Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

restudy > COPR > Flashcards

COPR Flashcards

1
Q

What is hematemsis?

A

Vomiting blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a normal HCO3- value?

A

22 - 26 mEq/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an oblique fracture?

A

A break in a bone running across it at an angle other than 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of salbutamol?

A

Selective B-2 stimulation allows for smooth muscle relaxation of the bronchioles. Has some B-1 effects, causing an increase in HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is bradypnea?

A

Slow breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the four indications for the usage of haloperidol?

A
  • Acute psychosis
  • Chronic psychosis
  • Aggressive behaviour
  • Agitated behaviour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the mechanism of action of haloperidol?

A

Blocks post synaptic dopamine receptors in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is afterload?

A

The pressure or resistance against which the ventricles must pump to eject blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of diazepam?

A
  1. 1-0.3 mg/kg IV/IM q 5 minutes PRN

0. 5 mg/kg PR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is slander?

A

The act of injuring a person’s character, name or reputation by false or malicious states spoken with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a prolapsed cord presentation?

A

Occurs when the umbilical cord precedes the fetal presenting part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Malfeasance?

A

A breach of duty by performance of a wrongful or unlawful act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of epinepherine for bradycardia/VF/VT/PEA/asystole?

A

0.01 mg/kg IV (1:10000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of epinepherine for asthma/anaphylaxis?

A

0.01 mg/kg (1:1000) IM/SQ max 0.5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the five contraindications for the usage of sodium bicarbonate?

A
  • Alkalosis
  • Severe pulmonary edema
  • ABD pain of unknown origin
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypernatremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Beck’s triad represent?

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are two causes of hyperpnea?

A
  • Emotional stress

- Diabetic ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the classification of ketamine? (4)

A
  • Hypnotic
  • Amnesic
  • Analgesic
  • Anesthetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is mandated reporting?

A

Spousal abuse, child abuse/neglect, elder abuse, sexual assault, GSW’s, stabbings, animal bites, communicable diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a bruit?

A

The sound of turbulent blood flow around a partial obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are four contraindications for the usage of calcium chloride?

A
  • VF
  • Digitalis toxicity
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Renal or cardiac disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the three contraindications of ASA?

A
  • GI bleed
  • Asthmatics sensitive to ASA
  • Hypersensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a bulla?

A

Vesicle with a diameter greater than 1cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is lordosis?

A

Exaggerated lumbar concavity (swayback)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the classification of haloperidol?

A

Antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are eight predictors of serious internal injury?

A
  • Ejection from vehicle
  • Death in same passenger compartment
  • Fall from higher than 6m
  • Rollover of vehicle
  • High-speed vehicle collision
  • Auto-ped collision
  • Motorcycle crash
  • Penetration of head, chest or abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the function of the olfactory nerve?

A

Sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the three indications for the usage of atropine?

A
  • Symptomatic bradycardia
  • Organophosphate poisioning
  • Premedication of succinylcholine in children 16 or less years old
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of norepinepherine?

A
  • Severe hypotension

- Vasodilatory shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a muscle sprain?

A

It is the tearing of a joint capsule’s connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the contraindication of the usage of oxytocin?

A

Uterine or cervical surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is PEEP?

A
  • Positive End Expiratory Pressure
  • Prevents alveoli from closing, achieves lung recruitment, but too much can decrease blood return to the heart, decreasing cardiac output
  • Natural, physiological PEEP is 5cmH20
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is bronchophony?

A

Abnormal clarity of patient’s transmitted voice sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is summarization used as a feedback technique?

A

Briefly review the interview and your interpretation of the situation. Ask open-ended questions, if needed, to allow the patient to clarify details

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a normal PR interval?

A

0.12-0.20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two contraindication for the usage of salbutamol?

A
  • Hypersensitivity

- Ischemic chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How quick does the respiratory system work when acting as a buffer?

A

Minutes to hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are four examples of vasodilator anti-hypertensive medications?

A
  • Diazoxide (Hyperstat IV)
  • Hydralazine (Apresoline)
  • Minoxidil (Loniten)
  • Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride, Nitropress)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is an occiput posterior presentation?

A

Occurs when the infant’s face is facing the mother’s front during the descent through the birth canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Auto-PEEP?

A

It occurs when the pressure at the end of the exhalation does not return to the baseline pressure, causing increased thoracic pressure resulting in decreased blood return to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does it mean to be biphasic?

A

A waveform that is partly positive and partly negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the four T’s of emergency care?

A

Triage, Treatment, Transport, Transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does it mean to be competent?

A

It is the ability to make an informed decision about medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the classification of norepinephrine?

A

Sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is interpretation used as a feedback technique?

A

State your interpretation of the information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the cylinder factor of an H tank?

A

3.14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the dopamine infusion dosage for ROSC in ACLS?

A

5-10mcg/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of magnesium sulfate for patients with TDP/Hypomagnesemia/Refractory VF?

A

25 - 50 mg/kg IV/IO mixed in 5ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are four contraindications for the usage of nitroglycerin?

A
  • Hypotension (SBP < 90 mmHg)
  • Severe bradycardia/tachycardia
  • Increased ICP or intracranial hemorrhage
  • ED medications in the past 24 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metoprolol?

A

Beta I receptor blockade resulting in negative chronotropic, inotropic, and dromotropic response. End result is a decrease in myocardial oxygen consumption and work load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

According to ACLS, what is the joule dosage for wide regular tachycardia?

A

100J

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of ketorolac?

A

0.5 mg/kg IM/IV q 4 - 6 hrs, max 30 mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the classification of salbutamol? (2)

A
  • Bronchodilator

- Sympathomimetic B-2 agonish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the four components of the patient assessment?

A
  • Primary assessment
  • Focused history and secondary assessment
  • Ongoing assessment
  • Detained secondary assessment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of metoclopramide?

A

0.15 mg/kg IM/IV max 10 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the impartiality test?

A

Asks whether you would be willing to undergo this procedure or action if you were in the patient’s place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is mechanical ventilation?

A

It serves to support or improve patients ventilation system, oxygenation while minimizing lung injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the dosage of magnesium sulfate for patients experiencing status asthmaticus/severe bronchospasm?

A

2 g in 100 ml NS over 10 - 30 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of hydromorphone?

A

0.01 - 0.02 mg/kg SQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the pediatric dose for midazolam?

A

0.05 - 0.2 mg/kg IV/IM/IN titrate to effect. Max 2.5 mg IV, max 5 mg IM/IN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the two disorders of an acid-base imbalance?

A
  • Acidosis

- Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is pulse quality?

A

The strength, which can be weak, thready, strong or bounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the three classifications of dimenhydrinate?

A
  • Antiemetic
  • Antihistamine
  • Anticholinergic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

Persistent hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion due to cardiac dysfunction in the presence of adequate intravascular volume and left ventricle filling pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are three elements of nonverbal communication?

A
  • distance
  • relative level
  • stance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is compliance?

A

How easily the lungs expand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the mechanism of action of norepinepherine? (5)

A
  • Stimulates alpha and beta receptors, primarily alpha
    • inotrope
    • chronotrope
  • Increases coronary artery blood flow
  • Causes severe vasoconstriction (increasing SVR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is indication for the usage of naloxone?

A

Decreased LOC and respiratory depression in a suspected opioid overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the adult dosage for glucagon when facing a beta blocker overdose?

A

2 - 5 mg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is an impacted fracture?

A

It is a break in a bone in which the bone is compressed on itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the mechanism of action of naloxone?

A

It displaces opioids from receptors, reversing the effects of narcotic overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the pediatric nebulized dosage of Atrovent?

A

125 - 250 mcg mixed with ventolin and/or NS to a minimum of 2cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are five other delivery complications?

A
  • Multiple births
  • Cephalopelvic disproportion
  • Precipitous delivery
  • Shoulder dystocia
  • Meconium staining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What lab value of an ABG will represent the metabolic system is responsible for the disorder?

A

HCO3- level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the cylinder factor of an E tank?

A

0.28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is metabolic acidosis?

A

It is a condition that occurs when the body produces excessive quantities of acid or when the kidneys are not removing enough acid from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is systole?

A

The contraction of the heart (usually referring to ventricular contraction) during which blood is propelled into the pulmonary arteries and aorta; when the term is used without reference to a specific chamber of the heart, the term implies ventricular systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the four contraindications for the usage of meperidine?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Undiagnosed abdominal pain
  • Head injury
  • MAO inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What does decorticate mean?

A

Arms flexed, legs extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the classification of etomidate? (2)

A
  • Sedative

- Hypnotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are nine signs of inadequate breathing?

A
  • Altered mental status
  • SOB
  • Retractions
  • Asymmetric chest wall movement
  • Accessory muscle use
  • Cyanosis
  • Audible sounds
  • Abnormal rate or pattern
  • Nasal flaring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the mechanism of action of calcium chloride? (3)

A
  • Essential component for functional integrity of nervous and muscular systems
  • Enhances automaticity
  • Positive inotrope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are four examples of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor medications?

A
  • Captopril (Capoten)
  • Enalapril (Vasotec)
  • Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
  • Ramipril (Altace)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How much blood may be lost from a femur fracture?

A

1500ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

According to ACLS, what is the joule dosage for narrow irrgeular tachycardia?

A

120-200J biphasic

200J monophasic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

Microorganisms capable of producing disease, such as bacteria or viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is muscle cramping?

A

It is muscle pain resulting from overactivity, lack of oxygen, and accumulation of waste products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

It is a condition in which increased respiration elevates the blood pH beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45) with a concurrent reduction in arterial levels of carbon dioxide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the pediatric MDI dosage of Atrovent?

A

1 - 2 puffs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is an arterial line?

A

An angiocatheter is inserted into an artery to monitor real-time blood pressure and to obtain samples for arterial blood gas measurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of diphenhydramine?

A

1-2 mg/kg IM/IV/IO (max 50mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the mechanism of action of glucagon? (2)

A
  • Stimulates the release of glycogen from the liver, for glycogenolysis
  • Smooth muscle relaxant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the medical director?

A

A physician who is legally responsible for all the clinical and patient-care aspects of an EMS system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the atrioventricular (AV) valves?

A

Valves in the heart that separate the atria from the ventricles; the tricuspid valve separates the right atrium and the right ventricle, the mitral valve separates the left atrium and left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the six indications for the usage of calcium chloride?

A
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • CCB overdose
  • Hypomagnesaemia
  • Respiratory depression of after administration of MgSO4
  • To prevent hypotension from calcium channel blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is borborygmi

A

Loud, prolonged, gurgling bowel sounds indicating hyperperistalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the membrane potential?

A

The difference in electrical charge across the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the respiratory effort?

A

It is how hard the patient works to breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What lab value of an ABG will represent the respiratory system is responsible for the disorder?

A

PaCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is PIP?

A
  • Peek Inspiratory Pressure
  • Greatest pressure measured during the inspiratory phase. The pressure is used to deliver the tidal volume by overcoming the non-elastic (airways) and the elastic (lung parenchyma) resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

According to ACLS, what is the joule dosage for wide irregular tachycardia?

A

Defibrillation dose (do not sync)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is atrophy?

A

Skin surface thins and markings disappear, semitransparent parchment like appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is diastole?

A

Phase of cardiac cycle when ventricles relax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the relative refractory period?

A

It corresponds with the downslope of the T wave; cardiac cells can be stimulated to depolarize if the stimulus is strong enough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the classification of pancuronium?

A

Neuromuscular-blocking agent (Non-depolarizing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is defamation?

