Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Yr 5 - Respiratory > Corrections > Flashcards

Corrections Flashcards

1
Q

Movement of water seal in a correctly placed chest drain?

A

Water seal rises on inspiration and falls on expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What HR is seen in severe asthma?

A

> 110 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mx of atelectasis?

A

Chest physiotherapy with mobilisation & breathing exercises.

This ensures that the airways are opened maximally and coughing can be performed effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is myasthenic crisis?

A

An acute respiratory failure characterised by:

1) FVC <1L
2) Negative inspiratory force ≤20cm H20
3) The need for ventilatory support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most appropriate test to monitor respiratory function in a myasthenic crisis?

A

FVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What HR indicates severe asthma?

A

> 110 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When should all cases of pneumonia have a repeat CXR?

A

6 weeks after clinical resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the treatment of choice for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)?

A

Oral steroids e.g. prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Prognosis of sarcoidosis?

A

Most people get better without treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is LTOT indicated in COPD?

A

LTOT if 2 measurements of pO2 <7.3 kPa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is next step if needle aspiration of a pneumothorax is unsuccessful?

A

Chest drain insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What RR indicates severe asthma?

A

> 25/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can large bullae in COPD mimic?

A

A pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What aspirate indicates that an NG tube is safe to use?

A

<5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Features of sarcoidosis?

A
  • acute: erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever, polyarthralgia
  • insidious: dyspnoea, non-productive cough, malaise, weight loss
  • ocular: uveitis
  • skin: lupus pernio
  • hypercalcaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cause of hypercalcaemia in sarcoidosis?

A

Macrophages inside the granulomas cause an increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FEV1/FVC in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What variation in FEV1 over time indicates steroid responsiveness in COPD?

A

At least 400ml (substantial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pneumothorax & deep sea diving?

A

It is recommended that patients who have had a pneumothorax avoid deep-sea diving indefinitely as it increases the risk of recurrence due to change in atmospheric pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Does asbestosis cause upper or lower zone fibrosis?

A

Lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Do drugs e.g. methotrexate/amiodarone cause upper or lower zone fibrosis?

A

Lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When managing patients with COPD, once the pCO2 is known to be normal, what should the target oxygen saturations be?

A

94-98%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1st line mx of infective exacerbation of COPD?

A

amoxicillin, clarithromycin or doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What picture does asbestosis given on pulmonary function testing?

A

Restrictive

FEV1 reduced, FEV1/FVC increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What standby medication can be offered in COPD?

A

Short course of oral steroids and oral abx to keep at home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What level of asthma attack do O2 sats of <92% indicate?

A

Life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What level of asthma attack does a HR >110bpm indicate?

A

Severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What level of asthma attack does a RR >25bpm indicate?

A

Severe

29
Q

Features of Kartagener’s syndrome?

A

1) dextrocardia or complete situs inversus

2) bronchiectasis

3) recurrent sinusitis

4) subfertility

30
Q

What is the most common cause of occupational asthma?

A

Isocyanates (found in factories producing spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives).

31
Q

When can patients with CAP presenting to primary care be managed in the community with oral abx?

A

If CRB-65 is 0

32
Q

What is extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

AKA hypersensitivity pneumonitis

Caused by hypersensitivity induced lung damage due to a variety of inhaled organic particles.

E.g. bird fanciers’ lung: avian proteins from bird droppings

33
Q

Features of extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

acute (occurs 4-8 hrs after exposure):
- dyspnoea
- dry cough
- fever

chronic (occurs weeks-months after exposure)
- lethargy
- dyspnoea
- productive cough
- anorexia and weight loss

34
Q

Is eosinophilia seen on bloods in extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

NO

35
Q

mx of extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A
  • avoid precipitating factors
  • oral steroids
36
Q

Which medication used in smoking cessation lowers the seizure threshold?

A

Bupropion

37
Q

What are 2 medications used in smoking cessation?

A

1) Varenicline

2) Bupropion

38
Q

What is the most common side effect of varenicline?

A

Nausea

39
Q

Contraindications of varenicline?

A
  • pregnancy & breastfeeding
  • caution in history of depression/self harm
40
Q

Contraindications of bupropion?

A
  • epilepsy, pregnancy & breastfeeding
  • eating disorder (relative contraindication)
41
Q

What are the indications for steroid treatment in sarcoidosis?

A

1) parenchymal lung disease

2) uveitis

3) hypercalcaemia

4) neurological or cardiac involvement

Patients with asymptomatic and stable stage 2 or 3 disease who have only mildly abnormal lung function do NOT require treatment.

42
Q

In bacterial infections, does the WCC or CRP return to normal first?

A

White cells back into normal ranges faster than the CRP as the CRP response ‘lags.’

43
Q

Indications for prophylactic abx in COPD?

A

1) The patient no longer smokes.

2) Has optimised non-pharmacological management & inhaled therapies.

3) Referred to pulmonary rehab (if appropriate).

4) Had 4 acute exacerbations in the last year (producing sputum), requiring hospital admission at least once.

44
Q

At what O2 sats is an ABG required?

A

≤92%

45
Q

The CURB-65 score is often used to choose Abx therapy.

What Abx is indicated in patients with the following CURB-65 scores:

a) 0-1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4-5

A

a) oral amoxicillin or doxycycline

b) amoxicillin + clarithromycin (oral or IV)

c) co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin (IV)

d) co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin (IV)

46
Q

When is a PE classed as ‘provoked’?

A

If it occurs WITHIN 3 months of a transient risk factor e.g. surgery

47
Q

what is d-dimer?

A

fibrin degradation product

48
Q

How is assessment for LTOT done?

A

Measuring ABG on 2 occasions at least 3 weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal mx.

49
Q

What is hypogammaglobulinaemia?

A

Hypogammaglobulinemia is a disorder caused by low serum immunoglobulin or antibody levels –> presents with long-lasting or frequent infections.

50
Q

Mx of necrotising fasciitis?

A

Surgical debridement + IV abx

51
Q

What is a common complication of PCP?

A

Pneumothorax

52
Q

Who should azithromycin as Abx prophylaxis be considered for in COPD patients?

A

> 3 exacerbations requiring steroid therapy AND at least 1 exacerbation requiring hospital admission in the previous year.

53
Q

What should ALL patients with pneumonia who have COPD be given?

A

Corticosteroids (even if no evidence of COPD being exacerbated)

54
Q

Define a substantial diurnal variation in peak flow

A

≥20%

55
Q

What are some asthmatic features/features suggesting steroid responsiveness in COPD?

A

1) previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy

2) higher blood eosinophil count

3) substantial variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400ml)

4) substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)

56
Q

Mneumonic for upper zone fibrosis: CHARTS

A

C - coal workers’ pneumoconiosis
H - histiocytosis
A - ankylosing spondylitis
R - radiation
T - TB
S - sarcoidosis/silicosis

57
Q

Haematocrit conc in COPD?

A

Increased haematocrit conc –> polycythaemia

58
Q

What type of lung cancer are cavitating lesions more common in?

A

Squamous cell

59
Q

what is the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?

A

A measurement that reflects the compliance of the left side of the heart and is used to assess left ventricular filling pressures.

60
Q

When can ARDS only be diagnosed?

A

In the absence of a cardiac cause for pulmonary oedema (i.e. the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure must not be raised).

If pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is raised –> cardiogenic pulmonary oedema.

61
Q

How can obesity affect lung function tests?

A

Severe obesity may cause restrictive lung function test results

62
Q

Antibodies in granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A

cANCA positive

63
Q

Can sarcoidosis cause enlargement of the parotid glands?

A

Yes - Mikulicz syndrome

64
Q

When are abx offered in the mx of acute bronchitis?

A

1) systemically very unwell

2) have pre-existing co-morbidities

3) have a CRP of 20-100mg/L (offer delayed prescription) or a CRP >100mg/L (offer antibiotics immediately)

65
Q

Which side of the lung is aspiration pneumonia more common on?

A

R side of lung (the R bronchus is more straight and vertically orientated)

66
Q

Prior to the availability of blood gases, which venturi mask should be used in COPD patients who are known retainers?

A

28% venturi mask 4L/min

67
Q

Which TB drug can cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

Isoniazid (due to B6 deficiency)

68
Q
A

Yr 5 - Respiratory (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions