Corps - Fundamental Changes & Director Liability Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

In order to undertake a fundamental corporate change, a corp must

A

(1) board action adopting a resolution of fundamental change
(2) board submits the proposal to shareholders for written notice
(3) shareholder approval: majority of the shares ENTITLED to vote
(4) in most cases, deliver document to Sec. State

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Shareholder approval of a fundamental corporate change requires a ______ of shares ______ to vote.

A

majority; entitled.**States are moving in the direction of allowing majority of shares that actually vote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The “right of appraisal” for fundamental corporate change allows a shareholder to

A

force the corp to buy the shareholder’s stock at FMV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A shareholder will have the “right of appraisal” if the corporation is

A

(1) merging or consolidating
(2) transferring substantially all assets not in the ordinary course of business
(3) transferring its stock in a share exchange
(4) the company is not listed on a national exchange and has less than 2,000 shareholders**I.e. it must be a CLOSE corporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In order to perfect a right of appraisal, the shareholder must

A

(1) written notice to corporation(2)(3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Amending the corp’s articles _____ a fundamental corporate change but there is no

A

is; right of appraisal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A merger or consolidation ______ a fundamental corporate change and there is ________.

A

is; right of appraisal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If 90% of more of a subsidiary is being merged into a parent corp, this is called a _______ and shareholder approval _________.

A

short-form merger; is not required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The two types of security investments are

A

(1) debt securities (e.g. bonds, call them creditors)

2) equity securities (e.g. stocks, call them owners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Rule 10b-5 prohibits ____ or ______ in connection with the purchase or sale of a ______.

A

fraud; misrepresentation; security (debt or equity).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The elements of a 10b-5 case are

A

(1) instrumentality of interstate commerce (mail, phone, trade on national exchange)
(2) misrepresentation, insider trading, or tipping
(3) materiality
(4) scienter
(5) reliancePlaintiffs: SEC or a buyer or seller of securities who was defrauded (contemporaneous trader)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

“Insider trading” and “tipping” involve…

A

(1) insider trading for those who’s job gives them access to confidential info: someone with a relationship of trust and confidence with the shareholders.
(2) tipping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TIPPER is liable if

A

(1) the TIPPER passed along material inside information
(2) in breach of a duty to the corp and
(3) the TIPPER benefits (making a gift or enhancing reputation is enough)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A TIPPEE is liable if

A

(1) TIPPEE trades on the tip and
(2) TIPPEE knew or should have known that the information was improperly passed

**Merely overhearing a convo is not enough to give rise to tippee liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The section 16(b) “short-swing” trading rule imposes ______ liability for speculation by ____________.

A

strict; directors, officers, and 10% shareholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Section 16(b) applies only to reporting corporations, which means

A

(1) listed on a national exchange, or

(2) at least 500 shareholders and $10 million in assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

______ and _____ are covered by Section 16(b) either when they _____ OR _____,

A

Directors and officers; buy; sell.

E.g., director can buy, lose status as director, then sell, but still liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

10% shareholders are covered only when they _____ AND _____ while holding that status.

A

buy AND sell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Section 16(b) liability attaches to buying and selling stock within a single ______ period.

A

six-month.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A section 16(b) violator owes the corporation the difference between the _____ price and the _______ price times the largest number of shares common to both the

A

sale;
purchase;
purchase and sale within the six-month period.

**This applies regardless of the order of buying/selling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A director owes the corporation a duty of care, meaning she must

A

act in good faith and do what a prudent person would do with regard to her own business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A director who has breached of the duty of care is still only liable if her breach caused

A

a loss to the corporation (must show causation and not just breach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Even if a D caused a loss to the corporation, they are not liable if their actions meet the

A

business judgment rule, i.e. decision was made in good faith, was informed, and had a rational basis.

24
Q

The business judgement rule provides that a court

A

will not second-guess a business decision that was made in good faith, was informed, and had a rational basis. (D is not a guarantor of success)

25
Q

To prove a breach of the duty of loyalty, the burden is on the

A

plaintiff to show the conflict of interest. Once that is shown, the burden shifts to the defendant to show fairness and/or disinterested director/shareholder approval

26
Q

A D owes the corporation a duty of loyalty, which means she must

A

act in good faith and with a reasonable belief that what she does is in the corporation’s best interest

27
Q

BJR does NOT apply in duty of loyalty cases when there is an alleged

A

conflict of interest

28
Q

An interested director transaction will be set aside (or D liable in damages) UNLESS the director shows either

A
  1. the deal was fair to the corporation when entered
  2. her interest and the relevant facts were disclosed or known and deal was approved by either majority of disinterested Ds or majority of disinterested shares
    (although always also note that some courts also require a showing of fairness regardless of whether there was majority disinterested approval)
29
Q

A director cannot compete directly with her corporation becuase

A
  1. it violates her duty of loyalty, and

2. she’s a fiduciary(remedy is constructive trust on profits)

30
Q

A director cannot usurp a corporate opportunity, meaning he cannot take it until he

A
  1. tells the board about it, and
  2. waits for the board to reject the opportunity (although if they reject it just for financial reasons that’s generally not a defense)
31
Q

The board can vote to lend money to a director as long as

A

it’s reasonably expected to benefit the corporation

32
Q

A director is presumed to concur with board action unless

A

her dissent or abstention is noted in writing in corporate records

33
Q

If a D voted for a resolution at the meeting, she cannot later

A

dissent

34
Q

An absent D (is/isn’t) liable for things done at the meeting she missed

A

is NOT

35
Q

Officers owe the same duties of _____ and ______ as Ds

A

care and loyalty

36
Q

Officers are selected, removed, and their compensation set by ____________

A

the board of directors

37
Q

Shareholders (do/don’t) hire and fire officers

A

DON’T. They only hire and fire Ds, who then hire and fire Os.

38
Q

A corporation is barred from indemnifying a D or O if they were

A

(1) held liable to the corporation
(2) received an improper personal benefit
(3) approved unlawful distributions
(4) intentionally committed a crime
(5) intentionally inflicted harm on the corporation or its shareholders

39
Q

A corporation MUST indemnify a D or O who is

A

successful in defending, whether on the merits or otherwise (i.e. wins a judgment)

40
Q

A corporation may, but does not have to, indemnify a D or O who

A

falls somewhere in between the other two situations (i.e. not liable to corp but not totally successful either). Good example is if the case against her settled. D or O must show she acted in good faith and with reasonable belief that her actions were in the company’s best interest (i.e. duty of loyalty)

41
Q

The articles can eliminate D (and sometimes O) liability to the corporation for damages in this type of case

A

duty of care

42
Q

Shareholders can manage the corporation directly only in a

A

close corporation (by just eliminating the board)

43
Q

A close corporation is one in which there are

A

few shareholders and the stock is not publicly traded

44
Q

If the shareholders in a close corporation want to eliminate the board they must

A
  1. write it in the articles and have it approved by ALL SHs, or
  2. unanimous written SH agreement
45
Q

If the SHs in a close corporation eliminate the board and run the company directly, the _________ owes duties of care and loyalty to the corp

A

those who manage it

46
Q

In a closed corporation, SHs must treat each other with

A

utmost good faith (theory is that it’s like a partnership’s fiduciary duties)

47
Q

If a minority SH in a close corp is being oppressed, they can

A

sue the controlling SHs who oppress them for breach of their fiduciary duty

48
Q

A professional corporation is one whose articles state that it is ________ and whose name must include _______

A

formed to practice a particular profession; P.C. or P.A.

49
Q

In a professional corporation, Ds, Os, and SHs must all be

A

licensed professionals; they are personally liable for their malpractice but not others

50
Q

A SH might be personally liable for corporation’s action (PCV) only if

A
  1. it’s a close corp
  2. they must have abused their privilege of incorporating, and
  3. Fairness must require holding them accountable
51
Q

The general rule is that SHs are not liable for corp obligations, but a SH can be personally liable if

A

the corporation was undercapitalized when formed (and it meets the other requirements)

52
Q

Courts are more willing to pierce the corporate veil for a _______ victim than a _______ claimant

A

tort; contract (contractor beware; they voluntarily chose to do business with that party and could have inspected or been more cautious; a tort victim didn’t intend to be a tort victim!)

53
Q

A derivative suit is a case in which

A

a shareholder sues to enforce the corporation’s claim, not her own personal claim(key question: could the corp have brought this suit?)

54
Q

If the SH plaintiff wins a derivative suit, the judgment goes to

A

the corporation; she can recover costs and attorneys’ fees

55
Q

To bring a SH derivative suit, a plaintiff must fulfill these

A
  1. stock ownership when the claim arose and throughout the suit
  2. adequate representation of the corporation’s interest
  3. written demand on a corporation that they bring the suit (unless it would be futile, for example if Ds will be defendants in the case)
  4. corporation must be joined as a defendant
56
Q

Parties can settle a derivative suit only if there is

A

court approval

57
Q

A corporation’s articles of incorporation ______ limit or eliminate director’s personal liability for money damages to the shareholders or the corporation.

A

may