Corrections 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does a history of IVDU coupled with a descending paralysis, diplopia and bulbar palsy indicate?

A

Clostridium botulinum infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can acute toxoplasmosis in immunocompromised patients mimic?

A

EBV infection (low-grade fever, generalised lymphadenopathy with prominent cervical lymph nodes and malaise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most reliable method to assess a patient’s response to hep C treatmnet?

A

Viral load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mx of campylobacter infections?

A

Often supportive

However, if severe (e.g. high fever, >8 bowel motions a day) –> treat with clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What abx can be used in the mx of severe cases of campylobacter?

A

Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Triad of features in disseminated gonoccocal infection?

A

1) tenosynovitis
2) migratory polyarthritis
3) dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Classical features of dengue fever?

A

1) retro-orbital headache (behind the eyes)

2) fever

3) facial flushing

4) rash

5) thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Order of LP vs abx in bacterial meningitis?

A

Suspected bacterial meningitis: an LP should be done before IV antibiotics, unless:

1) cannot be done within 1 hour
2) LP is contraindicated e.g.
- significant bleeding risk
- signs of raised ICP
- signs of severe sepsis or a rapidly evolving rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mx of bed bug infestation?

A

Fumigation of household via pest management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why are chemotherapy patients at increased risk of gout?

A

Chemotherapy causes rapid cell death, leading to the release of purines which are then metabolised to uric acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Marjolin’s ulcer?

A

SCC occurring at sites of chronic inflammation or previous injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

A rare, non-infectious, inflammatory disorder.

It is an uncommon cause of very painful skin ulceration.

It may affect any part of the skin, but the lower legs are the most common site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some associations with pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

1) Idiopathic (50%)

2) IBD

3) Rheum:
- SLE
- RA

4) Haem:
- lymphoma

5) PBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Clinical features of pyoderma gangrenosum?

A
  • typically on the lower limb
  • small pustule, red bump or blood-blister
  • then skin breaks down resulting in an ulcer which is often painful
  • the ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic

Look up pics!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mx of pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Investigations in fungal nail infection?

A

nail clippings +/- scrapings of the affected nail –> microscopy & culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When should microscopy & culture be done in fungal nail infections?

A

should be done for all patients if antifungal treatment is being considered

N.B. the false-negative rate for cultures are around 30%, so repeat samples may need to be sent if the clinical suspicion is high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mx of fungal nail infection?

A

Only treat if symptomatic and patient is bothered by appearance.

If dermatophyte or Candida infection is confirmed:

1st line –> topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer (6-12m)

2nd line –> oral terbinafine

3rd line –> oral itraconazole (if Candida infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where does dermatitis herpetiformis typically appear?

A

Over extensor surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the live vaccines?

A

1) MMR
2) BCG
3) Yellow fever
4) Oral polio
5) Intranasal influenza
6) Varicella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

After an initial negative result when testing for HIV in an asymptomatic patient, when should a repeat test be offered?

A

At 12 weeks post-exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why are platelet transfusions at a particular risk of bacterial contamination?

A

As they are stored at room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CT results in HSV encephalitis?

A

Temporal lobe changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CT findings in a brain abscess?

A

Ring enhancing lesion with surrounding oedema

(look up pic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mx of cerebral toxoplasmosis?

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

1st line abx in a brain abscess?

A

IV 3rd generation cephalosporin + metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Investigation of choice in genital herpes?

A

NAAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What conditions should ALL pregnant women be offered screening for?

A

1) HIV
2) Hep B
3) Bacteriuria
4) Anaemia
5) Thalassaemia
6) Syphilis
7) Blood group, Rhesus status and anti-red cell antibodies
8) Risk factors for pre-eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

For patients with gonorrhoea, what can be given if the patient refuses IM ceftriaxone (e.g. needle phobic)?

A

Cefixime + azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Features of constrictive pericarditis?

A

1) dyspnoea
2) peripheral oedema
3) a positive Kussmaul’s sign (the raised JVP that doesn’t fall with inspiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Acute vs constrictive pericarditis?

A

Acute pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium that can occur suddenly and resolve on its own, while constrictive pericarditis is a chronic condition that can lead to heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2 key causes of constrictive pericarditis?

A

1) any cause of pericarditis (typically repeated episodes)

2) TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CSF findings in a viral meningitis?

A

1) raised WCC (lymphocyte predominance)

2) normal glucose

3) normal protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults?

A

Enteroviruses e.g. Coxsackie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Bechet’s syndrome?

