Corporate Governance Flashcards

1
Q

According to COSO, each of the following is an example of an appropriate ongoing monitoring activity, except

A.Follow-up of customer and vendor complaints regarding amounts due and owed. [19%]

B.Periodic analysis of variances between expectations and actual results. [7%]

C.Comparisons of information from various sources within the company. [10%]

D.Approval of high-dollar transactions by supervisors. [62%

A

Choice D (Correct) and Choices A, B, C (Incorrect): Ongoing monitoring activities are designed to enable an entity to determine whether controls are being followed and whether they are effective. Means of monitoring may include following up on customer complaints regarding amounts due and owed to see if they indicate noncompliance with company policies as to the delivery of goods, performance of services, or billing practices; analyzing variances between expectations and actual results to determine if the causes are indicative of noncompliance with company policies; and comparing information from various sources within the company to identify inconsistencies. Requiring approval for high-dollar transactions is a control activity to prevent unauthorized acquisitions. Monitoring would be helpful in determining if this policy is being appropriately followed.

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2
Q

The Dodd-Frank Act

A.Provides no meaningful protections or incentives for accountants to report accounting violations. [12%]

B.Provides for whistleblowers to benefit financially from successful SEC prosecutions. [79%]

C.Grants whistleblowers 50% of the proceeds from successful SEC prosecutions. [4%]

D.Requires the SEC to hire accountants who get fired for reporting accounting violations by their employers.

A

Choice B (Correct) and Choice A (Incorrect): Dodd-Frank provides monetary incentives for whistleblowing.

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3
Q

Which organization is responsible for the most commonly-used framework to benchmark internal controls?

A.Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission [79%]

B.Financial Accounting Standards Board [4%]

C.Institute of Internal Auditors [12%]

D.Securities and Exchange Commission

A

Choice A (Correct): In response to heavily publicized incidents of undetected fraud, a group of accounting professional organizations formed the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO), which performed a study that resulted in the development of an internal control framework that has become very widely used. The Financial Accounting Standards Board is responsible for GAAP. The Institute of Internal Auditors, a member of COSO, establishes guidelines and standards to be followed by internal auditors. The Securities and Exchange Commission oversees the raising of capital in public marketplaces.

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4
Q

Which organization is responsible for the most commonly-used framework to benchmark internal controls?

A.Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission [79%]

B.Financial Accounting Standards Board [4%]

C.Institute of Internal Auditors [12%]

D.Securities and Exchange Commission

A

Choice A (Correct): In response to heavily publicized incidents of undetected fraud, a group of accounting professional organizations formed the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO), which performed a study that resulted in the development of an internal control framework that has become very widely used. The Financial Accounting Standards Board is responsible for GAAP. The Institute of Internal Auditors, a member of COSO, establishes guidelines and standards to be followed by internal auditors. The Securities and Exchange Commission oversees the raising of capital in public marketplaces

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5
Q

According to COSO, which of the following provides oversight of an entity’s enterprise risk management?

A.Management. [33%]

B.A risk officer. [4%]

C.The board of directors. [60%]

D.Financial executives.

A

Choice C (Correct): Correct! The board of directors generally is assigned oversight roles, being the most impartial interested party. Management members and financial executives might allow other concerns to overshadow their judgment regarding enterprise risk management (ERM). A risk officer might not be sufficiently objective to engage in effective oversight with regard to upper management. Financial executives’ and management members’ actions typically are most in need of ERM oversight; one should not expect them to police their own actions effectively.

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6
Q

According to COSO, the proper tone at the top helps a company to do each of the following, except

A.Create a compliance-supporting culture that is committed to enterprise risk management. [6%]

B.Navigate gray areas where no specific compliance rules or guidelines exist. [20%]

C.Adhere to fiscal budgets and goals as outlined by the internal audit committee and board of directors. [70%]

D.Promote a willingness to seek assistance and report problems before it is too late for corrective action.

A

Choice C (Correct) and Choices A, B, D (Incorrect): COSO identifies the tone at the top as the most influential internal control component for establishing a commitment to integrity and ethical values. Tone at the top therefore promotes ethical behaviors or attitudes. Leading by example, management creates a compliance-supporting culture, demonstrating that the organization is aware of, and complies with, applicable rules and regulations; provides guidance for navigating gray areas where no specific compliance rules or guidelines exist, demonstrating a commitment to doing what is right in addition to what rules and regulations allow; and promotes a willingness to seek assistance and report problems in a timely manner by maintaining an “open door” policy and by allowing people to make honest mistakes without adverse repercussions. Adhering to fiscal budgets and goals, considered separately from any ethical issues that may arise therefrom, is a financial management function not directly related to the tone at the top.

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7
Q

Smith was an officer of CCC Corp. As an officer, the business judgment rule applied to Smith in which of the following ways?

A.Because Smith is not a director, the rule does not apply.

B.If Smith makes, in good faith, a serious but honest mistake in judgment, Smith is generally not liable to CCC for damages caused.

C.If Smith makes, in good faith, a serious but honest mistake in judgment, Smith is generally liable to CCC for damages caused, but CCC may elect to reimburse Smith for any damages Smith paid.

D.If Smith makes, in good faith, a serious but honest mistake in judgment, Smith is generally liable to CCC for damages caused, and CCC is prohibited from reimbursing Smith for any damages Smith paid.

A

Choice B (Correct): The business judgment rule establishes that managers or directors will not be held liable for business decisions made in good faith, with due care, and with loyalty. Since Smith’s mistake is honest and made in good faith, he will not be held liable for his business decisions.

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8
Q

A member of the board of directors of Central Communications Co. is offered a license by a third party to operate a cellular phone system. The director does not present this offer to the board of directors for approval but informally mentions it to a fellow board member, who does not think it will be a problem. The director buys the license. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the director’s actions?

A.The director breached a duty of care by failing to use prudent business judgment. [7%]

B.The director breached the duty of due diligence. [15%]

C.The director breached a duty of loyalty by usurping a corporate opportunity. [71%]

D.The director acted properly in purchasing the license.

A

Choice C (Correct): Board members have a fiduciary duty to act loyally and in the best interest of the corporation. Fiduciary duty dictates that the board member offered the license should have first formally relayed the offer to the entire Central Communications Co. board. Only if Central Communications passed on the offer would the board member be free to accept it for himself. In accepting the offer for himself without first communicating it formally to the board as a whole, the director breached his duty of loyalty by usurping a corporate opportunity. A duty of care is breached by an officer’s negligence. A duty of due diligence is breached when an officer does not put forth an appropriate effort in attending to responsibilities.

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9
Q

Which of the following is most useful when risk is being prioritized?

A.Low and high probability exposures. [44%]

B.Low and high-degree loss exposures. [21%]

C.Expected value. [26%]

D.Uncontrollable risks

A

Choice C (Correct): When applying Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) principles, risks are prioritized in terms of their likelihood of occurrence and their expected impact on the company. The expected value of the risk is considered important because it will be compared to the expected values of risks associated with alternative decisions in order to determine risk priority

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10
Q

An issuer’s board of directors would ordinarily participate in each of the following activities, except

A.Establishing long-term strategy and objectives to which their information technology system should be aligned. [4%]

B.Supervising and monitoring the quality control testing on the installation of a new information technology system. [77%]

C.Ensuring that suitable information technology resources and skills are available to meet the company’s strategic objectives. [8%]

D.Maintaining awareness of current technology used by the organization to ensure its efficiency and effectiveness for financial reporting

A

Information technology (IT) functions of the board of directors

. Governance (corporate objectives and strategy for IT system)
. Monitoring financial reporting IT requirements (technology, resources, and skilled personnel)

A board of directors (BOD) gets its responsibility and authority from an entity’s bylaws, as well as from statutes and legal precedent. The bylaws generally indicate the minimum and maximum number of directors, how they are to be selected, how often they meet, and the nature of their responsibilities.

Board members are charged with the broad responsibilities of representing shareholders’ concerns and overseeing senior management. The board generally does not get involved with the day-to-day management of the entity but rather performs an oversight and approval function. For example, the board would rely on management to supervise and monitor the quality control testing of a new information technology system.

Concerning the entity’s IT department, the BOD’s responsibilities include ensuring that suitable IT resources and skills are available to meet the entity’s strategic objectives (Choice C). The board also ensures that the IT department’s financial reporting system is efficient, effective, and aligns with the entity’s IT strategy and objectives (Choices A and D).

Things to remember:
A board of directors gets its responsibility and authority from an entity’s bylaws, statutes, and legal precedent. The board generally does not get involved with the day-to-day management of the entity but rather performs an oversight and approval function.

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11
Q

The internal auditor who works in enterprise risk management (ERM) performs each of the following activities, except

A.Giving assurance that the risks of the organization are correctly evaluated. [24%]

B.Evaluating the risk-management process. [1%]

C.Setting the risk appetite of the organization. [65%]

D.Coordinating ERM activities. [8%

A

Choice C (Correct): The board of directors is responsible for setting the broad limits within which management is to operate. This includes setting the organization’s risk appetite. An internal auditor typically gives assurance that risks are evaluated appropriately, evaluates the risk-management process, and coordinates ERM activities

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12
Q

Which of the following positions best describes the nature of the Board of Directors of ABC Co’s relationship to the company?

A.Agent. [4%]

B.Executive. [5%]

C.Fiduciary. [86%]

D.Representative.

A

Choice C (Correct): The Board of Directors of a corporation has a fiduciary duty to that entity, meaning that it must act in the best interests of the corporation in all business dealings and not in a director’s self-interest.

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13
Q

Under Title IX of The Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection (Dodd-Frank) Act of 2010 – Investor Protections and Improvements to the Regulation of Securities, stockholders are entitled to vote:

I. Every 3 years to approve executive compensation

II. Every 6 years to re-elect members to the board of directors

III. On a non-binding basis to disapprove “golden parachute” arrangements

A.I only. [5%]

B.I and II only. [14%]

C.I and III only. [59%]

D.I, II, and III.

A

Choice C (Correct): Title IX of the Dodd-Frank Act gives authorizes stockholders to vote to approve executive compensation every 3 years and to vote every 6 years to determine if voting to approve compensation every 3 years is frequent enough. It also authorizes them to vote to disapprove a “golden parachute” arrangement, although the vote is not binding. It does not address elections to the board of directors.

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14
Q

A company’s new time clock process requires hourly employees to select an identification number and then choose the clock-in or clock-out button. A video camera captures an image of the employee using the system. Which of the following exposures can the new system be expected to change the least?

A.Fraudulent reporting of employees’ own hours. [12%]

B.Errors in employees’ overtime computation. [48%]

C.Inaccurate accounting of employee’s hours. [20%]

D.Recording of other employees’ hours

A

Choice B (Correct): A video camera is not likely to be helpful in exposing errors in employees’ overtime computation. An error in an employee’s overtime computation would be the result of a mathematical computation mistake and a video camera would not likely be helpful in exposing this kind of error

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15
Q

An internal auditor is considering a client’s organizational structure as it affects the ethical climate established by company management. Each of the following considerations is valid in this regard, except:

A.The appropriateness of an entity’s organizational structure depends in part on the nature of its activities. [4%]

B.A highly structured organization with formal reporting lines may be appropriate regardless of entity size. [14%]

C.A decentralized environment may increase the risk that unethical decisions could be made by unit managers. [10%]

D.A company that is highly centralized will have a more diverse ethical culture than a company that is decentralized

A

Choice D (Correct): A highly centralized company tends to have a more uniform culture (including ethical culture) than a decentralized company. The appropriateness of an entity’s organizational structure indeed depends in part on the nature of its activities. For instance, an organizational structure that works well for a common carrier probably would be a poor fit for an entity involved in real estate development. For some industries (for instance, those subject to strict government regulations), formal reporting lines are appropriate regardless of the entity size. A decentralized environment increases the chances that unit managers will make decisions; thus, it increases the risk that some of those decisions could be unethical.

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16
Q

Under the Dodd-Frank Act, lenders selling loans to securitizers

A.Will always bear the full (100%) credit risk of those loans, even after they are sold. [20%]

B.Will bear a 5% economic interest in loans that meet safe harbor provisions. [20%]

C.Will bear a 50% economic interest in loans that do not meet safe harbor provisions. [20%]

D.Will bear a 5% economic interest in loans that do not meet safe harbor provisions

A

Choice D (Correct): If loans do not meet safe harbor provisions, lenders keep 5% of the risk

17
Q

All of the following statements regarding an effective fraud risk management program (FRMP) are true except

A.It initiates a visible and rigorous fraud governance process. [0%]

B.It must be provided by certified external auditors. [86%]

C.It entails a thorough periodic fraud risk assessment. [6%]

D.It responds quickly to fraud allegations, including loss recovery actions and proceedings against perpetrators.

A

Fraud Risk Management Program (FRMP)

  1. Establish governance policies.
  2. Conduct a comprehensive risk assessment.
  3. Plan and execute preventive and detective control processes.
  4. Perform timely and confidential investigations.
  5. Monitor and assess the program, reporting the results and improving the processes.

Fraud is any illegal act characterized by deceit, concealment, or violation of trust. It is generally intentional and deals with the integrity of the perpetrator. Conversely, errors are considered unintentional and deal with the competency of the perpetrator.

Surprisingly, external auditors are estimated to uncover less than 5% of fraud. Tips and whistle-blowers uncover about 40%. Management review and internal auditors each uncover about 15%. In other words, 70% of fraud is detected through internal sources. Therefore, the best method to detect fraudulent activity is for the entity to internally develop a fraud risk management program (FRMP) to prevent, detect, and deter fraud. Certified external auditors are not required to implement an FRMP.

An effective FRMP initiates a visible and rigorous fraud governance process, entails a thorough periodic fraud risk assessment, and responds quickly to fraud allegations (Choices A, C, and D). However, even an effective FRMP cannot eliminate fraud although it can minimize fraud losses with early detection.

Things to remember:
Fraud is any illegal act characterized by deceit, concealment, or violation of trust. Seventy percent of all fraud is detected by internal sources, so establishment of a fraud risk management program provides businesses with a method for timely fraud prevention and detection.

18
Q

The Dodd-Frank Act’s regulation of swaps

A.Seeks to prevent swaps from trading in clearinghouses, seeking for them to be traded over-the-counter. [35%]

B.Defines swaps narrowly, including neither options nor forward contracts. [14%]

C.Is expected to result in more netting of swaps in companies’ balance sheets. [25%]

D.Will cover even the smallest of participants, such as credit unions of any size

A

Choice C (Correct): Companies may net swaps with a counterparty, and all swaps with a single clearinghouse will count as with a single counterparty.

19
Q

Audit committee members of issuers are required, under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, to maintain which of the following traits?

A.Integrity. [26%]

B.Diligence. [3%]

C.Independence. [67%]

D.Proficiency.

A

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) was enacted in 2002 to enhance the transparency of public companies after accounting violations by entities such as Enron and WorldCom resulted in billions of dollars in investor losses. SOX established a number of requirements for corporate governance. There are several board subcommittees, including an audit committee. Audit committee members must be on the BOD and must be independent

Although integrity, diligence, and proficiency are expected of all board members, these characteristics are not specifically required by SOX for the audit committee (Choices A, B, and D). However, as members of the BOD, it is assumed that the audit committee will comply with all of their BOD obligations, including their fiduciary duty to:

Act with a duty of loyalty
Act with a duty of care
Act with due diligence
Things to remember:
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 established requirements for corporate governance, including those for a public entity's board of directors (BOD).  There are a number of subcommittees comprised of BOD members, including an audit committee.  All audit committee members are required to be independent.
20
Q

Each of the following statements is correct regarding the existence and implementation of codes of conduct, except:

A.Employees understand what behavior is acceptable or unacceptable and know what to do if they encounter improper behavior. [7%]

B.The codes of conduct are comprehensive, addressing conflicts of interest, illegal or other improper payments, anticompetitive guidelines, and insider trading. [18%]

C.The codes of conduct are periodically acknowledged by all employees. [12%]

D.The codes of conduct must be in writing and displayed in public areas, such as a break room.

A

Choice D (Correct) and Choices A, B, C (Incorrect): Codes of conduct must be comprehensive, must be periodically acknowledged, must communicate what constitutes both proper and improper behavior, must provide courses of action in the event of improper behavior, and should be acknowledged by employees periodically. There is no requirement that they must be displayed in public areas, such as a break room.

21
Q

According to COSO, the position or internal entity that is best suited, as part of the enterprise risk management process, to devise and execute risk procedures for a particular department is

A.The internal audit department. [33%]

B.The chief executive officer. [3%]

C.A manager within the department. [51%]

D.The audit committee.

A

Choice C (Correct): According to COSO, a manager within the department is best suited, as part of the enterprise risk management (ERM) process, to devise and execute risk procedures for that department. At this procedural level, the CEO has limited or no involvement, and the independent audit committee of the board of directors has none. The internal audit department could possibly assist with devising departmental risk procedures for other departments, but would have little to no involvement with their execution.

22
Q

Barrington Boat Company has been profitable for the last several years and the price of its stock has been climbing steadily. The board of directors has recently hired a new chief executive officer, Betty Bailey, and is concerned that she will try to impress them by concentrating on short-term profitability to make a favorable impression rather than what would be best for the intermediate to long term. Which of the following compensation plans is least likely to motivate the CEO to concentrate on plans that will benefit the company for the intermediate to long term?

A.The company provides Betty with stock options that vest at the end of 3 years and are exercisable for 5 years from the grant date. [7%]

B.The company provides Betty with restricted stock with a 3 year restriction. [8%]

C.The company provides Betty with stock options that vest immediately and are exercisable for 6 years from the grant date. [62%]

D.The company provides Betty with a deferred compensation plan that calls for a bonus at the end of 5 years, the amount of which will be based on the relationship of the stock price on that date to its price on the grant date.

A

Choice C (Correct): Although the stock options are exercisable for 6 years, they vest immediately, which means that Betty can exercise them as soon as they are granted. As a result, she could engage in activities that will continue to elevate profits in the short-term, raising the short-term price of the stock, and take immediate advantage of the options by selling them or exercising them and selling the stock acquired. She would then not be affected by future declines in the stock and would not have to worry about its price in the intermediate to long term.