Corporations Flashcards

1
Q

When is a promoter of a corporation liable?

A

A promoter is personally liable on pre-incorporation contracts.

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2
Q

When is a corporation liable on pre-incorporation contracts?

A

A corporation is not liable on a promoter’s pre-incorporation contract unless it (1) adopts or (2) ratifies the contract.

adoption = board resolution

ratification = aware of contract and accepts benefits

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3
Q

Novation

A

a new contract for which the promoter, the corporation, and the other party agree the corporation will replace the promoter

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4
Q

What needs to be in the name in the charter of a corporation?

A

The name must include “corporation” or equivalent designation (“Inc.” is the most common)

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5
Q

under the MBCA, is par value required in the charter?

A

No

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6
Q

How should a corporation draft its purpose statement?

A

Include a broad purpose clause (unless you have a really good reason not to).

ultra vires acts (beyond the powers) are problematic.
- state can enjoin
- Corporate losses can be recouped from the directors and officers

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7
Q

What must be included in the articles?

A

A PAIN

(1) Authorized shares
(2) Purpose

(3) Agent – name and address of registered agent

(4) Incorporator

(5) Name of corporation (with corporation/equivalent designation “Inc.”)

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8
Q

What is defective incorporation?

A

When a corporation is not property formed. Anyone signing contracts on behalf of a non-existent corporation is liable

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9
Q

two defenses tp defective incorporation

A

De facto corporation and corporation by estoppel

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10
Q

De facto corporation

A

(1) The parties made a good-faith attempt to incorporate as statutorily required, and

(2) the entity has been conducting itself as a corporation.

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11
Q

Corporation by estoppel

A

A third party is “estopped” from claiming there wasn’t a corporation, where they dealt with it as a properly formed corporation.

It typically applies where the third-party is trying to escape an obligation.

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12
Q

De Jure corporation

A

a corporation that has fulfilled its statutory responsibilities

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13
Q

debt vs equity financing

A

(1) Ownership dilution

(2) Leverage

(3) Repayment obligations

(4) Priority (loans get repaid before equity)

(5) Taxation (interest is tax deductible, distributions are not)

(6) Restrictions on operations (debt often imposes more contractual limits than preferred stock)

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14
Q

What requires shareholder vote?

A
  1. Election and removal of directors
    1. Amendments to the corporation’s charter;
    2. Shareholder (as opposed to board) initiated amendments to the corporation’s bylaws
    3. Dissolution of the corporation
    4. A merger of the corporation
  2. A sale of all (or substantially all) of the corporation’s assets.
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15
Q

Valid proxy must

A
  • (1) be in writing,
    • (2) signed by the shareholder,
    • (3) sent to the corporation’s secretary, and
      (4) state it authorizes another to vote the shares.
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16
Q

Director notice for board meetings

A

No notice required for regular meetings

2 days for special

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17
Q

default voting requirements

A

Shareholders: more for than against

Directors: majority of those present

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18
Q

Who makes the bylaws?

A

incorporators or board of directors

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19
Q

What is the business judgment rule?

A

a presumption that in making a business decision the directors of a corporation acted (i) on an informed basis, (ii) in good faith and (iii) in honest belief it’s in the best interests of the company

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20
Q

rebutting the business judgment rule

A

Plead and prove
(1) One of
(a) Bad faith (e.g., fraud, illegality);
(b) Breach of loyalty (conflict of interest, self-dealing); OR
(c) Breach of duty of care (gross negligence standard, usually for directors not being properly informed)

(2) the corporation or its shareholders were harmed, and

(3) the director’s conduct proximately caused the harm.

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21
Q

duty of care

A

care a person in a like position would reasonably believe appropriate given the circumstances

requires board and officers be “adequately informed”

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22
Q

Reliance defense

A

Directors are entitled to rely on the information and advice of corporate officers, outside experts, and other directors in making a board decision.

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23
Q

exculpation provision

A

A corporation can include in its charter a provision eliminating a director’s personal liability for money damages for breach of the duty of care

does NOT preclude injunctive relief

MAY NOT eliminate duty of loyalty

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24
Q

When does entire fairness come up under the MBCA?

A

Conflicting interest transactions

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25
Q

entire fairness

A

must show
(1) fair dealing, and
(2) fair price

26
Q

Duty of loyalty

A

A director must act (1) in good faith and (2) with a reasonable belief that what the director does is in the corporation’s best interest

27
Q

Conflcting interest transaction

A

(1) The director is a party to it;

(2) The director had knowledge and a material financial interest in it; OR

(3) The director knew that a related person was a party or had a financial interest in it.

28
Q

Director breach of the duty of good faith

A

Actual intent to do harm; or

Intentional dereliction of duty

29
Q

Duty to monitor/oversight

A

considered a breach of the duty of loyalty NOT the duty of care

(1) The directors utterly failed to implement an oversight system; or

(2) The directors ignored red flags and consciously failed to monitor operations.

very high bars

30
Q

Usurping a corporate opportunity

A

A director or officer cannot usurp a corporate opportunity for his or her own benefit.
(1) in the corporation’s line of business, and
(2) the corporation is able to financially exploit it

31
Q

Defense to usurping a corporate opportunity

A

a director or officer must have

(1) disclosed the conflict and presented the opportunity to the corporation, and

(2) a majority of disinterested directors or shareholders must have rejected the opportunity.

32
Q

3 requirements for shareholder derivative suit

A

(1) The shareholder has standing (owns shares throughout the lawsuit)

(2) The shareholder adequately represents the interests of the corporation (large shareholder); and

(3) The shareholder files a written demand on the board and waits 90 days before filing a suit UNLESS irreparable injury to the corporation would result.

33
Q

Common causes for direct suits

A

Denied right to vote (not having an annual meeting for example)

Failure to pay dividends (so long as there was some failure that resulted in the non-payment)

34
Q

Controlling shareholders also owe fiduciary duties to the company and shareholders. What is a controlling shareholder?

A

(A) Majority stock ownership; or

(B) Significant minority ownership plus control over a corporation’s actions

35
Q

Mandatory indemnification

A

a corporation must indemnify a director or officer if the person wholly wins the suit on the merits. (not settlement)

36
Q

A corporation may indemnify if

A

(1) The person acted in good faith,

(2) The person reasonably believed their conduct was in the best interests of the corporation, and

(3) In a criminal case, the person had no reasonable cause to believe their conduct was unlawful.

37
Q

Permissive indemnification for direct vs derivative suits

A

Direct suits: A corporation can pay expenses (attorneys’ fees) and settlements.

Derivative suits: A corporation can pay only expenses, not settlements. (But—D&O insurance can help here!)

38
Q

Side A, D and O insurance

A

provides directors and officers with insurance protection when indemnification from corporation is not available

39
Q

Side B, D and O insurance

A

reimburses a corporation for amounts it pays fulfilling its indemnification obligations.

40
Q

A board may not make a distribution if

A

(1) the corporation would not be able to pay its debts as they come due; or

(2) the corporation’s (i) assets are lower than its (ii) liabilities plus liquidation preference for preferred shareholders.

41
Q

Qualified Small Business Stock

A

Stock must be (1) issued by a C Corporation with gross assets under $50 million; and (2) held for a minimum of 5 years.

provides a capital gains exclusion: Up to 100% exclusion of capital gains on the greater of $10 million or 10x the adjusted basis of the investment

42
Q

Transfer restrictions

A

Transfer restrictions can be in a charter, bylaws, or an agreement among the shareholders

may not be “manifestly unreasonable”

43
Q

Under § 5 of the Securities Act of 1933, it’s unlawful to

A

sell a security (such as shares) unless the sale is (1) registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) or (2) exempt from registration.

44
Q

Preemptive rights

A

Preemptive rights give an existing shareholder the right to buy a proportionate part of to-be-issued shares before they are issued to other persons

  • not default but can be added in charter
  • may also be accomplished through contracted right of first refusal
45
Q

Requirement for basic and expanded inspection rights

A

Written notice is required for both basic and expanded inspection rights.

For expanded rights, the shareholder must make the demand (1) in good faith and (2) for a proper purpose.

The notice must include the purpose and records requested.

46
Q

When can a shareholder petition the court for judicial dissolution?

A

(1) The directors are deadlocked, preventing the business from functioning.

(2) The shareholders are deadlocked, preventing director elections.

(3) Those in control of the corporation are acting illegally, oppressively, or fraudulently

(4) Corporate assets are being misapplied or wasted.

47
Q

Heightened fiduciary duty, similar to that of loyalty for partners

A

shareholders in a close corporation owe to each other the duty of utmost good faith and loyalty.

48
Q

Can you sell your shares in a close corporation?

A

No

49
Q

Company is required to register securities with the SEC if

A
  1. The securities are listed on a national securities exchange (e.g., NYSE or NASDAQ);
    1. The company has $10 million or more in total assets and a class of equity securities held of record by (a) 2,000 or more persons, or (b) 500 or more persons who are not accredited investors; or
  2. The company has filed a registration statement under the Securities Act that became effective.
50
Q

The anti fraud provision, section 10(b)

A

makes it unlawful to “use or employ, in connection with the purchase or sale of any security” a “manipulative or deceptive device or contrivance in contravention of such rules

51
Q

Elements for a 10(b) action

A
  1. Material misrepresentation. The defendant misrepresented a material fact or omitted a material fact.
  2. Scienter. Defendant acted knowingly or with reckless disregard for the truth or falsity. [Hard to prove!]
  3. Reliance. The plaintiff relied on the misrepresentation in buying or selling stock.
  4. Causation. The misrepresentation proximately caused the plaintiff’s losses.
    Damages. The plaintiff suffered damages.
52
Q

Classical theory of insider trading

A

(1) corporate insiders are prohibited from trading securities

(2) based on material nonpublic information

(3) in violation of their fiduciary duties

53
Q

Misappropriation theory

A

obtained through a breach of a fiduciary duty owed to the source of the information.

54
Q

Misappropriation theory duties of trust or confidence

A
  1. Person agrees to maintain confidence
  2. Parties have “history, pattern, or practice of sharing confidences,” or
  3. Information is received from a spouse, parent, child, or sibling
55
Q

Tender offers

A

Rule 14e-3 prohibits any person who possesses material non-public information relating to a tender offer from trading in the securities of the companies involved

56
Q

Tipper liability

A

(1) intentionally or recklessly communicated,

(2) material, nonpublic information,

(3) in breach of
(i) a fiduciary duty [classic theory] or
(ii) confidentiality owed to the source of the information [misapprop theory],

(4) for a personal benefit to the tipper.

57
Q

Tippee liability

A

(1) the tipper breached a duty by tipping;

(2) the tippee knew or had reason to know the material nonpublic information was obtained through the tipper’s breach; and

(3) the tippee used the information by trading or tipping for the tippee’s own benefit

58
Q

Who needs to approve mergers

A

the target’s board and shareholders

Board: majority vote

Shareholders: Under MBCA, at a properly notice meeting with a quorum, more votes for than against. (Under Del., need majority approval.)

59
Q

When do bidder shareholders vote on a merger?

A

Bidder shareholders generally do NOT vote on the acquisition, unless the bidder will be issuing shares > 20% of its outstanding voting power

60
Q

Appraisal rights

A

Under the MBCA, a merger, share exchange, or sale of substantially all the corporation’s assets triggers appraisal rights for target shareholders who dissent from the transaction.

Consequence: A dissenting shareholder is entitled to have the corporation buy their shares for cash for fair value, as determined by a court.