Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Yr 5 - Endocrine & Metabolic > Corrections 2 > Flashcards

Corrections 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What can be used for diagnosis of T2DM in adults?

A

1) HbA1c

or

2) Plasma glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What plasma glucose is diagnostic of T2DM in patients that are symptomatic?

A

1) Fasting glucose ≥7.0 mmol/l

or

2) Random plasma glucose ≥11.1 mmol/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What HbA1c is diagnostic of T2DM?

A

≥48 mmol/mol

in patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some conditions where HbA1c may not be used for diagnosis of T2DM?

A

1) haemoglobinopathies

2) haemolytic anaemia

3) untreated iron deficiency anaemia

4) suspected gestational diabetes

5) children

6) HIV

7) chronic kidney disease

8) people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (for example corticosteroids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the presence of an elevated prolactin level along with 2ary hypothyroidism & hypogonadism indicate?

A

Pituitary stalk compression –> consistent with a non-functioning pituitary adenoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What investigation is required to confirm the diagnosis of acromegaly if a patient is shown to have raised IGF-1 levels?

A

OGTT with serial GH measurements

(raised blood glucose should stop the body from producing GH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What effect should the administration of insulin have on c-peptide levels?

A

Should cause c-peptide levels to fall (will NOT fall in the case of an insulinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 features of MEN 1?

A

1) Parathyroid involvement:
- hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasia

2) Pituitary tumour:
- e.g. prolactinoma

3) Pancreatic tumour:
- e.g. gastrinoma (leading to recurrent peptic ulceration)
- e.g. insulinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common presentation of MEN 1?

A

Hypercalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What gene is involved in MEN 1?

A

MEN1 gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What gene is involved in MEN 2?

A

RET oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

mechanism of prochlorperazine?

A

D2 receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of medication is prochlorperazine?

A

1st generation antipsychotic (typical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What medication can lead to proximal myopathy?

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What class of medication is chlorpromazine?

A

Antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What gene is medullary thyroid cancer associated with?

A

RET oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Clinical features of Klinefelter’s (47,XXY)?

A

1) often taller than average
2) lack of 2ary sexual characteristics
3) small, firm testes
4) infertile
5) gynaecomastia
6) association with autism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bone profile results in 3ary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Extremely high PTH vs moderately raised serum calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary carcinoma (excellent prognosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors on weight?

A

Can lead to weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is fundamental in the prevention of gangrene developing in diabetics?

A

Education about foot care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

at what egfr is metformin contraindicated?

A

<30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What adrenal autoantibody may be seen in Addison’s?

A

anti-21 hydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

9am cortisol results in suspected Addison’s:

a) >500
b) <100
c) 100-500

A

a) Addison’s very unlikely

b) definitely abnormal

c) should prompt an ACTH stimulation test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mx of a thyrotoxic storm?

A

Beta blockers + propylthiouracil + hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Role of steroids in a thyroid storm?

A

Blocks the conversion of T4-T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

After a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio showing high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels, what is the next investigation in 1ary hyperparathyroidism?

A

1) High resolution CT abdomen
then
2) Adrenal vein sampling

These are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Inheritance of Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Prolactin levels in a prolactinoma?

A

Typically >100 ng/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mx of pregnant woman who develop hyperthyroidism in the first trimester?

A

Propylthiouracil > carbimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which 3 hormones are reduced in stress response?

A

1) insulin
2) testosterone
3) oestrogen

32
Q

Which hormones are increased in stress response?

A

1) catecholamines
2) cortisol
3) glucagon
4) GH

33
Q

Mx of subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis?

A

usually self-limiting - most patients do not require treatment

thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs

34
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of hypercalcaemia?

A

1) 1ary hyperparathyroidism

2) malignancy

35
Q

Levothyroxine in pregnancy?

A

Women with hypothyroidism may need to increase their thyroid hormone replacement dose by up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy

36
Q

What is the main kidney disease seen in diabetes?

A

Glomerulosclerosis

37
Q

To confirm a diagnosis of T2D, when is the HbA1c repeated?

A

Repeated after 1 month to confirm the diagnosis (unless there are symptoms or signs of complications).

38
Q

Mechanism of pioglitazone?

A

Increases insulin sensitivity and decreases liver production of glucose

39
Q

What are the notable side effects of Pioglitazone?

