Corrections 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is pseudomembranous colitis?

A

A severe, potentially life-threatening infection of the colon caused by C. difficile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is pseudomembranous colitis most commonly associated with?

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics, particularly cephalosporins such as Cefaclor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome?

A

A type of functional kidney impairment that occurs in patients with advanced liver disease.

Key features:
1) ascites
2) low urine output
3) significant increase in serum creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1st line mx of hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Terlipressin –> induces splanchnic vasoconstriction which reduces portal pressure and improves renal blood flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the 1st line investigation for diagnosis of small bowel overgrowth syndrome?

A

Hydrogen breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do all patients who have had an episode of SBP require?

A

Antibiotic prophylaxis –> ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the prophylactic antibiotic of choice in SBP?

A

Ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can the causes of ascites be grouped into?

A

1) Those with a SAAG <11g/L

2) Those with a SAAG >11g/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does a SAAG >11g/L indicate?

A

Portal HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the causes of an ascites with SAAG >11g/L?

A

1) Liver disorders are most common:
- cirrhosis/alcoholic liver disease
- acute liver failure
- liver metastases

2) Cardiac:
- RHF
- constrictive pericarditis

3) Other:
- Budd-Chiari syndrome
- portal vein thrombosis
- veno-occlusive disease
- myxoedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some causes of an ascites with SAAG <11g/L?

A

1) Hypoalbuminaemia:
- nephrotic syndrome
- severe malnutrition (e.g. Kwashiorkor)

2) Other:
- pancreatitis
- bowel obstruction
- biliary ascites
- postoperative lymphatic leak
- serositis in connective tissue diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mx of ascites?

A

1) Reducing dietary sodium

2) Aldosterone antagonists: e.g. spironolactone (N.B. can add loop diuretics)

3) Drainage if tense ascites (therapeutic abdominal paracentesis)

4) Prophylactic abx to reduce risk of SBP (ciprofloxacin): offer to those with cirrhosis and ascites with an ascitic protein of 15 g/litre or less

5) Can consider TIPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What ascitic protein level should prophylactic abx be given to prevent SBP?

A

<15 g/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is required for large-volume paracentesis in the treatment of ascites?

A

Albumin cover –> reduces paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What 2 electrolyte disturbances can cause torsades de pointes?

A

1) hypokalaemia
2) hypomagnesaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ECG changes in hypomagnesaemia?

A

Same as hypokalaemia:

  • U waves
  • small T waves
  • PR prolongation
  • ST depression
  • long QT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What condition is most strongly associated Helicobacter pylori infection?

A

Duodenal ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome?

A

usually occurs when metastases are present in the liver and release serotonin into the systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is often the earliest feature of carcinoid syndrome?

A

flushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Features of carcinoid sydnrome?

A
  • flushing
  • diarrhoea
  • bronchospasm
  • hypotension
  • right heart valvular stenosis
  • other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may also be secreted resulting in, for example, Cushing’s syndrome
20
Q

Mx of carcinoid syndrome?

A

somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide

21
Q

What can be used to help with diarrhoea in carcinoid syndrome?

A

cyproheptadine

22
Q

What does a high SAAG gradient (>11 g/L) indicate?

A

Portal HTN

23
Q

What is mx if a severe flare of UC has not responded to IV steroids after 72 hours?

A

Add IV ciclosporin, or surgery

24
Q

What triad is seen in liver failure?

A

1) coagulopathy
2) encephalopathy
3) jaundice

25
Q

What are signet ring cells?

A

A type of cell that can be seen in certain types of cancer, most commonly gastric adenocarcinoma

26
Q

Mx of H. pylori?

A

PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin, or

PPI + metronidazole + clarithromycin

27
Q

Mx of a liver abscess?

A

IV abx & drainage

28
Q

What may be used to stop an uncontrolled variceal haemorrhage?

A

Insertion of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

29
Q

What is a small hard swelling lateral to the umbilicus suggestive of?

A

A periumbilical lymph node (AKA a Sister Mary Joseph nodule).

30
Q

What is a periumbilical lymph node (AKA a Sister Mary Joseph nodule) classically associated with?

A

Gastric carcinoma

31
Q

Mechanism of loperamide?

A

Stimulation of opioid receptors in the submucosal neural plexus of the intestinal wall –> reduces gastric motility.

32
Q

Mx of a mild-moderate flare of UC that does not respond to topical or oral aminosalicylates?

A

Add oral steroids

33
Q

1st line vs gold standard investigation in diagnosis of coeliac disease?

A

1st line –> IgA-tTG test

Gold standard –> endoscopy and biopsy

34
Q

Why should anti-motility and anti-peristaltic medications (e.g. morphine) be stopped in C. diff infection?

A

As these can predispose to toxic megacolon by slowing the clearance of C. diff toxin.

35
Q

You wish to screen a patient for hepatitis B infection.

What is the most suitable test to perform?

A

HBsAg

A positive HBsAg implies either acute or chronic hepatitis B.

36
Q

What doe a positive anti-HBs imply?

A

immunity through either previous immunisation or disease

37
Q

Anti-HBs vs anti-HBc?

A

Anti-HBs implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation). It is negative in chronic disease.

Anti-HBc implies previous (or current) infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and is present for about 6 months. IgG anti-HBc persists.

38
Q

How long prior to an upper GI endoscopy should PPIs be stopped?

39
Q

Mx of a severe flare of UC?

A

IV corticosteroids

40
Q

What is cause of itching in gallstones?

A

Hyperbilirubinaemia

41
Q

Mx of a pharyngeal pouch?

A

Surgical repair (myotomy) & resection

42
Q

What is used to assess the severity of an UC flare?

A

The Truelove and Witts’ severity index

43
Q

According to the Truelove and Witts’ severity index, what indicates a ‘severe’ UC flare?

A

When the patient has blood in their stool, or is passing more than 6 stools per day plus at least one of the following features:

1) Temperature greater than 37.8°C

2) Heart rate greater than 90 beats per minute

3) Anaemia (Hb less than 105g/ L)

4) ESR greater than 30 mm/hour

44
Q

Diarrhoea, fatigue, osteomalacia →?

A

Coeliac disease

45
Q

How can severe iron deficiency anaemia cause dysphagia?

A

due to post-cricoid webs (part of Plummer-Vinson syndrome)

46
Q

Features of a peri-anal abscess?

A

Swollen, tender, fluctuant lump next to anus

47
Q

Mx of a peri-anal abscess?

A

Incision & drainage