Corporations Flashcards

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1
Q

A corporation’s existence begins on the date the Articles of Incorporation are properly filed.
What must the Articles contain?

A

They must contain:
1) The corporate name;
2) The number of shares the corporation is authorized to
issue;
3) The address of the corporation’s initial registered office
and the name of its initial registered agent; AND
4) The name and address of each incorporation.

Priority: Medium

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2
Q

What are Bylaws, and what may they contain?

A

The bylaws are the rules and regulations adopted by the Board of Directors that govern the internal operations and management of a corporation, including the role and duties of
directors and officers.
They may contain any provision that is NOT inconsistent with:
a) The Articles of Incorporation; OR
b) The laws of the jurisdiction.

Priority: Medium

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3
Q

When may the Board of Directors NOT amend or repeal the bylaws?

A

When:
a) The Articles of Incorporation exclusively reserve the
power to the shareholders; OR
b) The shareholders, in amending/adopting/repealing a
bylaw, expressly provide that the Board of Directors
cannot/amend/repeal/reinstate that bylaw.

Priority: Low

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4
Q

What does the Operating Agreement of an LLC govern?

A

1) The relations between the members and the LLC;
2) The rights and duties of the managers;
3) The activities and affairs of the company; AND
4) Any means and conditions for amending the Operating
Agreement.
*Under RULLCA, an LLC is presumed to be member-managed
UNLESS the operating agreement provides otherwise.

Priority: Low

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5
Q

What is a promoter, and when is he personally liable for his conduct?

A

A person who acts on behalf of a corporation that has not yet
been formed.
He will be held personally liable when:
1) He purports to act as or on behalf of the corporation;
2) Knowing that no corporation was formed.
*A promoter remains personally liable for pre-incorporation contracts
EVEN IF the corporation adopts the contract (both the corporation
and promoter are liable) – UNLESS there is a ovation.

Priority: Medium

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6
Q

When will a promoter NOT be held liable for his conduct?

A

If:
a) There is a subsequent novation; OR
b) The contract explicitly provides that the promoter has
no personal liability on the contract.

Priority: Medium

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7
Q

When is a corporation liable on pre-incorporation contracts entered into by a promoter?

A

When the corporation expressly or impliedly adopts the contract
post-incorporation.
Implied adoption occurs when the corporation:
1) Has reason to know or knows the material terms of the
contract; AND
2) Accepts some benefit from the contract.

Priority: Medium

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8
Q

If corporate formation is defective, the owners maybe personally liable for contracts / obligations.
What doctrines limit their personal liability?

A

RMBCA: Only held personally liable when (1) purports to act as or
on behalf of the corporation; AND (2) knowing that no corporation
was formed.
*A good faith belief that corp. was formed WILL NOT subject a
person to liability.
De Facto Corporation: Owners enjoy limited liability when (1)
good faith attempt to incorporate; (2) business was eligible to
incorporate; AND (3) took action that it considered itself a corp.
Incorporation by Estoppel: Person or entity that treated business as
a corp. is estopped from denying that business is a corp.

Priority: Low

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9
Q

A court will pierce the corporate veil, and hold the shareholders personally liable in what situations?

A

1) The corporation is acting as the alter ego of the shareholders
(little or no separation between the shareholder and
corporation);
2) Where the shareholders failed to follow corporate formalities;
3) The corporation was inadequately capitalized at its inception
to cover debts/liabilities; OR
4) To prevent fraud.
*Even if a court doesn’t pierce the veil, a person is ALWAYS liable
for their own torts.

Priority: HIGH

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10
Q

Common Shares
vs.
Preferred Shares

A

Common Shares: provide shareholders with voting rights,
BUT they are last in priority to be entitled to a distribution of
company assets.

Preferred Shares: are entitled to company assets upon
dissolution before common shares, BUT they do not carry
voting rights.

Priority: Low

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11
Q

Authorized Shares
vs.
Outstanding Shares
vs.
Reacquired Shares

A

Authorized: the maximum number of shares a corporation may
issue (not allowed to issue more than authorized).

Outstanding: total number of shares issued by the corporation
and held by the shareholders (each share is entitled to one vote).

Reacquired: (treasury shares) authorized shares owned by the
corp. that are NOT outstanding shares – they are not allowed to
be voted at a shareholder meeting.

Priority: Medium

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12
Q

A shareholder DOES NOT have the right to compel
a corporation to issue a distribution, but how may a
court interfere with the board’s discretion?

A

They WILL interfere and order a distribution upon a showing
of:
1) Bad faith or dishonest purpose; AND
2) That funds were available for the dividend/distribution.

Priority: Medium

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13
Q

Who may vote at a shareholder meeting?

A

Only shareholders that are registered shareholders on the record
date are entitled to vote.
The record date cannot be more than 70 days prior to the
meeting. If not otherwise fixed, the record date is the day
before the first notice is delivered to the shareholders.

Priority: Medium

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14
Q

A shareholder may vote shares at a meeting without physically attending through use of a proxy.
What is required for a valid proxy?

A

It must be signed on:
a) An appointment form; OR
b) An electronic transmission.
(oral proxy is invalid)
A proxy must be accepted by the corp. if on its face there are no
reasonable grounds to deny its genuineness and authenticity.

Priority: HIGH

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15
Q

Are proxy agreements freely revocable by the shareholder?

A

YES, even if the proxy states that it is irrevocable.
One exception to this rule is a proxy coupled with an
interest or legal right, which is irrevocable if the proxy
expressly states as such.

Priority: HIGH

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16
Q

A special meeting requires proper notice to the shareholders entitled to vote.

What is proper notice, and how may it be waived?

A

Notice must:
1) Be given at least 10 days in advance of the meeting (but not more
than 60 days);
2)
3) Include a full description of the purpose of the meeting; AND
4) Include the date, time, and place.

Notice may be waived by:
a) Delivering a signed writing to the corporation; OR
b) Attending the meeting and not objecting at the beginning of the
meeting.

LOW

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17
Q

When does a quorum exist?

When is an action by the shareholders approved?

A

A quorum exists when a majority of the shares entitled to vote
are present. A quorum is required in order for the shareholders
to take action at a meeting.
Action on a matter is approved if a MAJORITY of votes are
cast in favor of it.

Priority: Medium

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18
Q

What is cumulative voting?

A

When:
Each shareholder has a number of votes that is equal to the
shares owned, multiplied by the number of director spots open
for election (i.e. 100 shares owned x 3 nominees = 300 votes).

Priority: Low

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19
Q

When may a shareholder inspect the corporation’s books and records?

A

When:
1) The inspection is made during regular business hours at
the corporation’s principal office;
2) He provides 5 days written notice;
3) The demand is made in good faith and for a proper
purpose;
4) He describes the purpose with particularity; AND
5) The records are directly connected with the purpose.

Priority: Medium

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20
Q

A director who is present at a meeting of directors when corporate action is taken is deemed to have assented to the action, unless what occurs?

A

a) A director objects at the beginning of the meeting to
holding or transacting business at the meeting;
b) The dissent or abstention from the action taken is entered
into the meeting minutes; OR
c) The director delivers written notice of his
dissent/abstention to the presiding officer before its
adjournment.
*The right of dissent or abstention is NOT available to a director who
votes in favor of the action taken.

Priority: Low

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21
Q

How may regular and special director meetings be held, and how may a director waive notice?

A

Regular meetings may be held without notice, whereas special
meetings require at least two days’ notice (date, time, and place
is required – but the purpose is not).
A director may waive notice in a signed writing or by attending
the meeting.

Priority: Medium

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22
Q

How may action be taken by the Board of Directors without a meeting?

A

If:
1) Each director signs a consent describing the action to be
taken; AND
2) Delivers it to the corporation.

*Consent may be withdrawn by a signed revocation.

Priority: Low

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23
Q

How may a director be removed by the shareholders?

A

Only at:
1) A meeting called for the purpose of removing the
director; AND
2) The meeting notice must state the purpose of the meeting
(to remove a director).

*RMBCA – with/without cause
*Common law – removal ONLY by cause.

Priority: Low

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24
Q

What is an officer’s actual or apparent authority?

A

Actual authority: to act consistently with their duties as
outlined by the bylaws OR as provided by the Board of
Directors.

Apparent authority: to bind the corporation when a third-party
reasonably believes the officer has authority to act on behalf of
the corporation AND that belief is traceable to the corporation’s
manifestations.

Priority: Medium

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25
Q

What does a President of a corporation have implied authority to do?

A

He has the implied authority to bind the corporation for matters
within its ordinary course of business (normal and necessary for
managing the business),
BUT does not have authority to bind the corporation for
extraordinary acts.

Priority: Medium

26
Q

How may an Officer be removed?

A

They may be removed at any time with or without cause by:
a) The Board of Directors;
b) The officer who appointed such officer, unless the
Bylaws or the Board of Directors provide otherwise; OR
c) Any other officer, if authorized by the Bylaws or Board
of Directors.
*An officer’s removal DOES NOT affect the officer’s contract rights
with the corporation.

Priority: Low

27
Q

What type of authority does a member/manager of an LLC have?

A

Express Actual Authority: to bind the LLC (upon receiving
said authority from the operating agreement).

Implied Actual Authority: to take actions that are reasonably
incidental or necessary to achieve their authorized duties.

Apparent Authority: to bind the LLC for all acts apparently
conducted within the ordinary course of business (an act normal
and necessary for managing the business).

Priority: Low

28
Q

What are preemptive rights?

A

The right of an existing shareholder to maintain her percentage
of ownership in the corporation by being offered the opportunity
to purchase shares of the corporation issued for cash before
outsiders are permitted to purchase them.

*Under RMBCA, shareholders DO NOT enjoy preemptive rights
unless granted in the Articles of Incorporation.

Priority: Low

29
Q

When do preemptive rights NOT apply?

A

a) Shares issued as compensation;
b) Shares issued to satisfy conversion or option rights
(created to provide compensation);
c) Shares authorized in the Articles of Incorporation that are
issued within 6 months of incorporation;
d) Shares issued for consideration other than money; OR
e) Shares issued without general voting rights, but with
preferential rights to distributions.

Priority: Low

30
Q

Under the RMBCA, when may the Articles of Incorporation, bylaws, and other agreements impose restrictions on the transfer of shares of a corporation?

A

For:
a) Any reasonable purpose;
b) To preserve exemptions under federal/state securities
laws; OR
c) To maintain the corporation’s status when it is dependent
on the number/identity of its shareholders.
*An absolute restraint on the transfer of shares is invalid.

Priority: Low

31
Q

Under the RMBCA, what restrictions on the transfer of shares are expressly allowed?

A

1) A right of first refusal;
2) The obligation of the corporation or other persons to
acquire shares;
3) To require the corporation or certain shareholders to
approve the transfer of shares (if not manifestly
unreasonable); and
4) To prohibit the transfer to designated persons or classes
of persons (if not manifestly unreasonable).

Priority: Low

32
Q

Directors owe a duty of care to the corporation.
How must they discharge this duty?

A

1) In good faith;
2) In a manner the director reasonably believes to be in
the best interests of the corporation; AND
3) With the care that a person in a like position would
reasonably believe appropriate under similar
circumstances.
*If this 3-part test is satisfied, then a director will NOT be liable for
corporate decisions that resulted in adverse consequences.

Priority: HIGH

33
Q

May a director rely on the reasonable advice of advisors?

A

Yes, when such reliance was reasonable and the advisor or
committee was qualified to provide such advice.

Priority: HIGH

34
Q

When does the Business Judgment Rule NOT apply to protect directors?

A

When directors:
a) Are financially interested in a transaction (conflict of
interest);
b) Are not acting in good faith; OR
c) Who engaged in fraud or illegality.
*If a director breaches his duty of care, he may be held personally
liable to the corporation for any losses suffered as a result.

Priority: HIGH

35
Q

What does the fiduciary duty of loyalty forbid a director from doing?

A

A director is forbidden from:
a) Entering into conflicting interest transactions;
b) Usurping a corporate opportunity;
c) Competing with the corporation; and
d) Trading on inside information.

Priority: HIGH

36
Q

When is a conflicting business transaction NOT a breach of the duty of loyalty?

A

If:
a) It was approved by a majority of disinterested directors
AND shareholders, after full disclosure of relevant
material facts; OR
b) The transaction as a whole was fair to the corporation at
the time it was entered into.

Priority: HIGH

37
Q

When does a director have a conflict of interest?

A

When the director or family member either:
a) Is a party to the transaction;
b) Has a beneficial interest in the transaction or is so closely
linked to it that the director’s judgment may be affected;
OR
c) Is involved with another entity that is conducting
business with the corporation and that transaction would
normally be brought before the board because of its
importance.

Priority: HIGH

38
Q

What is a Corporate Opportunity?

A

Any opportunity that:
a) The corp. has an interest / expectancy in; OR
b) Is in the corp.’s line of business.

Priority: Low

39
Q

When may a director/officer pursue a Corporate Opportunity?

A

If she:
1) First presents it to the corporation’s Board of
Directors; AND
2) The Board decides not to pursue the opportunity.
*It’s NOT a defense that the corp. was not financially able to take the
opportunity.

Priority: Low

40
Q

Under the RMBCA, when will the Articles of Incorporation NOT limit the personal liability of a director?

A

When:
a) Financial benefits are improperly received;
b) There is intentional infliction of harm on the corporation
or its shareholders;
c) There are unlawful corporate distributions; OR
d) An intentional violation of criminal law occurs.

*The Articles may provide for indemnification of a director for
personal liability except in the four instances above.

Priority: Low

41
Q

What Duty of Care does a member of a member-managed LLC owe to the company and its members?

A

The duty of care to act:
1) With the care that a person in a like position would
reasonably exercise under similar circumstances; AND
2) In a manner the member reasonably believes to be in the
best interests of the company.
*If a member meets the above, they CANNOT be held personally
liable under the Business Judgment Rule.

Priority: Medium

42
Q

What Duty of Loyalty does a member of a member-managed LLC owe to the company and its members?

A

The duty to:
1) Account for any property, profit, or benefit the member
derived from the LLC’s activities or property;
2) Refrain from dealing with the LLC when an adverse
interest to the LLC exists; and
3) Refrain from competing with the LLC before dissolution.

*After full disclosure of all material facts, all members may authorize
an act that would otherwise violate this duty.

Priority: Medium

43
Q

How are the duties of care and loyalty different in a manger-managed LLC?

A

1) The duties ONLY apply to managers and NOT the
members.
2) Only the members may authorize an act that would
otherwise violate the duty of loyalty; AND
3) A manager must refrain from competing with the LLC
until winding up is completed.

Priority: Medium

44
Q

Under RULLCA, what may the Operating Agreement dictate for fiduciary duties owed?

A

It may:
1) Restrict or eliminate the duty of loyalty;
2) Identify activities that do not violate the duty of loyalty;
3) Alter the duty of care;
4) Alter or eliminate any other fiduciary duty; AND
5) Prescribe the standards by which to measure the
performance of good faith and fair dealing.

Priority: Low

45
Q

What must a shareholder prove when bringing a direct action against a director or officer?

A

They must prove an actual injury that is NOT solely the
result of an injury suffered by the corporation.

*A direct action involves injury or breach of a duty owed to a
shareholder.

Priority: HIGH

46
Q

Under the RMBCA, what requirements must a plaintiff-shareholder meet to commence a derivative suit on behalf of a corporation?

A

He must:
1) Be a shareholder at the time of the act/omission OR
became a shareholder by operation of law from such a
shareholder;
2) Be a shareholder through entry of judgment;
3) Fairly and adequately represent the interests of the
corporation; AND
4) Make a written demand upon the corporation to take
suitable action.

Priority: HIGH

47
Q

How is bringing a derivative action on behalf of an LLC different than that of a corporation?

A

All elements are the same as those for a corporation EXCEPT:
1) The action may be brought within a reasonable time after
the demand; AND
2) The demand requirements may be waived if the demand
is deemed futile.

Priority: HIGH

48
Q

Under the RMBCA, when MUST a derivative action be dismissed by the court on motion by the corporation?

A

When:
1) A majority of the Board’s qualified Directors,
2) Have determined in good faith,
3) After conducting a reasonable inquiry, and
4) That the derivative proceeding is not in the best interests
of the corporation.

Priority: Low

49
Q

What must a plaintiff show to prevail for a Rule 10b-5 claim?

A

That the defendant:
1) Engaged in a fraudulent scheme or device which was;
2) Relied upon;
3) In connection with the purchase/sale of securities;
4) Acted with scienter;
5) Used some means of interstate commerce; AND
6) Caused damages.

Priority: Low

50
Q

Under the RMBCA, how may the Articles of Incorporation be amended?

A

Only if the following procedures are followed:
1) Adoption by the Board of Directors;
2) Notice to each shareholder stating the purpose is to vote
on the amendment (and a copy of the amendment is
provided); AND
3) Adoption by the shareholders by a majority vote.

*Exception: The BoD has authority to make minor amendments
without shareholder approval if the corp. has not issued shares yet.

Priority: Medium

51
Q

Under the RMBCA, what does approval for a Merger require?

A

1) Approval by the Board of Directors of both corporations;
AND
2) Shareholder approval of both corporations by a majority
vote.

*Shareholder approval by the surviving corporation is NOT required for a
merger if: (1) the Articles of Incorporation or number of outstanding shares
would not be changed; AND (2) the voting power of any shares issued is
20% or less of the voting power of the surviving corporation.

Priority: Low

52
Q

What is a Short Form Merger?

A

When a parent corporation owns at least 90% of a
subsidiary’s outstanding (voting) shares, then ONLY the
Board of Directors of the parent corporation must approve
the merger.

Priority: Low

53
Q

Under the RMBCA, what does approval for a Share Exchange require?

A

1) Approval by the Board of Directors of both corporations;
AND
2) Shareholder approval of the acquired corporation by a
majority vote.
*Shareholder approval is NOT required for the acquiring corporation.

Priority: Low

54
Q

Under the RMBCA, what procedures MUST be followed by a corporation to enact a fundamental change?

A

1) Adoption by the Board of Directors;
2) Notice to every shareholder of a meeting and the purpose
of the meeting; AND
3) Adoption by the shareholders by a majority vote.

Priority: Medium

55
Q

When is a dissenting shareholder entitled to appraisal rights (to obtain payment for the value of his shares)?

A

a) When he has the right to vote on a merger plan;
b) When is he is a shareholder of the subsidiary in a short
form merger or of a corporation whose shares are being
acquired in a share exchange;
c) When he has the right to vote on the distribution of all or
mostly all of the corporate assets; OR
d) When an amendment to the Articles of Incorp. materially
and adversely affects his rights.

Priority: Medium

56
Q

How may a shareholder (that DOES NOT consent to a fundamental change) force the corporation to purchase his shares?

A

If:
1) The shareholder gave notice to the corporation of his
intent to demand payment if the change was approved;
2) The notice was given before the vote was taken;
3) The fundamental change is effectuated; AND
4) The shareholder DID NOT vote in favor of the change.

Priority: Medium

57
Q

Under the RMBCA, when may a court dissolve a
corporation (upon petition by a shareholder)?

A

a) A deadlock of the Directors in the management of the
corporate affairs and irreparable injury to the corporation;
b) That the Directors have acted in a manner that is illegal,
oppressive, or fraudulent;
c) The shareholders are deadlocked in voting power and
have failed to elect Directors for a least 2 consecutive
annual meetings; OR
d) The corporate assets have been wasted or misapplied.

Priority: Low

58
Q

What procedure must be followed by the corporation for a proposal of Dissolution to be adopted?

A

1) Adoption by the Board of Directors;
2) Notice to each shareholder; AND
3) Adoption by the shareholders by a majority vote.

Priority: Medium

59
Q

When does a member become dissociated from an LLC?

A

a) Notice of the member’s express will to withdraw;
b) Occurrence of an agreed upon event in the operating
agreement;
c) Expulsion pursuant to the operating agreement;
d) Expulsion by the unanimous vote of the other members;
e) By judicial order for misconduct;
f) Bankruptcy, incapacity, or death;
g) Appointment of a personal representative/receiver; OR
h) Termination of the entity member.

Priority: Low

60
Q

Under RULLCA, what events trigger the dissolution of an LLC?

A

a) The occurrence of an event in the Operating agreement
causing dissolution;
b) The consent of all the members;
c) The passage of 90 consecutive days during which the
LLC has no members; OR
d) Judicial dissolution.

Priority: Medium

61
Q

A court may grant judicial dissolution of an LLC (upon an application by a member) on what grounds?

A

a) The managers/controlling members are acting in an
illegal or fraudulent manner OR a manner which is
oppressive and directly harmful to another member;
b) The conduct of all or mostly all of the LLC’s activities
are unlawful; OR
c) It’s not reasonably practicable to carry on the LLC’s
activities in conformance with the Operating agreement.

Priority: Medium

62
Q

Whom may a creditor’s claim be enforced against if proper dissolution and winding up procedures are NOT followed by an LLC?

A

1) The dissolved LLC; AND
2) The members personally if the assets of the company
have been distributed after dissolution (but that
member is liable only up to the amount of assets
received upon dissolution).

Priority: Medium