A
  • weight gain
  • HF
  • increased risk of bladder cancer
  • increased risk of bone fractures
40
Q

How are GLP-1 mimetics given?

A

SC injection

41
Q

Which GLP-1 mimetic can be used for weight loss in non-diabetic obese patients?

A

Liraglutide

42
Q

What is the principal feature of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Proteinuria

43
Q

What ACR defines proteinuria?

A

≥30 mg/mmol

44
Q

What 2 medications are used in the mx of obesity?

A

1) Orlistat (pancreatic lipase inhibitor)

2) Liraglutide (GLP-1 mimetic)

45
Q

2 adverse effects of orlistat?

A
  • faecal urgency/incontinence
  • flatulence
46
Q

Criteria for use of orlistat in obesity?

A

1) BMI ≥28 or more with associated risk factors

2) BMI ≥30

3) continued weight loss e.g. 5% at 3 months

47
Q

Criteria for use of liraglutide in obesity?

A

BMI ≥35

48
Q

1st line surgical intervention in patients with BMI 30-39?

A

laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB)

49
Q

What can you give if metformin is contraindicated:

a) if risk of CVD/HF
b) if no risk of CVD/HF

A

a) SGLT-2 inhibitor

b) DPP-4 inhibitor or Pioglitazone or Sulfonylurea (SGLT-2 may be used if certain NICE criteria met)

50
Q

Define impaired fasting glucose

A

6.1-6.9

51
Q

When should you consider the addition of metformin to T1D management?

A

Patients with T1D and BMI >25

52
Q

In type 1 diabetics, what are the blood glucose targets:

a) on waking
b) before meals at other times of the day

A

a) 5-7
b) 4-7

53
Q

At what eGFR is metformin contraindicated?

A

<30

54
Q

How often should patients with diabetes be screened for diabetic foot disease?

A

Annually

55
Q

What is involved in diabetic foot disease screening?

A

1) Ischaemia –> palpation of dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulse

2) Neuropathy –> 10g monofilament

56
Q

Cause of growth retardation in Cushing’s in children?

A

Cortisol mediated suppression of GH

57
Q

What is an ACTH independent cause of Cushing’s?

A

Adrenal adenoma

58
Q

Metabolic disturbance seen in Cushing’s?

A

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

59
Q

What cells produce PTH?

A

Chief cells of the parathyroid glands

60
Q

What is the most common cause of 1ary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Solitary parathyroid adenoma

61
Q

Inheritance of familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH)?

A

Autosomal dominant

62
Q

What test can be used to differentiate between hyperparathyroidism & FHH?

A

24h urinary calcium:

1) FHH results in a hypocalciuria

2) 1ary hyperparathyroidism results in high or normal urinary calcium

63
Q

If surgery is not possible, what are some mx options for symptomatic hypercalcaemia in 1ary hyperparathyroidism?

A

1) calcitonin (secreted by thyroid gland)

2) cinacalcet

3) bisphosphonates

64
Q

What are some procedure specific complications that can arise following a parathyroidectomy? (2)

A

1) damage to recurrent laryngeal nerves

2) post-op hypocalcaemia (removal of too much)

65
Q

What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?

A

Damage or removal of the parathyroid glands during neck surgery, especially thyroidectomy.

66
Q

What genetic disorder can result in hypoparathyroidism?

A

DiGeorge syndrome

67
Q

1st line investigation in phaeochromocytoma?

A

Urinary metanephrines (24h collection)

68
Q

Mx of phaeochromocytoma?

A

Surgery is the definitive management. The patient must first however be stabilised with medical management:

a) alpha-blocker (e.g. phenoxybenzamine), given before a
b) beta-blocker (e.g. propranolol)

69
Q

What class of medication is cinacalcet?

A

A calcimimetic

70
Q

Role of calcimimetics?

A

These drugs mimic the action of calcium on tissue by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptors

71
Q

1st line mx of prolactinomas, even if there are significant neurological complications?

A

Dopamine agonists (e.g. cabergoline)

72
Q

Mx of hHypoglycaemia with impaired GCS?

A

Give IV glucose if there is access

73
Q

What is the single best blood test to assess response to levothyroxine?

A

TSH

74
Q

When is a gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids indicate?

A

a) received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week

b) received more than 3 weeks of treatment

c) recently received repeated courses

75
Q
A

Yr 5 - Endocrine & Metabolic (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions