oral Abx if:
- woman has nipple fissure that is infected
- symptoms have not improved after 12-24h despite breast milk removal
- if breast milk culture is positive

22
Q

Management of patients on antidepressants that have a manic episode?

A

1) stop antidepressant: can exacerbate the mood disturbance.

2) start antipsychotic

23
Q

What dose of morphine is indicated in opiate naïve patients initially commenced on opioid analgesia?

A

20-30 mg oral moprhine

24
Q

What morpine regime is indicated in opiate naïve patients?

A

Though dependent on patient choice, immediate release oral morphine solution given four-hourly (Oramorph) is the recommended formulation used to initially determine a patient’s pain control requirements.

This can later be converted into MST.

25
Q

Impact of COCP on risk of ovarian cancer?

A

Reduces risk of ovarian: potentially because it reduces the number of ovulatory cycles that a woman has in her life.

26
Q

What hormone therapy is used in oesotrogen positive breast cancers in post-menopausal women?

A

Anastrozole: aromatase inhibitor

27
Q

Management of patients with a history of cystic breast disease and recurrent symptomatic cysts?

A

1) Regular follow-up with breast imaging (e.g. mammography, ultrasound): to monitor for any changes in the cysts or the development of new cysts, and to rule out the possibility of any underlying malignancy.

2) Aspiration of symptomatic cysts can be performed as needed for symptom relief.

28
Q

Gold standard for maintenance treatment of bipolar disorder?

A

Lithium

29
Q

What occurs in Ekbom syndrome?

A

The patient believes they have been infested with parasites.

30
Q

Radiotherapy can cause side effects such as dysphagia, coughing & hoarseness.

What is this due to?

A

Radiation induced laryngeal oedema

31
Q

What does treatment of vascular dementia involve?

A

Addressing CVS risk factors to prevent further damage e.g. statins

32
Q

Is donepezil indicated in vascular dementia?

A

No

33
Q

When is folic acid supplementation recommended in pregnancy?

A

From 3 months before conception up to 12 weeks gestation

34
Q

What is typical age of onset of frontotemporal dementia?

A

<65 y/o

35
Q

Common features of frontotemporal dementia?

A

1) onset <65

2) insidious onset

3) relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills

4) personality change and social conduct problems

36
Q

How long should oral ferrous sulphate be taken for in iron deficiency?

A

Should continue taking iron for 3 months after the iron deficiency has been corrected in order to replenish iron stores.

37
Q

how can iron deficiency anaemia affect platelets?

A

Can cause thrombocytosis

38
Q

What type of anaemia is seen in alcoholics?

A

Macrocytic (due to losing folate)

39
Q

How does alcoholism affect platelets?

A

Can cause thrombocytopenia

40
Q

1st line management of warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Steroids +/- rituximab

41
Q

Give some acquired causes of sideroblastic anaemia

A

1) alcohol

2) myelodysplasia

3) lead

4) anti-TB medications

42
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Paget’s disease is a disease of increased but uncontrolled bone turnover.

It is thought to be primarily a disorder of osteoclasts, with excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity.

43
Q

What are the most commonly affected areas in Paget’s disease?

A

1) skull
2) spine/pelvis
3) long bones of the lower extremeties

44
Q

What is the stereotypical presentation of Paget’s disease?

A

Older man with bone pain and an isolated raised ALP.

45
Q

Key feature on blood tests in Paget’s disease?

A

Isolated raised ALP

46
Q

Co-presentation of iron deficiency anaemia and B12 deficiency anaemia can cause what type of anaemia?

A

Mixed i.e. normocytic anaemia

47
Q

How can mixed anaemia (iron deficiency + B12 deficiency) be differentiated from anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Low/normal ferritin and wide distribution of RBC volume in mixed anaemia.

48
Q

What is the MOST common symptom in SVCO?

A

Dyspnoea

49
Q
A

Yr 4 - CCC (53 decks)

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