Copy of GMJ JOPA Ex Student Revision notes for all topics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for the movement of people from one country or region to another?

A

Migration

Migration can be voluntary or forced.

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2
Q

What are the main reasons for recent rapid population growth known as ‘population explosion’?

A
  • Improved medical care
  • Improved sanitation and water supply
  • Improvements in food production
  • Improved transport
  • Decrease in child mortality

These factors contribute significantly to increased life expectancy and lower death rates.

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3
Q

Define ‘Carrying Capacity’.

A

The number of people the environment can support without negative effects.

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4
Q

What is ‘Optimum Population’?

A

The amount of people a region can ecologically support, usually less than carrying capacity.

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5
Q

What is ‘Under-population’?

A

When a country has declined too much to support its economic system.

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6
Q

What is ‘Overpopulation’?

A

Too much population in an area leading to overcrowding and depletion of resources.

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7
Q

Where did HIV-1 originate?

A

Central Africa.

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8
Q

Where did HIV-2 originate?

A

West Africa.

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9
Q

What factors lead to high death rates in LEDCs?

A
  • Poor healthcare
  • Poor sanitation
  • Limited food supplies
  • HIV/AIDS
  • Natural disasters
  • Lack of vaccinations

These factors often contribute to a cycle of poverty and health crises.

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10
Q

What causes low birth rates in MEDCs?

A
  • Availability of contraception
  • Education on family planning
  • Economic factors
  • Women’s careers
  • Low infant mortality rate

These factors reflect a shift in societal norms and economic capabilities.

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11
Q

What is the Dependency Ratio formula?

A

Non-economically active / economically active × 100 %.

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12
Q

What are the types of migration?

A
  • Voluntary migration
  • Forced migration
  • Internal migration
  • External migration

These categories reflect the reasons and circumstances behind population movements.

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13
Q

What are the characteristics of a Dispersed settlement pattern?

A

Isolated buildings or small groups of buildings separated by distance.

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14
Q

What is a Nucleated settlement pattern?

A

Buildings grouped together for defense or access to resources.

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15
Q

What does ‘Wet point site’ refer to?

A

Settlements with a good water supply.

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16
Q

What is the Central Business District (CBD)?

A

The area in a city where most business and commerce is located.

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17
Q

List features that identify the CBD.

A
  • High/multi-storey buildings
  • Expensive land values
  • Department stores
  • Cultural/historical buildings
  • Transport centres

The CBD is typically the most accessible and economically vibrant area of a city.

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18
Q

What is the Burgess model?

A

A model representing land use in a city, suggesting high land values in the center.

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19
Q

What are the problems of urban growth for people?

A
  • Overcrowding
  • Job scarcity
  • Inadequate housing
  • Pressure on services
  • Increased crime rates

Urban growth can lead to significant social challenges and a decrease in quality of life.

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20
Q

What is the Oceanic crust?

A

Younger, heavier, can sink, and is constantly being destroyed and replaced.

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21
Q

What happens at Constructive margins?

A

Two plates move away from each other, forming new oceanic crust.

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22
Q

What is the distribution of earthquakes related to?

A

Encircling the Pacific Ocean and extending along the mid-Atlantic Ocean.

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23
Q

True or False: The continental crust can sink.

A

False.

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24
Q

What occurs at collision zones?

A

2 continental crusts collide, neither can sink so forced upwards.

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25
Q

What type of margins do 2 plates move sideways past each other?

A

Conservative margins.

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26
Q

Where do earthquake distributions encircle?

A

The whole of the Pacific Ocean.

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27
Q

What are the main features of a pyroclastic flow?

A

The eruption column can collapse & flow down the volcano at over 200km/hr.

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28
Q

What is a caldera?

A

A large crater formed after a volcanic eruption.

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29
Q

What are lahars?

A

Mud flows formed from ash mixed with water.

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30
Q

What can trigger lahars?

A

• Melting snows
• Heavy rainfall
• Water content of magma
• Mix with ash
• Flow down steep slopes
• Triggered by earthquakes.

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31
Q

What are the problems caused by lahars?

A

• Loss of life
• Destroy buildings/homes
• Inundate farmland
• Disrupt communications
• Damage water pipes
• Occur without warning.

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32
Q

Most volcanoes at constructive boundaries erupt _______.

A

under the ocean.

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33
Q

What is the focus of an earthquake?

A

The point of earthquake.

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34
Q

What is the epicenter of an earthquake?

A

The point directly above the focus, on the ground surface.

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35
Q

What occurs at a subduction zone?

A

One plate goes under the other.

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36
Q

What causes earthquakes?

A

2 plates ‘stick’; pressure builds up; one plate jerks forward sending shock waves.

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37
Q

What characterizes a composite or stratovolcano?

A

Formed by viscous lava with alternating layers of lava and rock fragments.

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38
Q

List the effects and difficulties of earthquakes.

A

• Cost
• Damage to infrastructure
• Homelessness
• Psychological impacts.

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39
Q

What is weathering?

A

The disintegration and decomposition of rocks in situ.

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40
Q

What is physical weathering?

A

Weathering with no change in chemical composition of the rock.

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41
Q

What occurs during freeze-thaw weathering?

A

Repeated freezing and thawing causes cracks in rocks to widen.

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42
Q

What is biological weathering?

A

Roots widen weaknesses in the rock until part of the rock detaches.

43
Q

What is chemical weathering?

A

Weathering that occurs in warm, moist climates involving chemical reactions.

44
Q

What is limestone solution?

A

The process where carbonic acid reacts with calcium carbonate.

45
Q

What is oxidation in the context of weathering?

A

The process where minerals in rocks oxidize in the presence of water.

46
Q

What is a drainage basin?

A

The area of land drained by a river.

47
Q

What is the mouth of a river?

A

The point where the river comes to the end, usually when entering a sea.

48
Q

What are the four processes of river transportation?

A

• Traction
• Saltation
• Suspension
• Solution.

49
Q

Name the four types of river erosion.

A

• Attrition
• Hydraulic action
• Corrasion
• Corrosion.

50
Q

What forms a delta?

A

When a large river carrying a high sediment load loses energy as it enters a lake or sea.

51
Q

What causes flooding in a drainage basin?

A

• Steep-sided channel
• Lack of vegetation
• Impermeable rock
• Urban area.

52
Q

What are the components of waves?

A

• Swash
• Backwash.

53
Q

What is longshore drift?

A

The process of sediment moving along the beach in a zig-zag motion.

54
Q

What is a wave-cut platform?

A

A flat rock surface formed at the foot of a retreating cliff.

55
Q

What is a cave in coastal geography?

A

A hollow formed in the rock due to erosion.

56
Q

True or False: Destructive waves have a strong swash and weak backwash.

57
Q

Fill in the blank: The area within the drainage basin is called the _______.

A

Catchment area.

58
Q

What is a wave-cut notch?

A

A wave-cut notch is formed at the foot of a cliff due to concentrated wave erosion.

59
Q

What happens to a cliff as it is undercut by wave erosion?

A

The cliff collapses and retreats, producing a flat rock platform at the cliff foot.

60
Q

What geological features are formed as a result of erosion on a headland?

A

Caves, arches, and stacks.

61
Q

How is a spit formed?

A

A spit forms when the coastline changes direction and longshore drift carries material in the same direction.

62
Q

What are the conditions required for the growth of coral reefs?

A
  • Warm water above 20°C
  • Shallow water not more than 60 metres deep
  • Clear water free from sediment
  • Plentiful supply of oxygen
  • Plentiful supply of plankton
  • Lack of strong currents
63
Q

What is the primary purpose of a rain gauge?

A

To collect and measure rainfall in millimeters.

64
Q

What does a maximum-minimum thermometer measure?

A

It records the maximum and minimum temperatures over a 24-hour period.

65
Q

What is the function of a wet and dry bulb thermometer?

A

To measure actual air temperature and humidity.

66
Q

What does a barometer measure?

A

Air pressure.

67
Q

What type of cloud is associated with thunderstorms?

A

Cumulonimbus.

68
Q

What is the typical location of tropical rainforests?

A

In a band around the equator between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.

69
Q

What is the annual rainfall amount for tropical rainforests?

A

Exceeds 2000mm.

70
Q

What are the common characteristics of tropical deserts?

A
  • Mean temperature of the hottest month: 30°C
  • Annual rainfall: less than 250mm
  • Strong winds
  • Virtually cloudless skies
71
Q

What are the types of rainfall?

A
  • Convectional rain
  • Frontal rain
  • Relief rain
72
Q

What is the emergent layer in a tropical rainforest?

A

The layer where tall trees grow up to 50m, with few lower branches.

73
Q

What adaptations do desert plants like cacti have?

A
  • Thick, waxy cuticles
  • Fleshy stems to store water
  • Leaves reduced to spines
74
Q

What are the human causes of food shortages?

A
  • Poverty
  • Poor distribution
  • War and civil conflict
  • Overpopulation
75
Q

What is the Green Revolution?

A

The introduction of modern farming methods to increase food production in poorer countries.

76
Q

What are the three parts of an agricultural system?

A
  • Inputs
  • Processes
  • Outputs
77
Q

What are the classifications of farming types?

A
  • Specialisation (arable, pastoral, mixed)
  • Economic Status (commercial, subsistence)
  • Intensity of land use (extensive, intensive)
78
Q

True or False: Tropical rainforests have a high annual temperature range.

79
Q

Fill in the blank: Coral reefs can form into a _______ as they grow around sinking islands.

A

coral atoll

80
Q

What are the inputs in the industrial system?

A

Physical (natural) resources such as coal and iron ore, and human/economic (artificial) resources such as labor and costs.

81
Q

What are the processes in the industrial system?

A

Turning raw materials into usable products and assembling parts made by other industries.

82
Q

What are the outputs in the industrial system?

A

Profit or loss, waste materials (e.g., slag), and products for sale.

83
Q

What factors influence farming?

A
  • Temperature
  • Adequate growing season
  • Sufficient rainfall or irrigation
  • Sunshine for crops
  • Risk of waterlogging or flooding
  • Frost and winter conditions
  • Wind and the need for windbreaks
84
Q

Define primary industry.

A

An industry that extracts raw materials directly from the land or sea, such as farming, fishing, forestry, and mining.

85
Q

What is secondary industry?

A

An industry that processes or manufactures primary raw materials or assembles parts made by other industries.

86
Q

What characterizes tertiary industry?

A

An occupation that provides services to people, such as health, education, transport, and retailing.

87
Q

True or False: The tertiary sector is the main growth area in MEDCs.

88
Q

What is the employment structure of an LEDC like Ghana?

A

The majority of people work in the primary sector due to a lack of machinery and factories.

89
Q

What are the three classifications of farming types?

A
  • Specialisation: arable, pastoral, mixed
  • Economic Status: commercial, subsistence
  • Intensity of land use: extensive, intensive
90
Q

Fill in the blank: Non-renewable resources are ______.

91
Q

List some renewable energy supplies.

A
  • Geothermal
  • Wind
  • Solar
  • Biofuel
  • Hydroelectric
  • Tidal
92
Q

What are the advantages of renewable energy supplies?

A
  • Reduce dependence on fossil fuels
  • Alleviate the world’s energy crisis
  • Offer opportunities for alternative energy sources
  • Do not pollute
  • Do not add to global warming
  • Last forever
93
Q

What is a thermal power station?

A

A facility where fuel is burned in a boiler to convert water to steam, which drives a turbine to produce electricity.

94
Q

What are the disadvantages of tourism?

A
  • Seasonal unemployment
  • Under-use of facilities at certain times
  • Increased congestion and pollution
  • Shortage of services
  • Social/cultural problems
  • Damage to the physical landscape
95
Q

What are the environmental risks associated with resource extraction?

A
  • Soil erosion
  • Global warming
  • Air pollution
  • Water pollution
  • Visual pollution
  • Noise pollution
96
Q

What is global warming?

A

The warming of Earth’s surface and lower atmosphere due to excessive greenhouse gases.

97
Q

List the greenhouse gases.

A
  • CO2 from burning fossil fuels
  • Methane from organic decomposition
  • CFCs from aerosols and air conditioning
  • Nitrous oxide from exhaust and fertilizers
98
Q

What is the significance of renewable resources?

A

They are sustainable and provide continuous energy without polluting.

99
Q

What are the benefits of tourism?

A
  • Growth in income
  • Increase in foreign exchange
  • Employment opportunities
  • Development of infrastructure
  • Cultural advantages
100
Q

What factors affect the growth of tourism in an area?

A
  • Accessibility
  • Scenery
  • Climate
  • Accommodation
  • Amenities
  • Sustainability
101
Q

What are the physical factors for locating an industry?

A
  • Power/energy proximity
  • Natural transport routes
  • Site and land availability
102
Q

What are human and economic factors for locating an industry?

A
  • Labor quantity and quality
  • Capital
  • Market size and location
  • Transport costs
  • Government policies
  • Improved technology
103
Q

Fill in the blank: The majority of employment in a NIC like Brazil is in the ______ sector.

104
Q

True or False: High-tech industries need to be located near raw materials.