A

A a rare multisystem inflammatory disorder characterised by recurrent ORAL AND GENITAL ULCERS, uveitis, and systemic vasculitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is investigation of choice if a LP is contraindicated in meningitis (e.g. due to meningococcal septicaemia)?

A

Whole blood PCR & blood cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If patients are in a pre-hospital setting (for example a GP surgery) and meningococcal disease is suspected, what can be given as long as this doesn’t delay transit to hospital?

A

IM benzylpenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Give some contraindications to a LP in meningitis

A

1) signs of severe sepsis or a rapidly evolving rash

2) severe respiratory/cardiac compromise

3) significant bleeding risk

4) signs of raised intracranial pressure
- focal neurological signs
- papilloedema
- continuous or uncontrolled seizures
- GCS ≤ 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mx of cellulitis near the eyes or nose?

A

Co-amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Features of dengue fever?

A
  • fever
  • headache (often retro-orbital)
  • myalgia, bone pain and arthralgia (‘break-bone fever’)
  • pleuritic pain
  • facial flushing (dengue)
  • maculopapular rash
  • haemorrhagic manifestations e.g. positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, epistaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Location of headache in dengue?

A

Retro-orbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Mx of dengue?

A

entirely symptomatic e.g. fluid resuscitation, blood transfusion etc

no antivirals are currently available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Effect of lymphocytes in Legionella pneumonia?

A

A key characteristic of this infection is that it typically causes a DECREASE in lymphocytes rather than an increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the first-line investigation for suspected Lyme disease in patients with no history of erythema migrans?

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi

i.e. blood tests for serology

45
Q

What reaction is sometimes seen following treatment for syphilis?

A

the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

it is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment

46
Q

Features of the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A
  • fever, rash, tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic
  • in contrast to anaphylaxis, there is no wheeze or hypotension
47
Q

Mx of the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

no treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required

48
Q

1st line mx of syphilis?

A

IM benzathine penicillin

49
Q

How can trimethoprim affect the kidneys?

A
  • rise in creatinine
  • hyperkalaemia
50
Q

What can be given instead of IM ceftriaxone of gonorrhoea in needle phobic patients?

A

oral cefixime + oral azithromycin

51
Q

Mx of asymptomatic bacterial vaginosis?

A

Women with asymptomatic bacterial vaginosis do not usually require treatment unless they are undergoing termination of pregnancy

52
Q

why is treatment of asymptomatic bacterial vaginosis required in termination of pregnancy?

A

To reduce the risk of endometritis and PID

53
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis in the adult population?

What is the most common cause of viral encephalitis in the adult population?

A

Meningitis –> enteroviruses e.g. Coxsackievirus

Encephalitis –> HSV

54
Q

Sputum culture in latent vs active TB?

A

A sputum culture is positive for active TB but negative for latent TB

55
Q

What is the most appropriate test to check for latent TB?

A

Mantoux test

56
Q

Mx of Schistosomiasis?

A

Praziquantel

57
Q

Typical CXR findings in Legionella pneumonia?

A

Bilateral mid-to-lower zone patchy consolidation with small pleural effusions

58
Q

What disease presentation does the BCG vaccine provide the most protection against?

A

TB meningitis in children

59
Q

What class of abx can cause black hairy tongue?

A

Tetracyclines

60
Q

What is black hairy tongue?

A

Black hairy tongue is a temporary, harmless oral condition relatively common condition which results from defective desquamation of the filiform papillae.

Despite the name, the tongue may be brown, green, pink or another colour.

61
Q

Presentation of diphtheria?

A
  • sore throat with a ‘diphtheric membrane’ - grey, pseudomembrane on the posterior pharyngeal wall
  • bulky cervical lymphadenopathy
  • neuritis e.g. cranial nerves
  • heart block
62
Q

Mx of diphtheria?

A

IM penicillin

63
Q

Mx of immunocompromised patients with toxoplasmosis?

A

pyrimethamine + sulphadiazine

64
Q

What type of organism is E. coli?

A

Gram -ve rod

65
Q

What test is non-specific for mycobacterium, detecting all species?

A

Acid fast bacilli (AFB) smear

66
Q

Length of abx course in Lyme disease?

A

14-21 day course of oral doxycycline

67
Q

What c. diff antigen is specifically tested for?

A

Glutamate dehydrogenase

68
Q

What monoclonal Ab is sometimes used in the management of C. diff infection?

A

Bezlotoxumab –> targets C. diff toxin B

69
Q

Why should Abx be avoided if E. coli gastroenteritis is considered?

A

Abx & anti-motility agents increase the risk of HUS

70
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing E. coli?

A

Stool culture & sensitivity

71
Q

Classical blood test feature of C. diff infection?

A

Leucocytosis

72
Q

What is the key carrier of Yersinia enterocolitica?

A

Pigs (eating raw or undercooked pork can cause infection)

73
Q

How is giardiasis transmitted?

A

Cysts released in faeces of mammals.

74
Q

Symptoms of amoebiasis?

A

1) dysentry: profuse, bloody diarrhoea

2) liver abscess: usually a single mass in the right lobe (may be multiple):
- RUQ pain
- fever
- systemic symptoms e.g. malaise
- hepatomegaly

3) colonic abscess

75
Q

Mx of amoebiasis?

A

metronidazole

76
Q

Mx of giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

77
Q

How can giardiasis affect stool?

A

Steatorrhoea

78
Q

What is the purpose of the Yellow Card scheme in the UK?

A

Encourages healthcare professionals and patients to report any suspected adverse drug reactions, particularly those associated with new (‘black triangle’) drugs.

79
Q

What are black triangle drugs?

A

Medicines that are under intensive monitoring because they are either new to the market, or have very limited post-marketing exposure data.

80
Q

Campylobacter diarrhoea is typically preceded by what?

A

A prodromal period e.g. fever, malaise and headache.

81
Q

What infection can cause rose spots on the abdomen?

A

Typhoid fever

82
Q

What organism causes typhoid?

A

Salmonella typhi

83
Q

Does typhoid cause diarrhoea or constipation?

A

Constipation

84
Q

What is the most commonly used test for the diagnosis of leptospirosis?

A

Serology - but antibodies may not be present until after 7 days

85
Q

What is the most common cause of non-falciparum malaria?

A

Plasmodium vivax

86
Q

Mx of non-falciparum malaria?

A

1st line –> artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine

Patients with Plasmodium vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.

87
Q

Typical incubation period for giardiasis?

88
Q

What accounts for 50% of cerebral lesions in HIV patients?

A

Toxoplasmosis

89
Q

CT findings in cerebral toxoplasmosis?

A

usually single or multiple ring enhancing lesions

mass effect may be seen

90
Q

Mx of cerebral toxoplasmosis?

A

sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

91
Q

What are the 2 focal neuro lesions seen in HIV?

A

1) toxoplasmosis

2) primary CNS lymphoma

92
Q

Differentiating toxoplasmosis & lymhoma in HIV patients:

A

Toxoplasmosis:
- Multiple lesions
- Ring or nodular enhancement
- Thallium SPECT negative

Lymphoma:
- Single lesion
- Solid (homogenous) enhancement
- Thallium SPECT positive

93
Q

Mechanism of ritonavir (used in HIV mx)?

A

Protease inhibitor

‘Navir tease a pro’ - HIV drugs that end with -navir are protease inhibitors

94
Q

Mechanism of zidovudine?

A

Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)

95
Q

LP findings in viral meningitis?

A
  • glucose typically normal
  • protein typically raised
96
Q

What organism typically causes chronic sloughy ulcer with a duration of months without any systemic symptoms?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

97
Q

Typical colour of an ulcer caused by Pseudomonas?

A

Green (also offensive smell)

98
Q

What can serological tests for syphilis be divided into?

A

1) non-treponemal tests

2) treponemal-specific tests

99
Q

Role of non-treponemal tests in the

100
Q

What type of serological test for syphilis can result in false positives?

A

non-treponemal tests (as not specific for syphilis)

101
Q

What are some causes of a false positive non-treponemal test?

A
  • pregnancy
  • SLE
  • APS
  • TB
  • leprosy
  • malaria
  • HIV
102
Q

Interpret following syphilis test results:

1) Positive non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test

2) Positive non-treponemal test + negative treponemal test

3) Negative non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test :

A

1) active syphilis infection

2) false positive syphilis result e.g. due to pregnancy/SLE

3) successfully treated syphilis

103
Q

When is the MenACWY vaccine given?

A

Typically around the age of 14

104
Q

Mx of bacterial meningitis in those >50 y/o?

A

IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin

105
Q

Features of Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) infection?

A

Typically infection comprises of three stages

stage 1: small painless pustule which later forms an ulcer

stage 2: painful inguinal lymphadenopathy

stage 3: proctocolitis

106
Q

What investigations are required prior to starting TB therapy?

A

1) U&Es
2) LFTs
3) Vision testing
4) FBC

107
Q

Is metronidazole an enzyme inhibitor or inducer?

108
Q

What is Lemierre’s syndrome?

A

An infectious thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein following an anaerobic oropharngeal infection.