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CompTIA A+ Core 1 > Core 1 > Flashcards

Core 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum throughput of a SATA II drive?

A

3 Gbps

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2
Q

MAC addresses can be represented by how many hexadecimal characters?

A

12

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3
Q

What is the IP address of the “localhost”?

A

127.0.0.1

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4
Q

What would cause a laser printer to generate a totally black sheet?

A

No power to the primary corona.

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5
Q

Intermittent lockups and reboots are most likely caused by?

A

Failing power supply

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6
Q

Which monitor display creates the best range of visible colors?

A

OLED

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7
Q

What part of a laser printer should you avoid touching while servicing and why?

A

Fuser- one of the two rollers is heated.

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8
Q

Which subnet mask is used with a Class B address?

A

255.255.0.0

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9
Q

Which interface is the fastest?

A

NVMe

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10
Q

What are the common battery types found in modern portable devices?

A

Lithium-ion (Li-ion) and Lithium-ion Polymer (LiPo)

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11
Q

What is the most common memory module form factor type used in laptops?

A

SO-DIMM (Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module)

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12
Q

What are three characteristics of magnetic drives?

A
  1. High capacity
  2. Low device cost
  3. Low performance
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13
Q

What are three features of Solid-State Drives (SSDs)?

A
  1. Relatively high device cost
  2. Lower capacity in comparison to magnetic drives
  3. High performance
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14
Q

Which type of expansion card enables communication in 802.11 networks?

A

WLAN

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15
Q

What is a laptop’s Bluetooth module referred to as?

A

WPAN

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16
Q

Which expansion card enables communication over cellular networks?

A

WWAN

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17
Q

Which display technology is most commonly used in modern laptops?

A

LCD

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18
Q

What are three features of In-Plane Switching (IPS)?

A
  1. High color quality
  2. Wide viewing angles
  3. Slow response time
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19
Q

What are three characteristics that describe Twisted Nematic (TN) technology?

A
  1. Low viewing angles
  2. Fast response times
  3. Low color quality
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20
Q

Vertical Alignment (VA) display technology can be characterized by what?

A
  1. High contrast ratios
  2. Good viewing angles
  3. Good color quality
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21
Q

What type of cloud infrastructure is available solely for a single organization?

A

Private Cloud

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22
Q

What term is used to describe a cloud computing feature that allows for automatic allocation of computing resources in proportion with demand?

A

Rapid elasticity

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23
Q

Which cloud computing service model offers remote access to applications based on monthly or annual subscriptions?

A

Saas (Software as a Service)

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24
Q

What is a Hybrid Cloud?

A

A cloud delivery model that consists of two or more interlinked cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public).

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25
Q

Which cloud computing service models offers clients the ability to purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who maintain all the necessary equipment and software?

A

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)

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26
Q

What terms refers to a solution that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on the same hardware?

A

Virtualization

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27
Q

A set of Intel CPU HAV enhancements is called what?

A

VT-x

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28
Q

What is the HAV enhancements developed by AMD for its CPUS called?

A

AMD-V

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29
Q

What term is used to describe a situation in which a large number of deployed virtual machines that lack proper administrative controls?

A

VM sprawl

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30
Q

What term refers to the process of breaking out of the boundaries of a guest operating system installation to access the primary hypervisor controlling all the virtual machines on the host machine?

A

VM escape

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31
Q

What was the secure replacement for Telnet?

A

SSH

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32
Q

What term refers to a system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data, such as numerical IP addresses?

A

DNS

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33
Q

What are three characteristics of Telnet?

A
  1. Provides usernames and password authentication
  2. Transmits data in an unencrypted form
  3. Enables remote log in and command execution
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34
Q

What network protocol provides an alternate solution to the manual allocation of IP addresses?

A

DHCP

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35
Q

What is in use when a WINS server tries to resolve a host name into an IP address on a Windows-based LAN?

A

NetBIOS

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36
Q

What refers to a Microsoft-proprietary remote-access protocol providing a user with graphical interface for connecting to another computer over a network?

A

RDP

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37
Q

What are two connectionless protocols?

A

DHCP and TFTP

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38
Q

What are two connection-oriented protocols?

A

SSH and HTTPS

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39
Q

What common applications make use of TCP?

A
  1. File transfer
  2. Email communication
    3.Web browsing
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40
Q

What common applications make use of UDP?

A
  1. Video conferencing
  2. Live streaming
  3. Online gaming
  4. Voice over IP (VoIP)
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41
Q

A dim display on a laptop LCD screen might indicate a problem relating to what?

A

Backlight or Inverter

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42
Q

In laser printing, vertical lines on each output page indicate a problem related to what?

A

The imaging drum

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43
Q

Garbled characters on output pages would indicate a printing problem related to what?

A

The printer driver

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44
Q

In laser printing, toner falling off the printed copies indicates what?

A

There is a problem with the fuser assembly

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45
Q

POP3 protocol is used for what?

A

Email retrieval

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46
Q

Which refers to an API that enables communication between hosts on a LAN?

A

NetBIOS

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47
Q

A type of protocol used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached devices is called what?

A

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

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48
Q

What is the name of a network protocol that secures web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption?

A

HTTPS

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49
Q

What are the characteristics of SMB/CIFS?

A
  1. Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices.
  2. Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems.
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50
Q

Which port enables the FTP’s Data Connection for sending file data?

A

TCP port 20

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51
Q

The FTP’s Control Connection for administering a session is established through what port?

A

TCP port 21

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52
Q

SSH protocol runs on which port?

A

TCP port 22

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53
Q

Which TCP port is used by Telnet?

A

23

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54
Q

TCP port 25 is used by which protocol?

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

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55
Q

Which port is assigned to the Domain Name System (DNS)?

A

53

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56
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) runs on which ports?

A

UDP port 67
UDP port 68

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57
Q

TCP port 80 is assigned to which protocol?

A

HTTP

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58
Q

Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) uses which port?

A

TCP port 110

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59
Q

What ports are reserved for NetBIOS services?

A

137, 138, 139

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60
Q

What TCP port is used by the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)?

A

143

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61
Q

An SNMP management station receives SNMP notifications from Agents on which UDP port?

A

162

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62
Q

TCP port 389 is the default network port for which protocol?

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

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63
Q

What port is used by HTTPS?

A

TCP port 443

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64
Q

What protocol runs on TCP port 445?

A

SMB/CIFS

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65
Q

What device is deigned to filter and transfer data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks?

A

Router

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66
Q

What device refers to a data-link layer device designed to forward frames between network segments?

A

Switch

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67
Q

A type 2 layer network switch with configuration features that can be modified through a user interface is known as what?

A

Managed switch

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68
Q

An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is commonly referred to as what?

A

Access Point (AP)

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69
Q

A simple device consisting of multiple connector blocks and ports used for cable management is know as what?

A

Patch panel

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70
Q

What hardware or software monitors network traffic and depending on the configuration settings applied to each data packet either blocks it or allows it to pass through?

A

Firewall

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71
Q

What solutions allow electricity to be supplied over standard Ethernet cables?

A
  1. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
  2. IEEE 802.3af
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72
Q

What is the dedicated device that is designed for supplying power over Ethernet cabling?

A

Injector

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73
Q

Which IEEE standard implements PoE+?

A

IEEE 802.3at

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74
Q

What does IEEE 802.3bt standards implement?

A
  1. PoE++
  2. 4PPoE
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75
Q

Which device is most prone to network performance degradation due to large number of network collisions?

A

Hub

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76
Q

Name three characteristic features of cable modems?

A
  1. Cabling that carries TV signals
  2. Coaxial cabling
  3. Shared bandwidth
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77
Q

Name three characteristic features of DSL modems?

A
  1. Dedicated bandwidth
  2. Twisted-pair copper cabling
  3. Telephone lines
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78
Q

Which type of fiber-optic equipment can be found at Demarc?

A

ONT

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79
Q

Which computer’s hardware component is designed for enabling network access?

A

NIC

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80
Q

Which refers to a technology designed to simplify network infrastructure management?

A

SDN (Software Defined Networking)

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81
Q

What frequency bands are used by the 802.11 networks?

A

5.0 GHz and 2.4 GHz

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82
Q

What are some characteristics of Bluetooth?

A

Short-range wireless technology, used for connecting devices in a WPAN, and has a 2.4 GHz range.

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83
Q

What are some of the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard?

A

Uses the 5.0 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data signal of 54 Mbps.

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84
Q

What are some of the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard?

A

Uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data signal rate of 11 Mbps.

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85
Q

what are some of the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard?

A

Uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data signal rate of 54 Mbps.

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86
Q

What are some of the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard?

A

Uses both the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequency band, has a maximum data signaling rate up to 600 Mbps, and uses Multiple Input/Multiple Output (MIMO).

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87
Q

What are some of the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11ac (WiFi5) wireless standard?

A

Uses the 5.0 GHz frequency band, has a maximum data signaling rate up to 6.933 Gbps, and uses Multi-User Multiple Input/ Multiple Output (MU-MIMO).

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88
Q

What are some of the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11ax (WiFi 6) wireless standard?

A

Uses both the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequency bands, has a maximum data signaling rate up to 9.607 Gbps, and uses Multi-User Multiple Input/ Multiple Output (MU-MIMO).

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89
Q

What antenna type is not suitable for long-range point-to-point bridging links?

A

Omnidirectional

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90
Q

What types of antenna are suitable for long-range point-to-point bridging links?

A

Yagi, Dish, and Parabolic

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91
Q

What wireless technology enables identification and tracking of tags attached to objects?

A

RFID

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92
Q

What type of server handles requests to connect to a website and displays its contents by translating the URL entered in the web browser address bar to an IP address.

A

DNS server

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93
Q

What type of server is used for automatic allocation of IP addresses on a network?

A

DHCP server

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94
Q

A dedicated file server is also referred to as what?

A

FTP server

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95
Q

What is the function of a SMTP server?

A

Email handling

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96
Q

IPP, LPD/LPR, and SMB/CIFS are examples of protocols that enable what kind of network service?

A

Printing

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97
Q

Which type of server is used for collecting diagnostic and monitoring data from networked devices?

A

Syslog server

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98
Q

What is the function of an HTTP server?

A

Serving web pages

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99
Q

What protocol and port number is used by spam filter?

A

SMTP 25

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100
Q

What physical network device or software solution is designed for managing the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources?

A

Load balancer

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101
Q

What is a computer system or application that acts as an intermediary between another computer and the Internet?

A

Proxy

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102
Q

What is the industrial and manufacturing control system known as?

A

SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition)

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103
Q

Wearable tech or home automation is known as what?

A

Internet of Things (IoT) devices

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104
Q

What allows to determine which network segment an IP address belongs to?

A

Subnet mask

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105
Q

What term refers to a networked device providing an entry point into another network or the Internet?

A

Default gateway

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106
Q

What data is required for manual configuration of network adapter settings?

A

IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server.

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107
Q

How many bits does an IPv4 address consist of?

A

32

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108
Q

IPv4 addresses are expressed using what type of numbers?

A

Decimal

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109
Q

What is an IPv4 loopback address?

A

127.0.0.1

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110
Q

How many bits does an IPv6 address consist of?

A

128

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111
Q

IPv6 addresses are expressed using what type of numbers?

A

Hexadecimal

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112
Q

What are two IPv6 loopback addresses?

A

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 and ::1

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113
Q

What is a permanent assignment of an IP address?

A

Static IP address

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114
Q

What type of server handles the assignment of dynamic IP addresses?

A

DHCP server

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115
Q

What is a limited-range computer network used for data transmission among various types of personal devices know as?

A

PAN

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116
Q

What is a computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large geographical area known as?

A

WAN

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117
Q

What is a type of network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a building or group of buildings known as?

A

LAN

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118
Q

What is an ISP offering Internet access to subscribers at a designated wireless hotspot known as?

A

WISP

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119
Q

Which WAN technology takes advantage of cell towers that provide wireless signal coverage for mobile devices?

A

WWAN

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120
Q

What is the most common type of DSL Internet access?

A

ADSL (Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line)

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121
Q

What is the use of cable modems for Internet access within a standard cable television infrastructure commonly referred to as?

A

Cable broadband

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122
Q

Which type of Internet connection is the fastest?

A

Fiber

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123
Q

What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (3 answers)

A

1.High signal latency
2. InterferenceR
3. Relatively high cost in comparison to terrestrial links.

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124
Q

What is a system that uses public network as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations called?

A

VPN

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125
Q

Which term is used to refer to a logical grouping of computers that allow computer hosts to act as if they were attached to the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location?

A

VLAN

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126
Q

What is the range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can lease out to DHCP clients known as?

A

Scope

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127
Q

What term is used to refer to permanent IP address assignment from a DHCP server?

A

Reservation

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128
Q

What term is used to describe the time a DHCP client can use an IP address dynamically assigned by the DHCP server?

A

Lease

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129
Q

What term allows the receiver of an email message to verify that the message claimed to have come from a specific domain was indeed authorized by the owner of that domain?

A

DKIM

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130
Q

What refers to an authentication method that enables signing an outbound email message with a digital signature?

A

DKIM

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131
Q

A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city is called what?

A

MAN

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132
Q

A dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers is known as what?

A

SAN (Storage Area Network)

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133
Q

What is a type of network consisting of computers and peripherals devices that use high-frequency radio waves to communicate with each other?

A

WLAN

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134
Q

Which tool would be used to attach an RJ45 connector to a twisted-pair Ethernet cable?

A

Cable crimper

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135
Q

What is the name of the dedicated tool used for removing electrical insulation cover from electric wires?

A

Cable stripper

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136
Q

What is a type of diagnostic tool used for measuring the strength of a wireless signal called?

A

WiFi analyzer

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137
Q

What device would be helpful in determining the optimal placement of a WAP?

A

WiFi analyzer

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138
Q

What tool would be used for locating a cable in a cabling bundle or tracing individual wires in a cable?

A

Toner and probe kit

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139
Q

What tool is used for attaching wires to a patch panel?

A

Punchdown tool

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140
Q

Which tool is used for troubleshooting incorrect pinouts on a cable?

A

Cable tester

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141
Q

What tool is used for verifying correct electrical connections of wires in a cable?

A

Cable tester

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142
Q

What can be used to troubleshoot connector pins on Network Interface Card (NIC) port?

A

Loopback plug

143
Q

What term refers to a traffic monitoring device placed between two points in a network infrastructure?

A

Tap

144
Q

What features refer to 1000BASE-T standard?

A
  1. Twisted-pair copper cabling
  2. Transfer rates up to 1000 Mbps
  3. Transfer rates up to 1 Gbps
145
Q

What are the characteristic features of Cat 5 cabling? (5 answers)

A
  1. 100 Mbps transfer rate over 2 pairs of cables (100BASE-T networks)
  2. 1 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (1000BASE-T networks)
  3. 100-meter cable segment length
  4. Twisted-pair copper cabling
  5. RJ45 connector
146
Q

What is the common minimum requirement for twisted-pair copper cabling in modern Ethernet networks?

A

Cat 5e

147
Q

What are the characteristic features of Cat 5e cabling?

A
  1. 100-meter cable segment length
  2. Twister-pair copper cabling
  3. RJ45 connector
  4. 1 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (1000BASE-T networks)
148
Q

What is the minimum requirement for a 10 Gbps Ethernet connection over copper twisted pair?

A

Cat 6

149
Q

What are some characteristics of coaxial cabling?

A
  1. Used for carrying cable television signal
  2. Copper cabling
  3. Provides protection against EMI
  4. Used for broadband cable Internet access
150
Q

An Ethernet network cable segment implemented wit the use of twisted-pair copper cabling typically covers a maximum distance of?

A

100 meters

151
Q

What refers to the cabling type suitable for installation under ground level without any additional protective covering?

A

DBC (Direct buried cable)

152
Q

Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP) cabling reduces what kind of interference?

A

Crosstalk and EMI

153
Q

What characteristics refer to UTP cabling? (5 answers)

A
  1. Twisted-pair cabling
  2. Used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems
  3. Low cost and ease of installation
  4. No shielding
  5. Installed with RJ45 connector in Ethernet networks
154
Q

What are the characteristic traits of single-mode fiber optics?

A
  1. More expensive than mulitmode fiber optics
  2. Transmission distances up to 100 km
  3. Uses laser as the source of light
155
Q

What are the characteristics of multimode fiber optics?

A
  1. Transmission distances up to 2 km
  2. Less expensive than single-mode fiber optics
  3. Uses LED as the source of light
156
Q

What are the common cabling types used for connecting workstation to network devices?

A

Patch cable and straight-through cable

157
Q

What type of Ethernet cable would be used for establishing a direct communication link between two PCs?

A

Crossover cable

158
Q

USB 2.0 specifies the maximum data transfer rate of?

A

480 Mbps

159
Q

What is the maximum allowable cable length for USB 2.0?

A

5 meters

160
Q

Which of the following terms refers to USB 3.2 Gen 1?

A

SuperSpeed USB

161
Q

What is USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 referred to as?

A

SuperSpeed USB 20 Gbps

162
Q

What is the practical cable length limitation for USB 3.x?

A

3 meters

163
Q

What refers to an older type of serial cable used for connecting modems, printers, mice, and other peripheral devices?

A

RS-232

164
Q

What are the characteristic features of Thunderbolt 1 and Thunderbolt 2?

A
  1. Data transfer rate up to 20 Gbps
  2. Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector
  3. Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable
  4. Support up to 6 devices on a single port
165
Q

What are the characteristic features of Thunderbolt 3?

A
  1. Provides support for up to 6 devices on a single port
  2. Enables data transfer rate up to 40 Gbps
  3. Uses USB-C connector
  4. Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable
166
Q

What is the maximum allowable length for a Thunderbolt copper cable?

A

Up to 3 meters

167
Q

The fiber-optic Thunderbolt interface allows for a maximum cable length of how many meters?

A

60

168
Q

What are the video connection standards?

A

DVI, DisplayPort, HDMI, and VGA

169
Q

What interfaces provide the capability for transmission of both video and audio data?

A

HDMI and DisplayPort

170
Q

What are the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through the HDMI cable?

A

Digital signal and video and audio

171
Q

What features refer to the features of DisplayPort?

A

Digital audio/video

172
Q

Which of the Digital Visual Interface (DVI) versions does not provide support for digital signal transmission?

A

DVI-A

173
Q

Which DVI types does not provide support for analog signal transmission?

A

DVI-D

174
Q

What characteristic features refer to the signal that can be carried through the VGA cable?

A

Video and Analog

175
Q

What are some examples of cabling types used for mass storage devices? (4 answers)

A
  1. SATA
  2. IDE/PATA
  3. SCSI
  4. eSATA
176
Q

What are the characteristic features of SATA 1.0?

A

1.5 Gbps data transfer rate and maximum cable length of 1 meter.

177
Q

The power connector on the SATA interface consists of how many pins?

A

15

178
Q

What are the characteristic features of SATA 2.0?

A

3 Gbps data transfer rate and maximum cable length of 1 meter.

179
Q

A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect a motherboard slot with how many devices?

A

Only 1 device

180
Q

What are the characteristic feature of SATA 3.0?

A

6 Gbps data transfer rate and a maximum cable length of 1 meter.

181
Q

The SATA interface specification define data cable connector consisting of how many pins?

A

7

182
Q

What is the maximum allowable number of devices that can be attached to a parallel SCSI bus?

A

16 devices

182
Q

What are the characteristic features of SATA 3.2?

A

16 Gbps data transfer rate and a maximum cable length of 1 meter.

183
Q

What are the characteristic features of SAS?

A
  1. Serial interface
  2. Point-to-point connection
  3. Does not require bus termination
184
Q

Which devices are hot-swappable drives?

A
  1. USB drives
  2. SATA drives
    3.eSATA drives
185
Q

Which refers to a dedicated expansion card used for attaching external storage devices?

A

eSATA card

186
Q

What are the characteristic features of Parallel ATA (PATA) cabling?

A
  1. Cable consists of 40 wires
  2. Ribbon cable
  3. Cable consists of 80 wires
187
Q

Parallel ATA (PATA) cabling uses how many pinned connector?

A

40

188
Q

What is the maximum number of devices that can be attached to a PC through a single PATA cable?

A

2

189
Q

Which passive adapter types enable DVI-to-HDMI connectivity?

A

DVI-D to HDMI and DVI-I to HDMI

190
Q

Which passive adapter types enable DVI-to-VGA connectivity?

A
  1. DVI-A to VGA
  2. DVI-I to VGA
191
Q

Which uses RJ11 connectors?

A
  1. Telephone equipment
  2. Dial-up networking
  3. Twisted-pair copper cabling
192
Q

What are the characteristic features of RJ45 connectors?

A
  1. Used with Ethernet network cabling
  2. Twisted-pair copper cabling connector
193
Q

What are the characteristic features of RG-59 cabling?

A
  1. Coaxial cabling
  2. Suitable for short-distance cable runs
  3. Used for analog video and CCTV installations
194
Q

What are the characteristic features of RG-6 cabling? (3 answers)

A
  1. Coaxial cabling
  2. Suitable for long-distance cable runs
  3. Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems
195
Q

Which refer to the F-type connector?

A
  1. Coaxial cabling
  2. Used for television, satellite television, and cable modems
  3. RG-59/RG-6 cabling
  4. Copper cabling connector
  5. Used for analog video and CCTV installations
  6. Connector equipped with a screw-on locking mechanism.
196
Q

What are some examples of fiber-optic connectors?

A
  1. LC
  2. ST
  3. SC
197
Q

Which connector refers to a symmetrical/reversible USB connector type?

A

USB-C

198
Q

What is the name of the most common connector type used for providing power to various hardware components inside computer case?

A

Molex connector

199
Q

Which refers to a proprietary connector type that features symmetrical/reversible connector plug?

A

Lightning

200
Q

Which connector refers to a proprietary 8-pin power connector for iOS devices?

A

Lightning

201
Q

Which connector type is used for RS-232 serial communications?

A

DB-9/DE-9

202
Q

Which type of cabling takes advantage of the 19-pin Type A connector?

A

HDMI

203
Q

Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector is what?

A

Three-row 15-pin connector

204
Q

What can be used as an extension of RAM? (3 answers)

A
  1. Virtual memory
  2. Swap/Paging file
  3. Swap partition
205
Q

A type of file on the storage drive that an OS can use to hold parts of programs and data files that cannot be stored in RAM due to the insufficient memory space is called what?

A
  1. Swap file
  2. Paging file
  3. Virtual RAM
206
Q

What are the characteristic features of Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)?

A
  1. Faster than Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM).
  2. More expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM).
  3. Volatile storage media type
  4. Utilized for CPU cache memory chips
207
Q

What are the characteristic features of Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)?

A
  1. Volatile storage media type
  2. Slower than Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)
  3. Widely used as the primary storage media
  4. Less expensive in comparison to Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)
208
Q

What term refers to the broad category of DRAM modules that rely on the signal sent by the system clock in order to coordinate their functioning with other internal PC components?

A

Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (SDRAM)

209
Q

What are the characteristic features of Double Data Rate 3 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR3 SDRAM)?

A
  1. 16 GB maximum capacity per memory module
  2. 240 contact pins
  3. A notch on the RAM module contact surface to prevent the installation of incompatible memory types
210
Q

What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate 4 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR4 SDRAM)?

A
  1. 288 contact pins
  2. 64GB maximum capacity per memory module
  3. A notch on the Ram module contact surface to prevent the installation of incompatible memory types
211
Q

What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate 5 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR5 SDRAM)?

A
  1. 64 GB maximum capacity per memory module
  2. 288 contact pins
  3. A notch on the RAM module contact surface to prevent the installation of incompatible memory types
212
Q

Certain types of RAM take advantage of an additional bit in order to detect whether a data error has occurred. What is it called?

A

Parity bit

213
Q

ECC type RAM can do what?

A

Detect and correct errors

214
Q

What characteristics apply to the type of RAM most commonly used as the main system memory in desktop PCs?

A

Non-ECC memory and Dynamic RAM

215
Q

What is required by the multi-channel memory architecture to take advantage of the performance benefits?

A
  1. Memory modules of matching types
  2. Memory modules of matching speeds
  3. Memory modules of same capacity
  4. Installing modules in appropriate memory slots on the motherboard
216
Q

What are the platters of a magnetic hard drive spin rate measured in?

A

Revolutions per minute

217
Q

What is the maximum rpm (revolutions per minute) value available in modern HDDs?

A

15000 rpm

218
Q

What is the standard size of HDD form factor for laptops?

A

2.5 inch

219
Q

What is the standard size of magnetic drives form factors for desktops?

A

3.5 inch

220
Q

What are the storage media device interfaces for SSDs?

A

NVMe, SATA, and PCIe

221
Q

What term describes the high-speed, serial expansion bus that was designed as a replacement for PCI, PCI-X, and AGP standards?

A

Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe)

222
Q

A logical device interface used for accessing non-volatile memory storage devices attached via PCIe is known as what?

A

NVMe

223
Q

M.2 and mSATA are two examples of what type of form factors?

A

SSDs

224
Q

What term refers to an older, portable device SSD form factor that was superseded by M.2?

A

mSATA

225
Q

Which RAID level does not offer fault tolerance?

A

RAID 0

226
Q

Which RAID level is also known as disk striping; decreases reliability and is suitable for systems where performance has higher priority than fault tolerance?

A

RAID 0

227
Q

Which RAID level is referred to as disk mirroring; requires at least 2 drives to implement and offers improved reliability by creating identical data sets on each drive?

A

RAID 1

228
Q

Which RAID level requires at least 3 drives to implement and offers increased performance and fault tolerance?

A

RAID 5

229
Q

Which RAID levels are considered nested RAID levels?

A

RAID 1+0 and RAID 10

230
Q

RAID 10 requires a minimum of how many drives?

A

4 drives

231
Q

Which type of RAID creates a striped set from a series of mirrored devices?

A

RAID 1+0

232
Q

What are three popular portable storage devices that utilize flash memory?

A
  1. Thumb drive
  2. USB drive
  3. Flash drive
233
Q

What are examples of flash memory card formats?

A

SD, CompactFlash, microSD, miniSD, and xD

234
Q

What term refers to a proprietary flash memory card format used mainly in older digital cameras?

A

xD

235
Q

What file system is designed for optical media?

A

CDFS

236
Q

What are three examples of optical disc drives?

A
  1. CD-ROM drive
  2. DVD-ROM drive
    3.BD-ROM drive
237
Q

Due to size restriction and the compact nature of laptop devices, what type of storage media has become less commonly found on new laptops?

A

Optical drives

238
Q

What is the most common motherboard type used in desktop PCs?

A

ATX

239
Q

What refers to a proprietary line of low-power consumption small form factor motherboard types for industrial and embedded PC applications?

A

ITX

240
Q

What are the characteristic features of conventional PCI?

A
  1. 32-bit bus width
  2. 64-bit bus width
  3. Parallel interface
  4. Maximum throughput of up to 533 MB/s
241
Q

What is the name of the common connector type providing power to graphics cards, CPUs, older type of storage media, or cooling fans on the PC motherboard?

A

Molex connector

242
Q

How many pins refers to the main power connector used in modern ATX power supplies?

A

24-pin connector

243
Q

Which motherboard connector features an L-shape design that prevents its improper insertion?

A

SATA

244
Q

Which dedicated expansion slots/ports on the PC motherboard enables connecting an M.2 device? (3 answers)

A
  1. B key slot
  2. M key slot
  3. B+M key slot
245
Q

What are the two main CPU manufacturers for personal computers?

A

AMD and Intel

246
Q

What are the characteristic features of a dedicated server motherboard?

A
  1. Offers support for ECC RAM
  2. Utilizes more than one CPU
  3. Designed for limited space
247
Q

What are the characteristic features used to describe a typical desktop motherboard?

A
  1. Designed for non-ECC RAM
  2. Typically features a single CPU socket
  3. Designed to be used in a tower case
248
Q

What is the acronym used to refer to a series of basic hardware diagnostic tests to perform by the startup BIOS after the computer is powered on?

A

POST

249
Q

After replacing a modular hardware component inside the computer case, the updated information about specific parameters of the new device are stored where?

A

Flash memory chip (Newer PCs) or CMOS RAM (Older PCs)

250
Q

A computer’s BIOS interface can be accessed by pressing what key?

A

The key set by the motherboard manufacturer for accessing BIOS configuration interface during boot.

251
Q

BIOS configuration settings can be set to factory defaults how?

A
  1. Using a jumper on the motherboard
  2. Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard in older PCs
  3. Choosing the default configuration option in the BIOS interface
252
Q

What are the features of UEFI?

A
  1. Mouse support
  2. DRM support
  3. GUI support
  4. Secure boot
  5. Designed as a replacement for BIOS
  6. Network access
253
Q

Which BIOS configuration option allows to mitigate the risk of malware infection?

A

USB configuration settings

254
Q

A UEFI functionality designed to prevent the loading of malware and unauthorized OSs is called what?

A

Secure boot

255
Q

Which type of password provides the highest level of permissions in BIOS?

A

Supervisor

256
Q

What are the characteristic features of TPM (Trusted Platform Module)?

A
  1. Typically, in the form of a chip embedded into computer motherboard
  2. International standard for a secure cryptoprocessor
  3. Designed to secure hardware through cryptographic functions
257
Q

What term denotes a 32-bit CPU architecture?

A

x86

258
Q

What term refers to the 64-bit architecture?

A

x64

259
Q

A CPU design based on instruction set that tries to improve speed by utilizing relatively few and simple instructions is referred to as what?

A

RISC and ARM

260
Q

A type of CPU architecture where a single physical CPU contains more than one execution core on a single die or ship is known as?

A

Multicore

261
Q

An Intel-proprietary technology that splits a single CPU core into two virtual cores that can be used simultaneously by an OS is called?

A

Hyper-threading

262
Q

A set of Intel CPU hardware enhancements improving support for virtualization is referred to as?

A

VT-x

263
Q

What term refers to hardware virtualization enhancements developed by AMD for its CPUs?

A

AMD-V

264
Q

Which built-in functionality allows certain CPU models to take over tasks normally executed by a dedicated graphics controller?

A

Integrated GPU

265
Q

Which of the modern GPU types offers the highest performance?

A

GPU on a PCIe expansion card

265
Q

In CPU cooling, thermal paste is applied to fill in the narrow space between where?

A

CPU and heat sink

265
Q

Which type of adapter card enables Ethernet activity?

A

NIC expansion card

266
Q

What type of electric current is supplied to most of the internal PC components?

A

DC

267
Q

What voltages are generated by modern PC power supplies?

A

+3.3 V
+5 V
+/- 12 V

268
Q

What is the name of a device that can provide short-term emergency power during an unexpected main power source outage?

A

UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply)

269
Q

What term refers to a server load balancing setup in which supplied power is split between multiple PSUs?

A

Redundant power supply

270
Q

The power output rating of a PSU is based on a measurement unit known as what?

A

Watt

271
Q

What piece of office equipment combines the functionality of multiple devices?

A

MFD and MFP

272
Q

The computer languages that describe the appearance of a printed page are?

A

PS and PCL

273
Q

What wired connection types can be used for SOHO multifunction device/printer sharing?

A

USB and Ethernet

274
Q

A SOHO multifunction device/printer sharing over wireless connection can be implemented with the use of?

A

802.11x and Bluetooth

274
Q

Which ensures the highest availability of the network printing service?

A

Printer server

275
Q

Access to scanned documents over a network can be implemented with the use of what? (3 answers)

A

1.Email service
2. SMB/CIFS protocols
3. Cloud services

276
Q

Which MFD/MFP feature optimizes processing of multipage documents?

A

ADF (Automatic Document Feeder)

277
Q

What terms refers to a scanner type that takes advantage of a flat glass surface for scanning documents?

A

Flatbed scanner

278
Q

What component of a laser printer holds the representation of the output image drawn on its surface by the laser printer’s laser?

A

Imaging drum

279
Q

What is the name of a laser printer component that applies high temperature and pressure to bond the toner to the paper?

A

Fuser assembly

280
Q

In color laser printers, a hardware component that picks up all color layers of an image from imaging drums before passing the complete image onto the paper is called what?

A

Transfer belt

281
Q

What component of a laser printer applies electrical charge to the paper to move the representation of an image or text from the imaging drum to the paper?

A

Transfer roller

282
Q

What hardware components prevent multiple sheets of paper from being fed into the printer at one time?

A
  1. Separation pad
  2. Pickup roller
283
Q

What is the name of the printer component that allows for automatic printing on both sides of the page?

A

Duplexing assembly

284
Q

What is the correct sequence of steps in the laser printing process?

A
  1. Processing
  2. Charging
  3. Exposing
  4. Developing
  5. Transferring
  6. Fusing
  7. Cleaning
285
Q

A set of printer replacement parts is commonly referred to as what?

A

Maintenance kit

286
Q

What tools would be the most appropriate for cleaning the inside of a laser printer?

A
  1. Toner vacuum
  2. Magnetic cleaning brush
  3. Isopropyl alcohol
287
Q

What term describes the procedure of adjusting the printer output to match the image shown on a computer display?

A

Printer calibration test

288
Q

What inexpensive printer type is commonly used in SOHO environments?

A

Inkjet

289
Q

Which component of an inkjet printer is the most expensive to replace?

A

Ink cartridge

290
Q

What printer type is commonly used as PoS terminals?

A

Thermal

291
Q

Which type of printer takes advantage of a tractor feed during the printing process?

A

Impact

292
Q

Which printer types falls into the category of impact printers?

A

Dot Matrix

293
Q

Which printer type provides the capability to produce duplicate pages (multipart forms) during the printing process?

A

Impact and Dot Matrix

294
Q

Which printer type uses inked ribbon to produce an imprint on paper?

A

Dot Matrix

295
Q

What printer type uses a single sheet or roll of printing paper with holes punched along each side?

A

Dot Matrix printer

296
Q

Which type of printer uses plastic filament or resin to produce output?

A

3D printers

297
Q

In computer security, what is the mechanism for safe execution of untested code or untrusted applications called?

A

Sandboxing

298
Q

For best performance, a custom workstation designed for virtualization tasks needs what?

A
  1. Large, fast storage
  2. Maximum RAM
  3. Maximum CPU cores
299
Q

What security measures can be used to prevent VM sprawl?

A
  1. Usage audit
  2. Asset documentation
300
Q

What are the countermeasures against VM escape?

A
  1. Sandboxing
  2. Patch management
301
Q

What is the first step in troubleshooting process?

A

Identify the problem

302
Q

In troubleshooting methodology, establishing a theory of probably cause should come as which step?

A

Second

303
Q

Once the theory of probable cause of the problem has been established, the next step is what?

A

Testing the theory to determine the probable cause

304
Q

Which step of the troubleshooting process involves re-establishing a new theory to determine probable problem cause?

A

Testing the theory to determine the cause

305
Q

“Pinwheel” is an informal term used for describing stop error in?

A

macOS

306
Q

Slow computer performance may be the result of what? (6 answers)

A
  1. Insufficient amount of RAM
  2. Depleted internal storage space
  3. Storage drive fragmentation
  4. Outdated driver software
  5. System overheating
  6. Malicious software
307
Q

Continuous reboots, unexpected shutdowns, intermittent device failures, and hardware damage are all causes of overheating due to what?

A

Excessive dust buildup

308
Q

What would solve the problem of a leaking/burst/bulged capacitors inside the computer case?

A
  1. Motherboard replacement
  2. Capacitor replacement
309
Q

What is a common solution for BIOS date/time setting resets?

A

Motherboard battery replacement

310
Q

Which state of the HDD LED light typically indicates the drive’s normal operation?

A

Intermittent flashing

311
Q

An actuator arm assembly failure manifested by loud clicking noise emitted from the inside of the computer case is a problem symptom that should prompt for?

A

Data backup and storage drive replacement

312
Q

What could help in troubleshooting a system that attempts to boot to incorrect device?

A
  1. Disconnecting any removeable external drives
  2. Checking BIOS settings for boot order
313
Q

Restoring a RAID array after physical failure of one of the drive typically requires a very simple fix, which is the replacement of a bad drive. Which RAID solution would this not work for?

A

RAID 0

314
Q

Which symptoms might cause extended read/write times on a storage drive? (5 answers)

A
  1. Deplete storage space
  2. Insufficient amount of RAM
  3. Dish fragmentation
  4. Loose cable connections
  5. Physical hardware faults
315
Q

Which metrics can help in diagnosing the declining performance of a storage drive?

A

IOPS (Input/Output Operations per Second)

316
Q

Self-Monitoring. Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) allows for monitoring a system for anticipated what?

A

HDD/SSD failures

317
Q

When a computer monitor is unable to display image on the screen, the most common causes of this problem are?

A
  1. Loose cable connections
  2. Wrong input selection
318
Q

Which type of peripheral hardware would require the replacement of a burned-out bulb?

A

Computer projector

319
Q

A permanent computer display screen discoloration caused by displaying the same static image for extended periods of time is known as what?

A

Burn-in

320
Q

What actions would you take to help troubleshoot a non-responsive touchscreen on a mobile phone?

A
  1. Reseat the device’s battery
  2. Factory reset/hard reset
  3. Perform a system restart/soft restart
  4. Remove screen protector and clean surface
321
Q

What is a common fix for cursor drift?

A

Calibration

322
Q

How would you solve the problem of vertical lines on the output pages of an inkjet printer?

A
  1. Clean printheads
  2. Replace ink cartridges
323
Q

What symptoms indicate a depleted toner cartridge as the source of a printing problem?

A
  1. Faded printouts
  2. Printing blank pages
324
Q

Faded printouts on the output of an inkjet printer indicate a problem related to what?

A
  1. Dried out ink on the printhead nozzles
  2. Depleted ink cartridge
325
Q

What symptoms indicate that pickup rollers are malfunctioning?

A
  1. Paper not feeding
  2. Multipage misfeed
326
Q

The problem of speckling (tiny dots/spots) on the printer’s output can be caused by what?

A
  1. Leaky cartridge
  2. Accumulation of foreign material inside the printer case
327
Q

“Finishing issues” refers to what?

A

Post-printing problems related to additional functionalities offered by some office printers, such as stapling documents or punching holes in printouts.

328
Q

What actions would you take to troubleshoot intermittent wireless connectivity issues?

A
  1. Check physical connections
  2. Increase signal strength
  3. Configure a WAP to operate on a different wireless channel
  4. Check for interference from wireless devices
  5. Check the network’s performance on a different frequency band
  6. Reduce the number of wireless devices using up available bandwidth on the networkW
329
Q

Which symptoms might be the cause of slow network speeds? (5 answers)

A
  1. Older cabling not supporting higher transfer rates
  2. Network congestion
  3. Local applications using up large amounts of bandwidth
  4. Malfunctioning network hardware
  5. Network device misconfigurations
330
Q

What tool allows you to identify a bad port on a network device?

A

Loopback plug

331
Q

The functionality of a Network Interface Card (NIC) can be checked by pinging what?

A
  1. localhost
  2. ::1
  3. 127.0.0.1
332
Q

An IPv4 address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicated a problem with what type of service?

A

DHCP

333
Q

A network admin can ping remote host by its IP address, but not by its domain name. What is the most probably source of this problem?

A

DNS

334
Q

In Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) communication, what term refers to a data packet delay that adversely affects the quality of the transmission?

A

Jitter

335
Q

What term refers to a condition where port light on a network device rapidly alternates between up and down states?

A

Port flapping

336
Q

Which type of network cabling is most susceptible to EMI and RFI?

A

UTP

337
Q

Which type of network cabling provides immunity against EMI and RFI?

A

Fiber optic

338
Q

Which type of expansion card enables communication in 802.11 networks?

A

WLAN

339
Q

What are two examples of biometric authentication methods that can be implemented in modern laptops?

A
  1. Fingerprint scan
  2. Face recognition
340
Q

A very short-range communication method where a wireless signal is sent between two devices that are touching or nearly touching each other is a characteristic feature of what?

A

NFC

341
Q

A technology implemented in modern laptops that enables data transfer and authentication features between the laptop and another portable device at a very close range in known as what?

A

NFC

342
Q

What monitor display features include better contrast and color representation, works without backlight, and lower light output?

A

OLED

343
Q

Where would you find the location of a laptop’s Wi-Fi antenna?

A

Near the top, inside the display case

344
Q

What device is capable of providing both input and output functions?

A

Touch screen

345
Q

What is the function of a digitizer? (3 answers)

A
  1. Translates analog data into a format suitable for computer processing
  2. Component of a mobile device’s screen that allows you to control the device with a stylus or fingertip
  3. A type of input device
346
Q

What is the function of a laptop’s inverter? (2 answers)

A
  1. Used for supplying voltage to backlights in older types of LCD panels
  2. Converts DC power into AC power
347
Q

What is the name of a laptop component that provides the function of a pointing device?

A

Trackpad

348
Q

A database on a mobile device containing bands, sub-bands and service providers IDs allowing the device to establish connection with the right cell phone tower is called what?

A

PRL

349
Q

Which type of software enables a centralized administration of mobile devices?

A

MDM (Mobile Device Management)

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (5 decks)

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