A

An intentional false communication that injures another person’s reputation or good name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the pediatric dosage for organophosphate poisoning of atropine?

A

0.05mg/kg IV/IM/ETT, repeat q 10-20 min to decrease signs and symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is Vt?

A
  • Tidal volume

- Volume of gas inhaled/exhaled for one respiratory cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the two causes of acid-base disorders?

A
  • Respiratory

- Metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are four physicial assessment techniques?

A
  • Inspection
  • Palpation
  • Percussion
  • Auscultation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How is explanation used as a feedback technique?

A

Share factual or objective information related to the message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the three main chemical buffers?

A
  • Bicarbonate
  • Phosphate
  • Protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the four indications for the usage of furosemide?

A
  • Circulatory overload due to:
  • acute pulmonary edema
  • CHF
  • Hypertensive emergency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is perfusion?

A

The passage of blood through an organ or tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of dobutamine?

A
  • Decreased heart function due to cardiac contractility

- Systolic BP 70-100mmHg with no signs of shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the classification of amiodraone?

A

Antidysrhythmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is a dislocation?

A

It is a complete displacement of a bone end from its position in a joint capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

A pulse rate faster than 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the apex of the heart?

A

The lower portion of the heart, the tip of the ventricles (approximately the level of the fifth left inter-coastal space); points leftward, downward and forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are three patient responses to questioning?

A
  • pour out information easily
  • reveal some things and conceal others
  • resist responding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the classification of oxytocin? (4)

A
  • Hormone
  • Uterine stimulant
  • Oxytocic
  • Uterotonic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the BLS adult HCP algorithm?

A
  • Pt is unresponsive
  • Activate emergency response and get an AED
  • Check pulse Is there a definite pulse within 10 seconds
  • Begin CPR 30:2
  • AED arrives
  • Check rhythm
  • If shockable, give 1 shock and resume CPR
  • If not shockable, resume CPR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is a papule?

A

Elevated firm spot with varying color from brown to red or pink to purpilish red and has a diameter less than 1cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is peripheral vascular resistance?

A

The resistance of the flow of blood determined by blood vessel diameter and the tone of the vascular musculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

The amount of air one breath moves into and out of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is Ti?

A
  • Inspiratory time
  • Can fluctuate to achieve adequate Vt.
  • ## Long Ti is utilized to give more time to deliver the Vt, increasing alveolar distension and gas exchange
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is cultural imposition?

A

The imposition of your beliefs, values, and patterns of behaviour on people of another culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is Administrative Law?

A

A law that is enacted by governmental agencies at either the federal/provincial/territorial level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the adult dosage for dopamine?

A

2-20 mcg/kg/min IV. Start slow and titrate quickly as necessary for desired effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is percussion?

A

The production of sound waves by striking one object against another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the adult nebulized dosage of Atrovent?

A

250 - 500 mcg mixed with ventolin q 20 minutes x3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are four abnormal delivery presentations?

A
  • Breech presentation
  • Prolapsed cord
  • Limb presentation
  • Occiput posterior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the infant nebulized dosage of salbutamol?

A

1.25 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the classification of enoxaparin?

A

Anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is pulse rate?

A

The number of pulses felt in one minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is Biot’s respirations?

A

It is rapid, deep respirations (gasping) with short pauses between sets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is Confidentiality?

A

The principle of law that prohibits the release of medical or other personal information about a patient without the patient’s consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

According to ACLS, what is the dosage of amiodarone in tachycardia with a pulse?

A

150mg over 10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the mechanism of action of renin blocker medications?

A

Reduces blood pressure by blocking renin stimulation of angiotensinogen and inhibiting the RAAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the mechanism of action of hydromorphone? (3)

A
  • Hydrogenated ketone derivative of morphine that acts as a narcotic analgesic. It has a shorter duration of action than morphine. It is approximately 8 times more potent on a milligram basis than morphine.
  • Exerts its principal pharmacological effect on the CNS and GI tract. Binds to opiod receptors ( mu and delta) in the CNS producing analgesia and euphoria
  • Multiple actions but works primarily on the CNS and organs containing the smooth muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What does the QRS complex represent?

A

Ventricular depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the classification of acetaminophen?

A
  • Analgesic

- Antipyretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the classification of clopidogrel?

A

Antiplatelet agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the indication for the usage of etomidate?

A

Induction for RSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the most common cause of right ventricular failure?

A

Left ventricular failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is Proximate Cause?

A

Action or inaction of the paramedic that immediately caused or worsened the damage suffered by the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is hypothermia?

A

Decrease in the body’s core temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What are the three contraindications to the usage of acetaminophen?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Liver disease
  • Major burns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the four indications of amiodarone?

A
  • Refractory VF/pulseless VT
  • Polymorphic VT and wide complex tachycardia of unknown origin
  • Control of hemodynamically stable VT
  • Runs of VT post cardiac arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is feedback?

A

A response to a message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are the H’s and T’s?

A
  • Hypovolemia
  • Hypoxia
  • Hydrogen ions (acidosis)
  • Hypo/hyperkalemia
  • Hypothermia
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Tamponade, cardiac
  • Toxins
  • Thrombosis, pulmonary
  • Thrombosis, coronary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is cleaning?

A

Washing an object with such cleaners as soap and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is turgor?

A

The normal tension of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are the two adult dosages of adenosine?

A
  • 6mg rapid IV push

- 12mg rapid IV push

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is the peak systolic pressure?

A

Opening of the aortic valve during LV systole, allows blood to rapidly eject into the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What are nine feedback techniques?

A
  • silence
  • reflection
  • facilitation
  • empathy
  • clarification
  • confrontation
  • interpretation
  • explanation
  • summarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel?

A

Inhibits the P2Y12 of ADP receptor on the platelet which inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking the activation of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are the semilunar valves?

A

The valves in the heart that are shaped like half-moons; the pulmonic valve prevents the backflow of blood from the pulmonary arteries into the right ventricle; the aortic valve prevents the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What is the adult dosage of propofol?

A

25 - 75 mcg/kg IV as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of dimenhydrinate?

A

1.0 mg/kg IV/IM max 25mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is hypernatremia?

A

Higher than normal sodium level in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is the classification of adenosine?

A

Antidysrhythmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is a normal female systolic blood pressure before menopause?

A

110-140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

It is a condition that occurs when the lungs are unable to remove enough of the carbon dioxide (CO2) produced by the body. Excess CO2 causes the pH of the blood and other bodily fluids to decrease, making them to acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

If it is noted the pt has symptomatic tachycardia, what is the next step?

A

Synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is hyponatremia?

A

Lower than normal sodium level in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood ejected from a ventricle with each heartbeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is the classification of fentanyl?

A

Narcotic analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What are the three contraindications for the usage of TXA?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Active thromboembolic disease (PE, CVA, DVT)
  • Unable to initiate bolus within the time limit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is heart failure?

A

A condition in which the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What is gravidity?

A

Number of times a woman has been pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What is the adult IV dosage of meperidine?

A

25 - 50 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is intrinsic PEEP?

A

Inadvertently applied PEEP caused from air trapping or over inflated lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is the respiratory rate?

A

The number of times a patient breathes in one minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is a fissure?

A

Linear red crack ranging into the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is excoriation?

A

A linear, may be hollow or crusted, caused by a loss of epidermis leaving the dermis exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is the adult dosage for glucagon when facing an esophageal foreign body?

A

1 mg IM/IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

How is facilitation used as a feedback technique?

A

It encourages the speaker to provide more information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What are the two contraindications for the usage of magnesium sulfate?

A
  • Heart block

- Myocardial damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What is MAP?

A
  • Mean Airway Pressure
  • Effects oxygenation and influences ventilation: too high ventilation may drop due to decreased compliance from overdistension, too low hypoventilation may occur due to atelectasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What is the adult IM dosage of morphine?

A

5 - 10 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

It is the development of seizures in a woman with severe preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What are the four contraindications for the usage of ketamine?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Increased ICP
  • Seizure disorder
  • Uncontrolled HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is the mechanism of action of meperidine? (3)

A
  • Less potent then morphine; 60 - 80 mg of meperidine roughly equivalent to 10 mg of morphine
  • CNS depressant, providing both analgesia and sedation
  • Does not have the hemodynamic properties as morphine but has the tendency for physical depedence and abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Refers to the abnormal implantation of the fertilized eggs outside of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is erosion?

A

A depression in the epidermis, caused by tissue loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is the classification of metoprolol?

A

Beta-adrenergic receptor blocking agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What is subcutaneous emphysema?

A

Crackling sensation caused by air just underneath the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What is hypertension?

A

A blood pressure higher than normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

The presence of a blood clot in the pulmonary vascular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What are the three indications for the usage of glucagon?

A
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Beta blocker overdose
  • Esophageal foreign body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is nulligravida?

A

Woman who has not been pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is the adult maintenance dosage of amiodarone?

A

1mg/min over 6 hours 150mg in 250ml NS infuse at 100ml/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What is the dosage of etomidate?

A

0.1-0.3 mg/kg over 15-30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What are myocardial cells?

A

They are working cells of the myocardium that contain contractile filaments and form the muscular layer of the atrial walls and the thicker muscular layer of the ventricular walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is hyperpnea?

A

It is a normal rate, but with deep respiration’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

How is reflection used as a feedback technique?

A

To check your understanding and to reassure the speaker, echo her message back to her using your own words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What is apnea?

A

It is an absence of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What is a closed fracture?

A

A broken bone in which the bone ends or the forces that caused the break do not penetrate the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tenecteplase?

A

Converts thrombus-bound plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades the fibrin matrix of the thrombus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

According to ACLS, if the QRS is equal to or greater than 0.12 seconds, what are the next four steps?

A
  • IV access and 12 lead if available
  • Consider adenosine only if regular and monomorphic
  • Consider antiarrhythmic infusion
  • Consider expert consultation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What are four causes of bleeding during pregnancy?

A
  • Abortion
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Placenta previa
  • Abruptio placentae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What are three indications for the usage of nitroglycerin?

A
  • Possible ischemia due to:
    • Unstable angina
    • AMI
  • Pulmonary edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What are eight contraindications for the usage of enoxaparin?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Hemophilia
  • Severe liver damage
  • Shock
  • Active bleeding
  • IM injections
  • History of heparin induced thrombocytopenia
  • Do not use concurrently with unfractionated heparin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What is hypokalemia?

A

Lower than normal potassium level in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What are four causes of tachypnea?

A
  • Fever
  • Anxiety
  • Exercise
  • Shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What is a postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Is the loss of 500cc or more blood immediately following the delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What is ascites?

A

Bulges in the flanks and across the abdomen, indicating edema caused by congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

What are four examples of central adrenergic inhibitor anti-hypertensives?

A
  • Cloninide (Catapres)
  • Methyldopa (Aldomet)
  • Guanabenz (Wytensin)
  • Guanfacine (Tenex)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What are the five indications for the usage of epinepherine?

A
  • Symptomatic bradycardia
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Severe asthma
  • Croup/stridor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What is the indication for the usage of pancuronium?

A

Achieve paralysis to facilitate endotracheal intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What are the three regulating systems that maintain the body’s pH?

A
  • Chemical buffer
  • Respiratory system
  • Renal system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What are three causes of Kussmaul’s respirations?

A
  • Renal Failure
  • Metabolic Acidosis
  • Diabetic Ketoacidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What are five adventitious breath sounds?

A
  • Crackles
  • Wheezes
  • Rhonchi
  • Stridor
  • Pleural rubs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What are six ways auto-PEEP can be corrected?

A
  • Decreasing inspiratory time
  • Decreasing the respiratory rate
  • Adjusting the pressure support (PS) flow term up
  • Increasing flow rate
  • Bronchodilatory therapy
  • Increasing PEEP level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What is metabolic alkalosis?

A

It is a condition in which the pH of the tissue is elevated beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45). This is a result of decreased hydrogen ion concentration, leading to increased bicarbonate, or alternatively a direct result of increased bicarbonate concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What is the indication of usage for ASA?

A

Acute coronary syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What is spider angioma?

A

Reddish legs radiate from the red spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What is pressure control ventilator mode?

A

Uses constant flow of gas, time cycled serves to administer breaths at fixed intervals, pressure limited to pre-set pressure that once reached remains for the duration of the inspiratory time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What is an open fracture?

A

A broken bone in which the bone ends or the forces that caused the break to penetrate the surrounding skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What is the classification of furosemide?

A

Diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What is preeclampsia?

A
  • It is a condition during pregnancy that is characterized by hypertension and protein in the urine
  • Usually occurs after week 34 and can develop after the baby is born
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

What is Breach of Duty?

A

An action or inaction that violates the standard of care expected from a paramedic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What is the classification of ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)?

A

Anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What are three active listening skills?

A
  • Facilitation
  • Reflection
  • Clarification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

What are four contraindications for the usage of haloperidol?

A
  • Parkinson’s
  • CNS depression, coma
  • Underlying correctable causes
  • Previous history of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

According to the Centre for Conflict Resolution, what are five basic styles to approaching conflict?

A
  • Competing/controlling
  • Avoiding
  • Accommodating
  • Compromising
  • Collaboration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What is the classification of lidocaine?

A

Anti-arrhythmic (Class 1b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What are the three contraindications of the usage of clopidogrel?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Active pathological bleeding
  • Reference to local protocols
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

What is the indication for the usage of TXA?

A

Trauma with all of the following:

  • Less than 3 hours since time of injury
  • Systolic BP < 80 mmHg or HR > 110
  • Suspicion of significant hemorrhagic blood loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

What is the adult dosage of epinepherine for asthma/anaphylaxis?

A

0.3-0.5 mg IM/SQ 1:1000 or 0.1 mg IV 1:10000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of propofol?

A

1.0 mg/kg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

What are crackles?

A

Light crackling, popping, non-musical sounds heard usually during inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What is the volume control ventilator mode?

A

Tidal volume is maintained at the expense of peak airway pressure, increasing the risk of barotrauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

What occurs with a cephalopelvic disproportion?

A

Occurs when the infant’s head is too big to pass through the maternal pelvis easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

What is the mechanism of action of beta adrenergic blocker anti-hypertensives?

A

Competes with epinepherine to occupy beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, blood vessels, lungs and CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

Elevated area with a diameter less than 1cm and contains serous fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What is shoulder dystocia?

A

Occurs when the infant’s shoulders are larger than the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

What is the dosage for eclampsia and seizure prophylaxis in pre-eclampsia of magnesium sulfate?

A

2 - 4 g IV/IO in 100 ml over 10 - 30 min with a maintenance infusion of 1g/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vecuronium? (3)

A
  • Skeletal muscle relaxant
  • Paralyzes skeletal muscle including respiratory muscles
  • Acts by competitively binding to nicotinic cholinergic receptors. The binding of vecuronium decreases the opportunity for acetylcholine to bind to the nicotinic receptor at the post junctional membrane of the muscular neural junction. As a result, depolarization is prevented, calcium ions are not released and muscle contraction does not occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of adenosine?

A
  • Stable narrow complex tachycardia

- Monomorphic wide complex tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

What is a normal QT interval?

A

Less than 0.38 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

What is Grey-Turner’s sign?

A

The discoloration over the flanks suggestive of intra-abdominal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

It is hypertrophy of the right ventricle resulting from disorders of the lungs; CHF secondary to pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What are four maternal complications during pregnancy and delivery?

A
  • Postpartum hemorrhage
  • Uterine rupture
  • Uterine inversion
  • Pulmonary embolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

What is the indication for the usage of meperidine?

A

Pain relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

What is multipara?

A

Woman who has delivered more than one baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

What are Korotkoff sounds?

A

The sounds of blood hitting arterial walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

What is the pediatric IV/IM/SQ dose of naloxone?

A

0.1 mg/kg 2- 3 min, max 2.0 mg per dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

A pulse rate slower than 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What is the second dosage of Amiodarone IV/IO used in ACLS?

A

150mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

What is systole?

A

Phase of cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

What is the classification of glucagon?

A

Pancreatic hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

The difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

What is the dosage of clopidogrel for those patients over the age of 75?

A

75mg PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What is the adult dosage of succinylcholine?

A

1.5 mg/kg IV, max dose 150 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What is the adult dosage of diphenhydramine?

A

25-50 mg IM/IV/IO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

What is the main antiarrhythmic infusion that ACLS refers to?

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

What is the normal duration of a QRS complex?

A

0.11 second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

What is the mechanism of action of diphenhydramine? (4)

A
  • Competes with free histamine for binding and blocks H1 histamine receptors
  • Antagonizes the effects of histamine on Histamine (HA) receptors, leading to a reduction of the negative symptoms brought on by histamine
  • CNS depressant
  • Has antiemetic properties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What is a normal pH?

A

7.35 - 7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide? (2)

A
  • Antagonizes central and peripheral dopamine receptors, as well as 5HT4 receptor agonistic properties, which raises the threshold of activity in the chemo-receptor trigger zone, resulting in Antiemetic effects
  • Increases the amplitude and tone of gastric contractions, increases peristalsis and causes accelerated gastric emptying and intestinal tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

What are the two contraindications for the usage of dobutamine?

A
  • Untreated hypovolemia

- Vasodilatory shock (septic, neurogenic, anaphylactic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

What does the P wave represent?

A

Atrial depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

What is the classification of dopamine?

A

Sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

What is right ventricular failure?

A

The right ventricle fails as an effective forward pump, causing back pressure of blood into systemic venous circulation and venous congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

What are three sources of difficult interviews?

A
  • Patient’s physical condition
  • Patient’s fear of talking
  • Patients intentions to deceive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

What is whispered pectoriloquy?

A

Abnormal clarity of patient’s transmitted whispers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

How is silence used as a feedback technique?

A

It gives the patient time to gather her thoughts and add to what has been said

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

What is ischemia?

A

Decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of sodium bicarbonate?

A

1 mEq/kg slow IVP, repeat 0.5 mEq/kg q 10 min PRN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

What are wheezes?

A

Continuous high-pitched musical sounds similar to a whistle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

What is an epiphyseal fracture?

A

A disruption in the epiphyseal plate of a child’s bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

What are six examples of beta adrenergic blocker medications?

A
  • Esmolol (Brevibloc)
  • Propranolol (Inderal)
  • Metoprolol (Lopressor)
  • Nadolol (Corgard)
  • Timolol (Blocadren)
  • Atenolol (Tenormin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

What is purpura?

A

Reddish-purple blotches with a diameter more than 0.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

What is a normal pulse rate?

A

60-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

What is the indication for the usage of propofol?

A

Induction and maintenance of sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

What is the adult dosage of calcium chloride?

A

8-16 mg/kg over 3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

What does DCAP-BTLS stand for?

A
  • Deformities
  • Contusion
  • Abrasions
  • Penetration
  • Burns
  • Tenderness
  • Laceration
  • Swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

What is the contraindication for the usage of dopamine?

A

Untreated hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

What is Parity?

A

The number of pregnancies carried to full term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

What is the mechanism of action of pancuronium? (3)

A
  • Skeletal muscle relaxant
  • Paralyzes skeletal muscles including respiratory muscles
  • Competitive acetylcholine antagonist on neuromuscular junctions displacing the Ach from its post-synaptic nicotinic Ach receptors and causes no spontaneous depolarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

What is the classification of meperidine?

A

Narcotic analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

What is petechiae?

A

Reddish-purple spots with a diameter less than 0.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads:
I, aVL?

A

Lateral (High)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

What is the classification of acetylcysteine?

A

Mucolytic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

What is active listening?

A

The process of responding to your patient’s statements with words or gestures that demonstrate your understanding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

What is the His-Purkinje system?

A

The portion of the conduction system consisting of the bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

What are nine contraindications to the usage of midazolam?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Narrow-angle glaucoma
  • Patients in shock with depressed vital signs
  • Alcoholic coma
  • Myasthenia Gravis
  • Acute pulmonary insufficiency
  • COPD
  • Pregnancy
  • Renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

What is the classification of sodium bicarbonate? (2)

A
  • Alkalinizing agent

- Electrolyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

What is the mechanism of action of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors medications?

A

They reduce blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

How is confrontation used as a feedback technique?

A

Help the patient focus on one particular factor of the interview

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

What is minute ventilation?

A

The amount of gas, in litres, exhaled by the lungs in one minute

  • Determining factors: pH, PaCO2, disease states
  • VE = Vt x RR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

What is the mechanism of action of enoxaparin?

A

Potentiates antithrombin III (which inhibits coagulation) and decreases the formation of thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

What are the three indications for the usage of lidocaine?

A
  • VF/VT
  • Stable VT with a pulse
  • Wide-complex tachycardia of unknown origin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

What is a telangiectasia?

A

Red, thread like line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

What are the three indications for the usage of rocuronium?

A
  • Maintain paralysis post intubation after RSI
  • Maintain patient and crew safety in a combative patient, after patient intubation
  • To ease ventilation and/or oxygenation of intubated patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

What is a normal female systolic blood pressure after menopause?

A

120-150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

What is empathy?

A

Identification with an understanding of another’s situation, feelings, and motives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

What is the adult IV dose of naloxone?

A

0.4 - 2.0 mg IV q 2 - 3 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of amiodarone for VF/pulseless VT?

A

5mg/kg (max 300mg) diluted in 5ml NS rapid IV push. Repeat up to 15mg/kg/24hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

What is the dose of lidocaine for a patient with VF/VT?

A

1.0 mg/kg with subsequent doses of 0.5 mg/kg q 10 min (max 3.0 mg/kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

What is auscultation?

A

Listening with a stethoscope for sounds produced by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

What is ecchymosis

A

Reddish-purple blotches with varying sizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

What is the function of the acoustic nerve?

A

Sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

What is a venous star?

A

Bluish legs that radiate from a blue center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

What is the adult dosage of D50?

A

25g IVP, may repeat once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

What is the adult dose of pancuronium?

A

0.04 - 0.1 mg/kg IV; repeat dose of 0.01 - 0.02 mg/kg q 20 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

What is the symbol for hydrogen?

A

H+

310
Q

What are the four types of patients?

A
  • Trauma patient with significant MOI
  • Trauma patient with isolated injury
  • Responsive medical patient
  • Unresponsive medical patient
311
Q

What is the pediatric dosage for glucagon when facing an esophageal foreign body?

A

0.5 mg IM/IV/SQ (< 20 kg) Max dose 1 mg

312
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dopamine?

A

Stimulates both alpha and beta receptors:
- alpha: increases peripheral vasoconstriction (increases SVR)
- beta: increases heart rate, contractility, stroke volume
Different effects at different doses:
1-3mcg/kg/min: renal and mesenteric perfusion
3-10 mcg/kg/min: mixed alpha and beta effects
10-20 mcg/kg/min: primarily alpha effects

313
Q

What is the Standard of Care?

A

The degree of care, skill, and judgement expected under like or similar circumstances from a similarly trained, reasonable paramedic in the same community

314
Q

What is the mechanism of injury?

A

Combined strength, direction, and nature of forces that injured your patient

315
Q

How is clarification used as a feedback technique?

A

Ask the speaker to help you understand, when you need to eliminate confusion about what has been said

316
Q

What is a fatigue fracture?

A

It is a break in a bone that is associated with prolonged or repeated stresses

317
Q

What is the dosage of vecuronium?

A

0.08 - 0.1 mg/kg

318
Q

What is the mechanism of action of oxytocin?

A

Selectively stimulates the smooth musculature of the uterus, resulting in increased uterine muscle tone and increased frequency and strength of contractions

319
Q

What is abruptio placentae?

A

It is the premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall

  • Poses a life threat to both the baby and the mother
  • Sudden, sharp, tearing like pain in the third trimester are key indicators
320
Q

What is the classification of diazepam?

A

Benzodiazepine

321
Q

What is the pediatric dosage for symptomatic bradycardia of atropine?

A

0.02mg/kg IV q 3-5 min, 0.1 mg minimum dose due to risk of paradoxic bradycardia, max dose 0.5mg for child and 1.0 mg for adolescent

322
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

The difficulty in breathing while lying supine

323
Q

What are three types of joint injury?

A
  • Sprain
  • Subluxation
  • Dislocation
324
Q

What is depolarization?

A

The movement of ions across a cell membrane, causing the inside of the cell to become more positive; an electrical event expected to result in contraction

325
Q

What is a fasicle?

A

A small bundle of nerve fibers

326
Q

What is NIPPV ventilator mode?

A
  • Non Invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation
  • Consists of any form of ventilatory support without ETT. Provides two levels of pressure (I to E) and the Pt’s airway, that is triggered by the pt and/or the ventilator
327
Q

What is somatic pain?

A

It is a type of nociceptive pain that is also referred to as skin, tissue, or muscle pain, the nerves that detect somatic pain are located in the skin and deep tissues

328
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of fentanyl?

A

0.5 - 1 mcg/kg IVP over 3 - 5 min, max 100 mcg

329
Q

What is disinfecting?

A

Cleaning with an agent that can kill some microorganisms on the surface of the object

330
Q

What is nonmalfeasance?

A

The obligation not to harm the patient

331
Q

What are the elements of Negligence?

A

Duty to Act
Breach of that Duty
Actual Damages
Proximate Cause

332
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Lateral curvature of the spine

333
Q

What is hemoptysis?

A

Coughing up blood

334
Q

What is referred pain?

A

It is pain felt in a part of the body other than its actual source

335
Q

What is the dosage of lorazepam for seizures and/or status epilepticus?

A

0.05 mg/kg slow IV push; total single dose 4 mg, repeat q 10-15 minutes to a max of 8 mg

336
Q

What is the adult dosage of rocuronium?

A

0.6 - 1.2 mg/kg IV, repeat q 30 min at 0.1 - 0.2 mg/kg PRN

337
Q

What respiratory sound signals a potentially life-threatening airway obstruction?

A

Stridor

338
Q

What is hyperkalemia?

A

Higher than normal potassium level in blood

339
Q

What are two contraindications to the usage of rocuronium?

A
  • Hypersensitivity

- Unable to ventilation the patient with BVM

340
Q

What are the four contraindications to the usage of metoclopramide?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • GI bleed, mechanical obstruction or perforation
  • Pheochromocytoma, as it may lead to a HTN crisis
  • Seizure disorder
341
Q

What is nullipara?

A

Woman who has yet to deliver her first child

342
Q

What are three indications for the usage of morphine?

A
  • Pain relief
  • AMI/ACS
  • CHF
343
Q

According to ACLS, what defines symptomatic tachycardia?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Altered mental status
  • Signs of shock
  • Ischemic chest discomfort
  • Acute heart failure
344
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of dobutamine?

A

5 mcg/kg/min

345
Q

What is the pediatric IV dosage of meperidine?

A

0.5 mg/kg

346
Q

What is H2CO3?

A

Carbonic acid

347
Q

What is the polarized state?

A

The period after repolarization of a myocardial cell (also called the resting state) when the outside of the cell is positive and the interior of the cell is negative

348
Q

What is hematuria?

A

Blood in the urine

349
Q

What are six indications for the usage of midazolam?

A
  • Procedural sedation
  • Sedation for RSI/RSS
  • Maintenance of sedation post-intubation
  • Anticonvulsant therapy
  • Combative or violent patients
  • MSK injuries in combination with analgesics
350
Q

What is the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?

A

Attaches to cholinergic (nicotinic) receptors of the motor end plate and produces depolarization (may cause fasciculations). Subsequent blockade of impulse transmission is produced as succinylcholine is not rapidly hydrolysed by acetylcholinesterase

351
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

It is a partial fracture of a child’s bone

352
Q

What are normal PaCO2 values?

A

35 - 45 mmHg

353
Q

What is the dosage of enoxaparin for a patient greater than the age of 75?

A
  • 0.75 mg/kg (max 75 mg) SQ (lateral abdomen)

- No IV dose

354
Q

What is the indication for the usage of ketorolac?

A

Moderate to severe pain

355
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dobutamine? (6)

A
  • Stimulates the B1 receptors in the heart resulting in increased cardiac output
  • Increases contractility without inducing marked tachycardia (positive inotrope)
  • Increases stroke volume
  • Some increase in heart rate (positive chronotrope)
  • Decreased systemic vascular resistance
  • Reduces ventricular filling pressure
356
Q

What is the adult dosage of dobutamine?

A

2.5-5mcg/kg/min IV, titrating to SBP of greater than 90

357
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

The amount of blood pumped into the aorta each minute by the heart; defined as the stroke volume multipled by the heart rate

358
Q

What is the dosage of lorazepam for cardioversion?

A

1 - 2 mg slow IVP until desired effect

359
Q

What is the function of the renal system when maintaining the acid-base balance?

A
  • Maintain’s balance by absorbing or excreting acids and bases
  • Kidney’s can produce HCO3- to replenish lost supplies
  • When blood is acidic, kidney’s reabsorb HCO3- and excrete H+
  • When blood is alkaline, the kidney’s excrete HCO3- and retain H+
360
Q

What are ions?

A

Electrically charged particles

361
Q

What are five examples of calcium channel blocker medicaitons?

A
  • Diltiazem (Cardizem)
  • Nicardipine (Cardene)
  • Nifedipine (Procardia/Adalat)
  • Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin)
  • Amlodipine (Norvasc)
362
Q

What is tachypnea?

A

An increased respiratory rate

363
Q

What are the seven mechanisms of action of amiodraone?

A
  • prolongs the cardiac action potential and refractory period
  • inhibits alpha and beta adrenergic stimulation resulting in the relaxation of vascular smooth muscle and decreases peripheral vascular resistance
  • Class I: blocks Na channels, Class II: inhibits sympathetic stimulation, Class III: blocks K channels, Class IV: blocks Ca channels (weakly)
364
Q

How is norepinepherine mixed?

A

4 mg in 250 ml of D5W

365
Q

What is Nonfeasance?

A

A breach of duty by failure to perform a required act or duty

366
Q

What is justice?

A

The obligation to treat all patients fairly

367
Q

What is the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin? (2)

A
  • Relaxes vascular smooth muscle, there by dilating the veins and arterioles, causing blood pooling, which reduces preload
  • Reduces left ventricular systolic wall tension, which decreases afterload
368
Q

What are five areas of neurological exam?

A
  • Mental status and speech
  • Cranial nerves
  • Motor system
  • Sensory system
  • Reflexes
369
Q

What is PS?

A
  • Pressure support
  • Utilized to overcome the WOB (work of breathing) caused by ETT diameter or the pt has difficulty taking a breath
  • Pressure support assists with the WOB by augmenting the Pt’s inspiratory breath
370
Q

What is muscle fatigue?

A

A condition in which a muscle’s ability to respond to stimulation is lost or reduced through overactivity

371
Q

What are the ten contraindications for the usage of succinylcholine?

A
  • Penetrating eye injuries
  • Narrow angle glaucoma
  • Personal or family history of malignant hyperthermia
  • Pseudocholinesterase deficiency (prolonged paralysis)
  • Burns greater than 24 hours old
  • Spinal cord injuries in the acute phase. Greatest risk is 7 - 10 days post injury
  • Multiple trauma after the acute phase. Greatest risk is 7 - 10 days post injury
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Neuromuscular disease
  • Crush injury
372
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ketorolac? (3)

A
  • Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis producing peripherally mediated analgesia, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic effects
  • At analgesia doses, little anti-inflammatory or antipyretic activity seen
  • Acts peripherally vs narcotics, which act upon the CNS, therefore, no CNS depression
373
Q

What is an abortion?

A

It is the termination of pregnancy prior to the 20th week of gestation

374
Q

What are the eleven types of fractures?

A
  • Closed
  • Open
  • Hairline
  • Impacted
  • Transverse
  • Oblique
  • Comminuted
  • Spiral
  • Fatigue
  • Greenstick
  • Epiphyseal
375
Q

What is the indication for the usage of hydromorphone?

A

Moderate to severe pain

376
Q

What are five causes of bradypnea?

A
  • Sleep
  • Drugs
  • Metabolic disorder
  • Head injury
  • Stroke
377
Q

What is the classification of ASA?

A
  • Anti-platelet
  • NSAID
  • Antipyretic
378
Q

What is the classification of succinylcholine?

A

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent

379
Q

What is hypotension?

A

A blood pressure lower than normal

380
Q

What are the three indications for the usage of sodium bicarbonate?

A
  • Wide complex tachycardia or arrest from TCA OD
  • Acidosis
  • Cardiac arrest due to suspected pre-existing hyperkalemia or ASA OD
381
Q

What are the three indications for the usage of dimenhydrinate?

A
  • Nausea/vomiting associated with Meniere’s disease
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Relief or prevention of motion sickness and vertigo
382
Q

What is the adult dosage for organophosphate poisoning of atropine?

A

2 mg IV push q 5 mins titrating dose until symptoms decrease

383
Q

What is the classification of nitroglycerin? (3)

A
  • Antianginal
  • Vascular smooth muscle relaxer
  • Vasodilator
384
Q

What is the mechanism of action of epinepherine? (3)

A
  • Stimulates alpha and beta receptors
    • increases heart rate
    • increases AV conduction
    • increases force of myocardial contractility
    • increases vasoconstriction (increases SVR)
  • Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
  • Increases coronary and cerebral blood flow
385
Q

What does OPQRST-ASPN stand for?

A
  • Onset of problem
  • Provocation/Palliative factors
  • Quality
  • Region/radiation
  • Severity
  • Time
  • Associated Symptoms
  • Pertinent Negatives
386
Q

What is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blocker medication?

A

Blocks the flow of calcium ions through the cell membrane

387
Q

What is atrial kick?

A

Blood pushed into the ventricles because of atrial contraction

388
Q

What is Tort?

A

A civil wrong committed by one individual against another

389
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

A

Sudden shortness of breath at night

390
Q

What is Te?

A
  • Expiratory time

- Adequate amount of time that is required to allow the lungs to empty, thus allowing proper oxygenation

391
Q

What is the second dosage of adenosine?

A

12mg rapid IV push

392
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

Exaggerated thoracic concavity (hunchback)

393
Q

What is the systolic blood pressure?

A

The force of blood against arteries when the ventricles contract

394
Q

What is the classification of lorazepam?

A

Benzodiazepine

395
Q

What is the mechanism of action of morphine? (2)

A
  • Binds with opioid receptors to block the response to and perception of pain
  • Causes peripheral venous vasodilation (decreases SVR)
396
Q

What is hyperthermia?

A

Increase in the body’s core temperature

397
Q

What is the contraindication of D50?

A

Hyperglycemia

398
Q

What is a tumour?

A

Elevated solid, diameter greater than 2cm, may be the same color as the skin

399
Q

What is a patch?

A

An irregular flat maccule with a diameter greater than 1cm

400
Q

What is the classification of epinepherine? (2)

A
  • Sympathomimetic

- Adrenergic

401
Q

What is online medical direction?

A

Occurs when a qualified physician gives direct orders to a prehospital care provider by either radio or telephone

402
Q

What is intermittent claudication?

A

Intermittent calf pain while walking that subsides with rest

403
Q

What is a limb presentation?

A

This is when an arm or leg is the presenting part of a deliver

404
Q

What is a lichenification?

A

A thickening and hardening of the epidermis with emphasized lines on the skin, resembling a lichen

405
Q

What are six elements of patient history?

A
  • Preliminary data
  • Chief complaint
  • Present illness/injury
  • Past history
  • Current health status
  • Review of systems
406
Q

How much fluid is given in the remaining 16 hours of a burn when using the Parkland burn formula?

A

Remaining 50%

407
Q

What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads:
II, III, aVF?

A

Inferior

408
Q

What is the classification of diphenhydramine? (2)

A
  • Antihistamine

- Anticholinergic

409
Q

What is the first dosage of Amiodarone IV/IO used in ACLS?

A

300mg bolus

410
Q

What are pacemaker cells?

A

The specialized cells of the heart’s electrical conduction system, capable of spontaneously generating and conducting electrical impulses

411
Q

What is a pleural friction rub?

A

The sound of squeaking or grating sound of the pleural linings rubbing together

412
Q

What is the classification of tranexamic acid?

A

Anti-fibrinolytic

413
Q

What are the two mechanism of actions of adenosine?

A
  • Slows AV nodal conduction

- Inhibits re-entrant pathways

414
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dexamethasone? (3)

A
  • A synthetic steroid chemically related to the natural hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex
  • Potent anti-inflammatory properties
  • reduces cerebral edema (mechanism and extent is unclear)
415
Q

What is Cullen’s sign?

A

The discoloration around the umbilicus (occasionally the flanks), suggestive of intra-abdominal hemorrhage

416
Q

Where do chemical buffers appear? (3)

A
  • Blood
  • Intracellular fluid
  • Extracellular fluid
417
Q

What is a thrill?

A

Vibration or humming felt when palpating the pulse

418
Q

What is the order of focused history and secondary assessment for major trauma patients?

A
  • Primary assessment
  • Rapid trauma assessment
  • Packaging
  • Rapid transport and ongoing assessment
419
Q

What are the six indications for the usage of magnesium sulfate?

A
  • Seizures due to eclampsia
  • Seizure prophylaxis in pre-eclampsia
  • Torsades de Pointes
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Refractory VF
  • Status asthmaticus/severe bronchospam
420
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ketamine? (2)

A
  • NMDA receptor antagonist

- Produces a dissociative state by direct action on the cortex and limbic system

421
Q

What is eupnea?

A

It is a normal breathing rate and pattern

422
Q

What is nocturia?

A

Excessive urination at night

423
Q

What ion affects pH in the body?

A

Hydrogen

424
Q

What is the mechanism of action of angiotensin II receptor blocker medications?

A

Reduces blood pressure by blocking angiotensin II stimulation and inhibiting Aldosterone release

425
Q

What is the cylinder factor of a D tank?

A

0.16

426
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?

A

It reduces the velocity of electrical impulses by blocking the Na channels of the heart cell thus reducing automaticity and excitability of the conduction system

427
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A
  • Appearance
  • Pulse rate
  • Grimace
  • Activity
  • Respiratory effort
428
Q

What is the SL dosage of nitroglycerin?

A

0.4 mg q 5 min

429
Q

What is Civil Law?

A

The division of the legal system that deals with noncriminal issues and conflicts between two or more parties

430
Q

What is multigravida?

A

Woman who has been pregnant more than once

431
Q

What is rhonchi?

A

Continuous sounds with a lower pitch and a snoring quality

432
Q

What is a pustule?

A

Elevated area, diameter less than 1cm and contains purulent fluid

433
Q

What is respiration?

A

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs and at the cellular level

434
Q

What are the three stages or labour?

A
  • Stage One: Dilation
  • Stage Two: Expulsion
  • Stage Three: Placental
435
Q

What is apneustic respirations?

A

It is a prolonged inspiratory phase with shortened expiratory phase

436
Q

What is the quality of respiration?

A

The depth and pattern of breathing

437
Q

What are the four contraindications for the usage of ketorolac?

A
  • Hypersensitivity to ASA or NSAID
  • Asthmatics due to bronchospastic activity
  • Renal impairment
  • Pt’s at risk for bleeding
438
Q

What are the twelve cranial nerves?

A
  • Olfactory
  • Optic
  • Oculomotor
  • Trochlear
  • Trigeminal
  • Abducens
  • Facial
  • Acoustic
  • Glossopharyngeal
  • Vagus
  • Accessory
  • Hypoglossal
439
Q

What is the adult IV dosage of morphine?

A

2 - 5 mg q 5 - 10 minutes PRN, max 20 mg

440
Q

What is a SAMPLE history?

A
  • Symptoms
  • Allergies
  • Medications
  • Past medical history
  • Last oral intake
  • Events leading up to the incident
441
Q

What is the function of the facial nerve?

A

Sensory & motor

442
Q

What is the classification of vecuronium?

A

Neuromuscular-blocking agent (non-depolarizing)

443
Q

What is permeability?

A

The ability of a membrane channel to allow passage of electrolytes once its open

444
Q

What is the adult dosage of amiodarone for VF/pulseless VT?

A

300mg diluted in 20ml NS, repeated with 300mg

445
Q

What is the function of the accessory nerve?

A

Motor

446
Q

What is grand multiparity?

A

Woman who has delivered more than seven children

447
Q

What is the dosage of lorazepam for acute anxiety?

A

0.5 - 1 mg IV/SL prn

448
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

It is a fracture in which a bone is broken into several piece’s

449
Q

What is the classification of morphine?

A

Narcotic analgesic

450
Q

What occurs when multiple births are presenting?

A

Multiple babies are cooking in the oven

451
Q

What is referred pain?

A

Pain that is felt at a location away from its source

452
Q

What is the indication for the usage of vecuronium?

A

To achieve paralysis to facilitate endotracheal intubation

453
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

The force exerted by the circulating blood volume on the walls of the arteries

454
Q

What is left ventricular heart failure?

A

It occurs when the left ventricle fails as an effective forward pump, which causes back pressure of blood into pulmonary circulation, often resulting in pulmonary edema

455
Q

What is the index of suspicion?

A

Your anticipation of possible injuries based upon your analysis of the event

456
Q

What is SIMV ventilator mode?

A
  • Synchronous Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation

- Set rate but pt can breath spontaneously at own Vt

457
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fentanyl? (2)

A
  • Binds to opiod receptor sites, altering perception of and emotional response to pain
  • Rarely causes a histamine release
458
Q

What is arteriosclerosis?

A

A chronic disease of the arterial system characterized by abnormal thickening and hardening of the vessel walls

459
Q

What is diastole?

A

The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the atria and ventricles relax between contractions and blood enters these chambers; when the term is used without reference to a specific chamber of the heart, the term implies ventricular diastole

460
Q

What are the two pediatric dosages of adenosine?

A
  • 0.1mg/kg rapid IV push (max 6mg)

- 0.2mg/kg rapid IV push (max 12mg)

461
Q

What is the pediatric IV dosage of morphine?

A

0.1 mg/kg IV q 5 - 10 minutes, max 2.5 mg per dose

462
Q

What is the indication for the usage of succinylcholine?

A

Rapid sequence induction

463
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

The force of blood against the arterial walls as the heart contracts and relaxes

464
Q

What are three causes of Biot’s respirations?

A
  • Spinal meningitis
  • Multiple CNS causes
  • Head injury
465
Q

What is the three step dosage of acetylcyseine?

A
  • 150mg/kg in 250ml NS over 15 min
  • 50mg/kg in 500ml NS over 4 hours
  • 100mg/kg in 1000ml NS over 16 hours
466
Q

What are three examples of angiotensin II receptor blocker medications?

A
  • Losartan (Cozaar)
  • Candesartan (Atacand)
  • Valsartan (Diovan)
467
Q

What is the adult dosage of metoclopramide?

A

10 mg IV/IM/SQ q 4 - 6hr

468
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

The force of blood against arteries when ventricles relax

469
Q

What is the classification of tenecteplase?

A

Fibrinolytic

470
Q

What is the age limit for the usage of etomidate?

A

Not to be used in patients less than 10 years of age

471
Q

What is the function of the abducens nerve?

A

Motor

472
Q

What is concordance?

A

ST segments and T waves that deflect in the same direction as the terminal (last) waveform of the QRS complex in a bundle branch block

473
Q

What is palpation?

A

Using your sense of touch to gather information

474
Q

What is the cylinder factor of an M tank?

A

1.56

475
Q

What is an acid?

A

It is a substance that donates H+ to the base

476
Q

What is the classification of dexamethasone?

A

Corticosteriod

477
Q

What is the Parkland burn formula as used for pediatrics?

A

0.5ml x patient weight in Kg x BSA burned

478
Q

What is the classification of ketorolac?

A

NSAID

479
Q

What are the six P’s in evaluating a limb injury?

A
  • Pain
  • Pallor
  • Paralysis
  • Paresthesia
  • Pressure
  • Pulses
480
Q

What is the indication for the usage of tenecteplase?

A

STEMI

481
Q

What is the pediatric dosage for glucagon when facing hypoglycemia?

A

0.5 mg IM/IV/SQ (< 20kg)

482
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

Occurs as the result of abnormal implantation on the lower half of the uterine wall, resulting in partial or complete coverage of the cervical opening
Presents with painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester

483
Q

What is the adult dosage of amiodarone for VT/WCT (stable)?

A

150mg in 50ml NS over 10 min

484
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of Atrovent?

A
  • Bronchial asthma

- Bronchospasm associated with COPD

485
Q

What is one cause of apneuistic respirations?

A
  • Lesion on the brain stem
486
Q

What are the three lab values needed to analysis an ABG?

A
  • pH
  • PaCO2
  • HCO3-
487
Q

What is the classification of thiamine?

A

Vitamin B1

488
Q

How is empathy used as a feedback technique?

A

Lets your body language show that you understand so that the patient feels accepted and more open to talking

489
Q

What is the pediatric IM dosage of morphine?

A

0.1 mg/kg, max 5 mg per dose

490
Q

What is the function of the trochlear nerve?

A

Motor

491
Q

What is repolarization?

A

The movement of ions across a cell membrane in which the inside of the cell is restored to its negative charge

492
Q

What is the primary assessment?

A

Pre-hospital process designated to identify and correct life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulation problems

493
Q

What happens in the third stage of labour?

A

Begins immediately after the birth of the infant and ends with the delivery of the placenta

494
Q

What is the adult MDI dosage of Atrovent?

A

2 - 4 puffs q 20 minutes x3

495
Q

What is a uterine inversion?

A

It occurs when the uterus turns inside out after the delivery and extends through the cervix

496
Q

What is AC ventilator mode?

A
  • Assist/control
  • Synchronized, senses spontaneous breaths but with mandatory minimum set rate, all breaths are a full assisted ventilators breath
497
Q

What is the dosage of dexamethasone?

A
  • 8-12mg IVP is common

- 4 - 24mg IVP is usual IV/IM

498
Q

What is licensure?

A

The process by which a regulatory agency grants permission to engage in a given occupation to an applicant who has attained the degree of competency required to ensure the public’s protection

499
Q

What does AVPU stand for?

A

Alert
Verbal stimuli
Painful stimuli
Unresponsive

500
Q

What is a muscle spasm?

A

It is an intermittent or continuous contraction of a muscle

501
Q

What is a lesion?

A

Any disruption in normal tissue

502
Q

What is a normal respiratory rate?

A

12-20

503
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of thiamine?

A
  • Coma of unknown origin, especially if alcohol may be involved
  • Delirium tremens
504
Q

What is a normal male systolic blood pressure?

A

120-150

505
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of D50?

A

0.5-1g/kg slow IVP, dilute 1:1 with sterile water (NS can be used if no sterile water is available) forming D25W

506
Q

What are three causes of apnea?

A
  • Decreased patient effort
  • Head injury
  • Stroke
507
Q

What is the mechanism of action of thiamine?

A

Combines with ATP to form thiamine pyrophosphate, a coenzyme required for carbohydrate and fat metabolism

508
Q

What are seven ways to build trust and rapport?

A
  • Use the patient’s name
  • Address the patient properly
  • Modulate your voice
  • Use a professional but compassionate tone
  • Explain what you are doing and why
  • Keep a kind, calm expression
  • Use an appropriate style of communication
509
Q

What is Constitutional law?

A

It is law based on the Canadian Constitution

510
Q

What is a keloid?

A

An elevated scar with irregular shape and is larger than the original wound

511
Q

How much blood may be lost from a pelvic fracture?

A

2000 ml

512
Q

What is pH?

A

It reflects the overall H+ concentration in the body fluids

513
Q

What is Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

A

It is gradual increases and decreases in respirations with periods of apnea

514
Q

What are the three contraindications for the usage of adenosine?

A
  • Poison/drug induced tachycardia
  • Polymorphic wide complex tachycardia
  • Hypersensitivity
515
Q

What is the mechanism of action of furosemide? (2)

A
  • Loop diuretic, inhibits reabsorption of sodium (and other electrolytes) and water
  • Initially causes vasodilation, increasing venous capacitance (decreases SVR) then diuresis
516
Q

What is involuntary consent?

A

Consent to treatment granted by the authority of a court order

517
Q

What is capillary hemangioma?

A

Irregular red spot

518
Q

What are five examples of alpha adrenergic blocker anti-hypertensive medication?

A
  • Mini-pres (Prazosin)
  • Cardura (Doxazosin)
  • Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)
  • Phentolamine (Regitine)
  • Ergotamine (Ergomar)
519
Q

What is the pediatric nebulized dosage of salbutamol?

A

2.5 mg

520
Q

What is the classification of dobutamine?

A

Sympathomimetic

521
Q

What are the three types of pain?

A
  • Somatic
  • Visceral
  • Referred
522
Q

What is the dosage of thiamine?

A

100 mg IV/IM

523
Q

What is beneficence?

A

The principle of doing good for the patient

524
Q

What is tachypnea?

A

Rapid breathing

525
Q

What are the Purkinje fibers?

A

They are fibers found in both ventricles that conduct an electrical impulse through the heart

526
Q

What is target ETCO2 after a ROSC in ACLS?

A

35-40 mmHg

527
Q

What is the classification of naloxone?

A

Narcotic analgesic

528
Q

What are the seven steps of the primary assessment?

A
  1. Form a generalized impression
  2. Stabilize cervical spine as needed
  3. Assess baseline level of response
  4. Assess airway
  5. Assess breathing
  6. Assess circulation
  7. Assign priority
529
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of metoclopramide?

A
  • Nausea and/or vomiting

- Migraine headache

530
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of succinylcholine?

A

1.5 mg/kg IV, max dose 150 mg

531
Q

What is the atropine dosage for symptomatic bradycardia?

A

0.5mg q 5 mins, max of 3mg

532
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of rocuronium?

A

0.6 - 1.2 mg/kg IV, repeat q 30 min at 0.1 - 0.2 mg/kg PRN effect may prolong in peds

533
Q

What is the duty to act?

A

A formal contractual or informal legal obligation to provide care

534
Q

What is the mechanism of action of atropine?

A

Atropine sulfate is a potent parasympatholytic. It inhibits actions of acetylcholine at postganglionic parasympathetic receptor sites. Blocked vagal effects result in increased heart rate and enhanced AV conduction with limited or no inotropic effects

535
Q

What is the epicardium?

A

Also known as the visceral pericardium; the external layer of the heart wall that covers the heart muscle

536
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid? (2)

A
  • Competitively inhibits activation of plasminogen (via binding to the kringle domain), thereby reducing conversion of plasminogen to plasmin (fibrinolysin), an enzyme that degrades fibrin clots, fibrinogen, and other plasma proteins, including the procoagulant factors V and VIII
  • TXA also directly inhibits plasmin activity, but higher doses are required than needed to reduce plasmin formation
537
Q

What is extrinsic PEEP?

A

Purposely applied during ventilations via BVM or mechanical ventilator

538
Q

What is Criminal Law?

A

The division of the legal system that deals with wrongs committed against society or its members

539
Q

What is pulse rhythm?

A

The patter and equality of intervals between beats

540
Q

What are the three regulating systems that maintain the bodies pH?

A
  • Chemical buffers
  • Respiratory system
  • Renal system
541
Q

According to ACLS, what defines symptomatic bradycardia?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Altered mental status
  • Signs of shock
  • Ischemic chest discomfort
  • Acute heart failure
542
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron? (4)

A
  • Affects both peripheral and central nerves
  • Reduces the activity of the vagus nerve, which deactivates the vomiting center in the medulla oblongata
  • Blocks serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone
  • Has no effect on dopamine receptors and therefore dose not cause extrapyramidal symptoms
543
Q

What is a normal body temperature?

A

37 celcius

544
Q

What is the induction dose for ketamine?

A

0.5 - 2 mg/kg IV

545
Q

What is the indication of acetylcyseine?

A

To prevent or lessen hepatic injury that may occur after ingestion of a hepatotoxin dose of acetaminophen

546
Q

What is the adult IM dosage of meperidine?

A

50 - 100 mg

547
Q

What is sterilizing?

A

The use of chemical or physical method, such as pressurized steam, to kill all microorganisms on an object

548
Q

What is the indication for the usage of diphendydramine?

A

Allergic and anaphylactic reactions involving respiratory difficulties, edema or severe itching

549
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sodium bicarbonate?

A

Reacts with H+ ions to form water and CO2

550
Q

What is the endocardium?

A

The innermost layer of the heart that lines the inside of the myocardium and covers the heart valves

551
Q

What is CPAP ventilator mode?

A
  • Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

- Used to maintain lung volume and improve oxygenation, by delivering a predetermined level of pressure

552
Q

What is cardiac action potential?

A

A five-phase cycle that reflects the difference in the concentration of charged particles across the cell membrane at any given time

553
Q

What are two causes of Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

A
  • Increasing ICP

- Brain stem injury

554
Q

What is the classification of ondansetron?

A

Anti-emetic

555
Q

What is a scope of practice?

A

It is a range of duties and skills paramedics are allowed and expected to perform

556
Q

What is Legislative Law?

A

Law created by such law-making bodies as federal/provincial/territorial assemblies

557
Q

What is the pediatric MDI dosage of salbutamol?

A

2 - 3 puffs

558
Q

What is the function of the chemical buffers? (3)

A

They are substances that combine with excess acids or bases, They act immediately to maintain pH
The most efficient pH-balancing forces

559
Q

What are four reasons for failing to communicate?

A

Prejudice
Lack of privacy
External distractions
Internal distractions

560
Q

What is the adult dosage for glucagon when facing hypoglycemia?

A

1 mg IM/IV/SQ

561
Q

What does it mean to encode?

A

To create a message

562
Q

What are three examples of peripheral adrenergic inhibitor medications?

A
  • Guanadrel sulfate (Hylorel)
  • Guanethidine monosulfate (Ismel)
  • Reserpine (Serpasil)
563
Q

What is an accessory pathway?

A

An extra bundle of working myocardial tissue that forms a connection between the atria and ventricles outside the normal conduction system

564
Q

What is antepartum?

A

Time interval prior to deliver of the fetus

565
Q

What is the pediatric IM dosage of meperidine?

A

1 mg/kg (max 100mg)

566
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rocuronium?

A

Prevents acetylcholine from binding to receptors at the muscle and end plate, blocking depolarization

567
Q

What does a low PaCO2 represent?

A

Hyperventilation

568
Q

What is the classification of propofol?

A

Beta-adrenergic receptor blocking agent

569
Q

What is a spiral fracture?

A

It is a curving break in a bone as may be caused by rotational forces

570
Q

What is crust?

A

Reddish, brown, black, tan, or yellowish dried blood, serum or pus

571
Q

What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads:
V5, V6?

A

Lateral (Low)

572
Q

What does the T wave represent?

A

Ventricular repolarization

573
Q

What is the classification of atropine?

A
  • Parasympatholytic

- Anticholinergic

574
Q

What are nine common peripheral pulse sites?

A
  • Temporal
  • Carotid
  • Brachial
  • Radial
  • Ulnar
  • Femoral
  • Popliteal
  • Dorsalis pedis
  • Posterior tibial
575
Q

What is a scale?

A

An elevated area of excessive exfoliation, varying in thickness, shape, and dryness and ranges in color from white to silver or tan

576
Q

What is an example of a renin blocker medicaiton?

A
  • Aliskiren (Tekturna)
577
Q

What are the three components of Beck’s triad?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Distended neck veins
  • Distant, muffled heart sounds
578
Q

What are the five components of scene assessment?

A
  • BSI
  • Scene safety
  • Location of all patients
  • MOI
  • Nature of illness
579
Q

What are protocols?

A

The policies and procedures for all components of an EMS system

580
Q

What is the mechanism of action of alpha adrenergic blocker anti-hypertensives?

A

Inhibits action of alpha receptors in vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation

581
Q

What is the mechanism of action of peripheral adrenergic inhibitor medications?

A

Reduces vascular wall tone through reduction of sympathic nervous system stimulation of blood vessels

582
Q

What is hypocalcemia?

A

Lower than normal calcium level in blood

583
Q

What is the adult MDI dosage of salbutamol?

A

4 - 6 puffs

584
Q

What are the three indications for the usage of metoprolol?

A
  • SVT
  • AMI
  • Unstable angina
585
Q

What is visceral pain?

A

It is a type of pain that results from the activation of nociceptors of the thoracic, pelvic or abdominal viscera (organs). These organs are highly sensitive to distension, ischemia and inflammation

586
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of ketamine?

A
  • Induction and maintenance of general anesthesia

- Analgesia and sedation

587
Q

What is implied consent?

A

Consent for treatment that is presumed for the patient who is mentally, physically, or emotionally unable to grant consent

588
Q

How quick does the renal system work when acting as a buffer system?

A

Hours to days

589
Q

What are the two contraindications for the usage of norepinepherine?

A
  • Dehydration, patient should be fluid resuscitated prior to initiation of norepinepherine
  • Systolic BP > 90mmHg
590
Q

What is the classification of magnesium sulfate? (4)

A
  • Electrolyte
  • Anticonvulsant (toxemia)
  • Anti-arrhythmic (TDP, TCA OD)
  • Uterine relaxant
591
Q

What is a nodule?

A

Elevated firm spot with a diameter between 1-2cm

592
Q

What is the dosage of clopidogrel for those patients under the age of 75?

A

300mg PO

593
Q

What is polyuria?

A

Excessive urination

594
Q

What is the function of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Sensory & motor

595
Q

What is the adult dose for seizures using midazolam?

A

5 mg IN

596
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

The dissolving of a blood clot; occurs naturally by plasmin or by a class of medications called fibrinolytics

597
Q

What is the function of the oculomotor nerve?

A

Motor

598
Q

What is stridor?

A

Predominant inspiratory wheeze associated with laryngeal obstruction

599
Q

What is the universalizability test?

A

Asks whether you would want this action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances

600
Q

What is plaque?

A

Superficial papule with a diameter greater than 1cm and a rough texture

601
Q

What are the four contraindications of amiodarone?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Bradycardia
  • 2nd and 3rd degree heart block
  • Sinus node dysfunction
602
Q

What is abandonment?

A

Termination of the paramedic-patient relationship without assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continue

603
Q

What is egophony?

A

Abnormal change in tone of patient’s transmitted voice sounds

604
Q

What are the CAGE questions?

A
  • Cut down
  • Annoyed
  • Guilty
  • Eye-opener
605
Q

What is the mechanism of action of magnesium sulfate? (3)

A
  • Reduces striated muscle contractions, causing vasodilation
  • Blocks peripheral neuromuscular transmission by reducing Ach released at the end-plate by motor nerve impulse
  • Minimizes recurrences of seizures in the toxic state
606
Q

What are ethics?

A

The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession

607
Q

How does the respiratory system act as the second line of defence against acid-base imbalances? (4)

A
  • The lungs regulate carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood, which combines with H20 to form H2CO3
  • Chemoreceptors in the brain sense pH changes and vary the rate and depth of respirations to regulate CO2 levels
  • Faster, deeper breathing eliminates CO2 from the lungs and less H2CO3 is formed, rising pH
  • Slower, shallow breathing reduces CO2 excretion, causing pH to fall
608
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of ondansetron?

A
  • Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting

- Nausea and vomiting

609
Q

What is the diastolic pressure?

A

Blood moves peripherally, thus pressure falls until the next systole

610
Q

What is the Parkland burn formula as used for adults?

A

4ml x pt weight in kg x BSA burned

611
Q

What is the mechanism of action of diazepam? (4)

A
  • Improves the action of gamma amino butyric acid, which depresses the CNS at the limbic, thalamic, and hypothalamic levels, producing anti-anxiety effects
  • Anticonvulsant: slows the spread of irritable foci in the cortex, thalamus and limbic areas of the brain
  • Skeletal muscle relaxant: inhibits polysynaptic afferent pathways
  • Induces amneisa
612
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ASA?

A

It inactivates the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme which decreases the production of prostaglandins in the tissue, blocking the pain receptors sensitivity and decreases inflammation. Due to the inactivation of COX, thromboxane A2 production is also inhibited, which is responsible for platelet aggregation

613
Q

What is the adult dosage of fentanyl?

A

0.5 - 2 mcg/kg IVP over 2 minutes, max single dose 200mcg (usually states at 25-100 mcg q 5 min)

614
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of acetaminophen?

A
  • Treatment of mild pain

- Reduction of fever

615
Q

What is the pediatric dosage for dopamine?

A

5-20 mcg/kg/min IV

616
Q

What is discordance?

A

ST segments and T waves that deflect in the opposite direction as the terminal (last) waveform of the QRS complex in a bundle branch block

617
Q

What does it mean to decode?

A

To interpret a message

618
Q

What is the dose of ondansetron?

A

4 - 8 mg IV/IM

619
Q

What is the adult dosage of hydromorphone?

A

1.0 - 2.0 mg SQ

620
Q

What are Actual Damages?

A

Refers to compensatable physical, psychological, or financial harm

621
Q

What is artifact on the EKG?

A

Distortion of the tracing by electrical activity that is noncardiac in origin

622
Q

What is prenatal?

A

Time interval prior to birth

623
Q

What is bradypnea?

A

It is a decreased respiratory rate

624
Q

What is the classification of metoclopramide?

A

Antiemetic

625
Q

What does a high PaCO2 level indicate?

A

Hypoventilation

626
Q

What are Good Samaritan Law’s?

A

Laws that provide immunity to certain people who assist at the scene of a medical emergency

627
Q

What is a precipitous delivery?

A

Is a delivery that occurs after less than three hours of labour

628
Q

What is the Babinski response?

A

The big toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan out when the sole is stimulated

629
Q

What is dicrotic notch?

A

Closure of the aortic valve following ventricular systole. Occurs as the pressure in the LV falls below that of the aorta

Indicates the onset of diastole

630
Q

What is the contraindication of dexamethasone?

A

Hypersensitivity

631
Q

What is HCO3-?

A

Bicarbonate

632
Q

What is the classification of rocuronium?

A

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent

633
Q

What is preload?

A

The force exerted by the blood on the walls of the ventricles at the end of diastole

634
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of lorazepam for pediatric patients?

A

0.05 mg/kg max 2 mg

635
Q

What is a macule?

A

A flat spot, color varies from white to brown or red to purple with a diameter less than 1cm

636
Q

What does it mean to be libel?

A

The act of injuring a person’s character, name or reputation by false statements made in writing or through mass media with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements

637
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of acetaminophen?

A

10-15mg/kg q 4-6 hr PRN PO

638
Q

What is HEENT?

A
  • Head
  • Eyes
  • Ears
  • Nose
  • Throat
639
Q

What is the mechanism of action of etomidate? (3)

A
  • creates an ultra short acting sedative/hypnotic effect
  • a non-barbiturate hypnotic that acts at the level of the reticular-activating system to produce anesthesia. Appears to depress CNS function via GABA
  • Like the barbiturates and propofol, etomidate does not induce analgesia. Etomidate induces unconsciousness within one circulation time. Recovery is rapid as a result of extensive redistribution and rapid metabolism
640
Q

What is the mechanism of action of midazolam? (4)

A
  • Binds to specific sites on gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) type A receptors within the brain, potentiating the effects of GABA
  • Is 3 - 4 times more potent then diazepam
  • Amnestic properties
  • Muscle relaxant
641
Q

What is a scar?

A

Fibrous, varying depth and the color varies from white to red

642
Q

What is hypercalcemia?

A

Higher than normal calcium level in blood

643
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vasodilator anti-hypertensive medications?

A

It relaxes the smooth muscles in the blood vessel walls to cause peripheral dilation

644
Q

According to ACLS, what is the joule dosage for narrow regular tachycardia?

A

50-100J

645
Q

What happens in the first stage of labour?

A

The onset of true labour contractions and ends with complete dilation and effacement of the cervix

646
Q

What is ethnocentrism?

A

Viewing of your own life as the most desirable, acceptable, or best, and acting in a superior manner to another culture’s way of life

647
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

A

Corresponds with the onset of the QRS complex to the approximate peak of the T wave; cardiac cells cannot be stimulated to conduct an electrical impulse no matter how strong the internal electrical stimulus

648
Q

What are three contraindications to the usage of fentanyl?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Systolic BP < 90mmHg
  • MOA inhibitor therapy in the last 14 days
649
Q

What is the mechanism of action of propofol?

A

Inhibits GABA activity in the brain

650
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lorazepam? (3)

A
  • Most potent of the benzodiazepines, enhances the neurotransmitter GABA at the limbic and sub-cortical levels
  • Has a shorter half-life than diazepam
  • Induces amnesia
651
Q

What are four things pH regulation influences?

A
  • Speed of cellular reaction
  • Cell function
  • Cell permeability
  • Integrity of the cell structure
652
Q

What is medical direction?

A

Medical policies, procedures, and practices that are available to providers either online or offline

653
Q

What are five factors that affect MAP?

A
  • Increase in PEEP
  • Increase in PIP
  • Increase in inspiratory time (Ti)
  • Decrease in expiratory time (Te) = increased RR
  • Increase in expiratory flow rate
654
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Atrovent? (3)

A
  • Causes bronchodilation by competitive inhibition of cholinergic receptors on bronchial smooth muscle
  • Blocks the action of acetylcholine, which inhibits parasympathetic stimulation, thus decreasing bronchial secretions
  • Dries respiratory tract secretions
655
Q

What is the pediatric dosage for glucagon when facing a beta blocker overdose?

A

0.5 mg IM/IV/SQ (< 20 kg) Max dose 1 mg

656
Q

What is the adult dosage of diazepam?

A

2.0-10 mg IV q 5- 15 min max 20 mg

657
Q

What is the adult dosage of ketorolac?

A

30 - 60 mg IV/IM q 4 - 6 hrs max 120 mg/day

658
Q

What are four characteristics of the P wave?

A
  • Smooth and rounded
  • No more than 2.5mm in height
  • No more than 0.11 second in duration
  • Positive in leads I, II, aVF, V2, V3, V4, V5, V6
659
Q

What is the mechanism of action of central adrenergic inhibitor anti-hypertensives?

A

Inhibits vasoconstriction by stimulating cardiovascular center in the brain, decreasing the outflow of sympathic nervous system

660
Q

What is Misfeasance?

A

A breach of duty by performance of a legal act in a manner that is harmful or injurious

661
Q

What is primipara?

A

Woman who has given birth to her first child

662
Q

What are the immediate three steps to identify and treat the underlying cause of tachycardia?

A
  • Maintain patent airway; assist breathing if necessary
  • Oxygen (if hypoxemic)
  • Cardiac monitor to ID rhythm, monitor blood pressure and oximetry
663
Q

What is uterine rupture?

A

It is the actual tearing, or rupture, of the uterus

664
Q

What is the adult dosage of magnesium sulfate for patients with TDP/Hypomagnesemia/Refractory VF?

A

1 - 2 g in 10 ml NS/D5W IV/IO, rate 1 g/min

665
Q

What are the five contraindications to the usage of metoprolol?

A
  • Severe heart failure/CHF
  • History of bronchospastic airway disease
  • Concurrent use of beta blockers or calcium channel blockers
  • 2nd and 3rd degree heart block
  • Bradycardia with HR < 60
666
Q

What is crepitus?

A

Crunching sounds of unlubricated parts in joints rubbing against each other

667
Q

What is the dose of lidocaine for a patient with VT with a pulse? (2)

A
  • Bolus: 1.0 mg/kg with subsequent doses of 0.5 mg/kg q 10 min (max 3.0 mg/kg)
  • Infusion: 1 - 4 mg/min
668
Q

According to ACLS, if the QRS is equal to or less than 0.12 seconds, what are the next five steps?

A
  • IV access and 12 lead if available
  • Vagal maneuvers
  • Adenosine (if regular)
  • Beta or calcium channel blocker
  • Consider expert consultation
669
Q

What is the adult dosage of epinepherine for bradycardia?

A

Infusion 2.0-10.0 mcg/kg/min

670
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of amiodarone for PSVT/WCT?

A

5mg/kg (max 150mg) in 50ml NS 100ml/hr over 20-60 min. Repeat max 15mg/kg/24hr

671
Q

What are the three contraindications for the usage of atropine?

A
  • Symptomatic tachydysrhymia
  • Hypothermic bradycardia
  • 2nd degree type 2 and 3rd degree heart block
672
Q

What is the epinepherine infusion dosage for ROSC in ACLS?

A

0.1-0.5 mcg/kg/min

673
Q

What is the dosage of enoxaparin for a patient less than 75 years of age?

A
  • 1 mg/kg (max 100mg) SQ (lateral abdomen)

- 30 mg IV

674
Q

What is I:E?

A
  • Ratio of inspiratory to expiratory time

- Measured in seconds

675
Q

What does decerebrate mean?

A

Arms and legs extended

676
Q

What are six characteristics of the skin to assess?

A
  • Color
  • Moisture
  • Temperature
  • Texture
  • Mobility and turgor
  • Lesions
677
Q

What are the indications for the usage of fentanyl? (3)

A
  • Moderate to severe pain
  • Adjunct to RSS/RSI
  • Ischemic chest pain
678
Q

What is informed consent?

A

It is consent for treatment that is given based on full disclosure of information

679
Q

What is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?

A

Motor

680
Q

What is the adult dosage of acetaminophen?

A

500-1000mg q 4-6 hr PRN PO

681
Q

What is a cyst?

A

Elevated, palpable area containing liquid or viscous matter

682
Q

What is venous return?

A

The amount of blood flowing into the right atrium each minute from the systemic circulation

683
Q

How quick does the chemical buffer system work?

A

Seconds to minutes

684
Q

What is the first dosage of adenosine?

A

6mg rapid IV push

685
Q

What is the pain and sedation dose for ketamine?

A

0.1 - 0.5 mg/kg IV, titrate to effect

686
Q

What is resistance?

A

Frictional forces due to anatomical structures, conducting airways and tissues of the lungs

687
Q

What is a hairline fracture?

A

It is a small crack in a bone that does not disrupt the total structure

688
Q

What is the adult dosage for symptomatic bradycardia of atropine?

A

0.5-1.0mg IV push, q 3-5 mins, max 3mg

689
Q

What are the order of priorities for scene safety?

A
  1. You
  2. Your crew
  3. Other responding personnel
  4. Your patient
  5. Bystanders
690
Q

What is primigravida?

A

First pregnancy

691
Q

What are the two indications for the usage of oxytocin?

A
  • Post-partum hemorrhage

- Normal postpartum, after delivery of placenta

692
Q

What is a muscle strain?

A

It is an injury resulting from overstretching of muscle fibres

693
Q

What is the classification of D50?

A

Carbohydrate

694
Q

What are the seven indications for the usage of diazepam?

A
  • Seizures/Status epilepticus
  • Seizures in pre-eclampsia uncontrolled by magnesium
  • Premedication before cardioversion/pacing
  • Skeletal muscle relaxant
  • Acute anxiety states
  • Acute alcohol withdrawal including delirium tremens
  • Cocaine overdose
695
Q

What is offline medical direction?

A

Refers to medical policies, procedures, and practices that medical direction has set up in advance of a call

696
Q

What is the adult IM/SC dose of naloxone?

A

2.0 mg

697
Q

What is the normal ratio of HCO3 to H2CO3?

A

20:1

698
Q

What is angina pectoris?

A

Chest discomfort of sudden onset that occurs when the increased oxygen demand of the heart temporarily exceeds the blood supply

699
Q

What is the dosage of metoprolol?

A

5 mg IV q 5 - 10 minutes, up to 3 doses. Titrate to HR 60 - 80. If HR > 100 consider a fluid bolus to ensure hypovolemia is not the cause

700
Q

What is autonomy?

A

A competent adult patient’s right to determine what happens to his own body

701
Q

What is an ulcer?

A

Red or purplish depression ranging into the dermis, caused by tissue loss

702
Q

What is the dosage for the use of haloperidol?

A

2 - 5 mg IV/IM PRN

703
Q

What is the contraindication for the usage of diazepam?

A

Hypersensitivity

704
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

The sensation of having difficulty with breathing

705
Q

What is the classification of calcium chloride?

A

Electrolyte

706
Q

What is the normal range of blood pH?

A

7.35 - 7.45

707
Q

What is dysmenorrhea?

A

Menstrual difficulties

708
Q

What is the adult dosage of dimenhydrinate? (2)

A

25-100 mg IM q 4hr PRN

12.5 - 50 mg IV q 4hr PRN

709
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of pancuronium?

A

0.1 mg/kg

710
Q

What are the two indications for usage of dopamine?

A
  • Cardiogenic shock with BP < 70mmHg

- Shock states with hypotension (without hypovolemia)

711
Q

What is a wheal?

A

Pink, irregular spot varying in size and shape

712
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dimenhydrinate?

A

Blocks histamine and ACH receptors in the vomiting center as well as the pathway between the inner ear and the vomiting center that can cause nausea and vomiting
- Similar chemical composition to that of diphenhydramine

713
Q

What is the classification of hydromorphone?

A

Narcotic analgesic

714
Q

What are two contraindications for the usage of morphine?

A
  • Hypersensitivity

- Hypotension (BP < 100)

715
Q

What are the three indications for the usage of enoxaparin?

A
  • STEMI
  • PE
  • DVT
716
Q

What is certification?

A

The process by which an agency or association grants recognition and the ability to practice to an individual who has met its qualifications

717
Q

What is the dosage of norepinepherine?

A

0.5 - 30.0 mcg/min, titrate to effect

718
Q

What are the 8 D’s of stroke care?

A
  • Detection
  • Dispatch
  • Delivery
  • Door
  • Data
  • Decision
  • Drug
  • Disposition
719
Q

What is ejection fraction?

A

The percentage of blood pumped out of a ventricle with each contraction

720
Q

What happens in the second stage of labour?

A

Begins with the complete dilation of the cervix and ends with the delivery of the fetus

721
Q

What is Kussmaul’s respirations?

A

It is periods of tachypnea and hyperpnea

722
Q

What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads:
V1, V2?

A

Septal

723
Q

What are the three contraindications for the usage of furosemide?

A
  • Sulfonamide allergy
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • Hypotension/hypovolemia (SBP <100 mmHg)
724
Q

What is subluxation?

A

It is the partial displacement of a bone end from its position in a joint capsule

725
Q

What is a transverse fracture?

A

It is a break that runs across a bone perpendicular to the bone’s orientation

726
Q

What are the four indications for the usage of dexamethasone?

A
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Acute exacerbation of COPD/asthma
  • Cerebral edema
  • Various inflammatory properties
727
Q

What is the pediatric dosage of calcium chloride?

A

5mg/kg over 3 minutes

728
Q

What are three quick ways to test ethics?

A

Impartiality test, Universalizability test, Interpersonal Justifiability test

729
Q

What is the function of the vagus nerve?

A

Sensory & motor

730
Q

What is the dosage of oxytocin?

A

20 - 30 units IV infusion in 100 m NS @ 250 ml/hr (titrated to uterine response and severity of bleeding)

731
Q

What is the interpersonal justifiability test?

A

Asks whether you can defend or justify your actions to others

732
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acetaminophen? (2)

A
  • Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis which produces an analgesic effect
  • Acts on the hypothalamic heat regulating center
733
Q

What are the immediate five steps to identify and treat the underlying cause of bradycardia?

A
  • Maintain patent airway; assist breathing as necessary
  • Oxygen (if hypoxemic)
  • Cardiac monitor to identify rhythm; monitor blood pressure and oximetery
  • IV access
  • 12 lead if available; don’t delay therapy
734
Q

What is the dosage of TXA?

A

1 g mixed with 100 ml NS over 10 minutes IV/IO

1 g mixed with 500 ml at 60 ml/hr with buretrol or pump (8 hours)

735
Q

What is the mechanism of action of D50 (2)?

A
  • Increases blood sugar levels

- Hypertonic solution producing a transient movement of water from interstitial space into the venous system

736
Q

What is postpartum?

A

Time interval after deliver of the fetus

737
Q

What is the cylinder factor of a G tank?

A

2.41

738
Q

What is an infectious disease?

A

Any disease caused by the growth of pathogenic microorganisms, which may be spread from person to person

739
Q

What is the dosage of ASA?

A

160-325mg PO (chewed)

740
Q

What is the adult dose for combative/violent patients using midazolam?

A

2.5 mg IV or 5 mg IM, max 10 mg

741
Q

What is consent?

A

It is the patient’s granting of permission for treatment

742
Q

What is the IV infusion dosage of nitroglycerin?

A

5.0 mcg/min, increasing to 10.0 mcg/min until desired effect reached

743
Q

What is the adult dose for sedation using midazolam?

A

0.05 mg/kg IV, max 5 mg

744
Q

What is the indication of D50?

A

Hypoglycemia

745
Q

What is the adult dosage of sodium bicarbonate?

A

1 mEq/kg slow IVP, repeat 0.5 mEq/kg q 10 min PRN

746
Q

What is the myocardium?

A

The middle and thickest layer of the heart; contains the cardiac muscle fibers that cause contraction of the heart as well as the conduction system and blood supply

747
Q

What is meconium staining?

A

Occurs when the fetus passes feces into the amniotic fluid

748
Q

What are the four indications for the usage of lorazepam?

A
  • Seizures
  • Status epilepticus
  • Premedication before cardioversion
  • Acute anxiety states
749
Q

What is the adult dosage of epinepherine for VF/VT/PEA/asystole?

A

1.0 mg IV q 3-5 min 1:10000

750
Q

What is inspection?

A

The process of informed observation

751
Q

What does SOAP stand for?

A
  • Subjective
  • Objective
  • Assessment
  • Plan
752
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acetylcysteine?

A

It protects liver cells by maintaining or restoring glutathione levels or by acting as an alternate substrate conjugation and detoxification of acetaminophens reactive metabolite

753
Q

What does the partial pressure of arterial CO2 (PaCO2) represent?

A

The level of CO2 in the blood

754
Q

What is a base?

A

It is a substance that can accept or bind to H+

755
Q

What is the indication for the usage of salbutamol?

A

Bronchoconstriction

756
Q

What is the doseage of Epinepherine IV/IO used in ACLS?

A

1mg q 3-5mins

757
Q

What are the two indications of usage for clopidogrel?

A
  • Acute coronary syndrome (Non-STEMI/UA)

- STEMI

758
Q

What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

Sensory & motor

759
Q

What is the adult nebulized dosage of salbutamol?

A

5.0 mg

760
Q

What is empathy?

A

It is to identify with and understand the circumstances, feelings, and motives of others

761
Q

What is Cushing’s triad?

A
  • Irregular respirations (impaired brain stem)
  • Bradycardia
  • Systolic hypertension (widening pulse pressure)
762
Q

What is a breech presentation?

A

It is the term to describe the presentation in which the buttocks and/or feet present first

763
Q

What is the classification of midazolam?

A

Benzodiazepine

764
Q

What is the dosage of furosemide?

A

0.5 - 1 mg/kg slow IVP (Dose typically 20 - 80 mg) q 30 minutes prn, max dose 2 mg/kg

765
Q

What is the function of the optic nerve?

A

Sensory

766
Q

What is expressed consent?

A

It is verbal, nonverbal, or written communication by a patient that she wants to receive medical care

767
Q

What is Negligence?

A

Deviation from accepted standards of care recognized by law for the protection of others against the unreasonable risk of harm

768
Q

What surface of the heart is being viewed when reading the following leads:
V3, V4?

A

Anterior

769
Q

What is common law?

A

It is law derived from society’s acceptance over time of customs and norms

770
Q

How much fluid is given in the first 8 hours of a burn when using the Parkland burn formula?

A

50% of the determined amount via the Parkland burn formula

restudy (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions