COPD Flashcards

1
Q

What is COPD?

A

encompassing older terms ‘chronic bronchitis’ and emphysema; in vast majority of cases, caused by smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are 4 clinical features typical of COPD?

A
  1. Cough: often productive
  2. Dyspnoea
  3. Wheeze
  4. In severe cases, right sided heart failure may devlelop causing peripheral oedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 4 investigations recommended to carry out in suspected COPD?

A
  1. Post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction
  2. CXR
  3. Full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia
  4. BMI calculation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What finding is expected to make a diagnosis of COPD from spirometry?

A

FEV1/FVC ratio <70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 4 signs are you looking for on CXR in suspected COPD?

A
  1. Hyperinflation
  2. Bullae: if large, may sometimes mimic a pneumothorax
  3. Flat hemidiaphragm
  4. Also important to exclude lung cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is used to categorise the severity of COPD? What are the 4 categories?

A

the FEV1

  1. Stage 1 - mild: FEV1 >80% of predicted
  2. Stage 2 - moderate: FEV1 50-79% of predicted
  3. Stage 3 - severe: FEV1 30-49% of predicted
  4. Stage 4 - very severe: FEV1 <30% of predicted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is measuring peak expiratory flow of limited value in COPD?

A

may underestimate degree of airflow obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What classification would COPD be if post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC is <0.7 but FEV1 is greater than 80%?

A

stage 1 - mild COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If a patient is asymptomatic but has FEV1/FVC <0.7 and FEV1 >80% what is the diagnosis?

A

no COPD - symptoms have to be present to diagnose in stage 1 patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When do NICE recommend that a diagnosis of COPD is considered?

A

patient over 35 smoker/ex-smoker, symptoms such as exertional breathlessness, cough or regular sputum production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are 4 non-pharmacolical elements of the management of COPD?

A
  1. Smoking cessation advice, including offering nicotine replacement therapy (varenicline or bupropion)
  2. Annual influenza vaccination
  3. One-off pneumococcal vaccination
  4. Pulmonary rehabilitation to all people who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD (MRC grade 3 and above)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the first line treatment for all patients with COPD?

A

SABA (short-acting beta-2 agonist) OR SAMA (short-acting muscarinic antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What feature in COPD determines the management beyond first-line therapy?

A

Whether asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

After first line management, what is the next management that is considered for controlling COPD without asthmatic features/ features suggesting steroid responsiveness?

A
  • add LABA + LAMA
  • if already taking a SAMA, discontinue and switch to a SABA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are 4 criteria suggested to determine whether a patient has ashtmatic/steroid responsive features?

A
  1. Any previous, secure diagnosis of asthma or of atopy
  2. Higher blood eosinophil count (FBC should be done for all patients)
  3. Substantial variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400ml)
  4. Substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

After first line management, what are the next steps in management of COPD with asthmatic/steroid responsive features?

A
  • LABA + ICS
  • if remain breathless or have exacerbations (1 severe [hospitalisation] or 2 moderate in a year) LABA + ICS + LAMA
  • if already taking SAMA, discontinue and switch to a SABA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do NICE recommend the delivery of drugs to treat COPD is achieved?

A

combined inhalers where possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are 4 potential further aspects of treamtent of COPD in some patients, beyond general management of all patients?

A
  1. Oral theophylline
  2. Oral prophylactic antibiotic therapy
  3. Mucolytics
  4. Cor pulmonale treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the only 2 situations when NICE recommends oral theophylline to treat stable COPD?

A
  1. After trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators
  2. People who cannot use inhaled therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should the dose of oral theophylline be reduced, if used to treat stable COPD?

A

if macrolide or fluroquinolone antibiotics are co-prescribed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is recommended for use as oral prophylactic antibiotic therapy?

A

azithromycin prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is oral prophylactic antibiotic therapy considered for the treatment of COPD?

A

for people who have had >3 exacerbations requiring steroid therapy, and at least 1 exacerbation requiring hospital admission in the previous year

should refer to specialist in respiratory medicine to consider this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is prophylactic antibiotic treatment of COPD taken?

A

azithromycin 500mg three times per week

consider for a minimum of 6-12 months to assess evidence of efficacy in reducing exacerbations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are 6 things that must be done before commencing a patient with COPD of prophylatic macrolides (e.g. azithromycin)?

A
  1. only if have optimised other pharmacological and non-pharmacological therapies including smoking cessation, optimised inhaler technique, airway clearance techniques and attendance and pulmonary rehabilitation course
  2. perform ECG to assess QTc interval
  3. Perform baseline LFTs
  4. Counsel about potential adverse effects including GI upset, hearing and balance disturbance, cardiac effects, resistance
  5. Arrange microbiological assessment of sputum before therapy (+ check for TB)
  6. CT thorax to exclude bronchiectasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why should an ECG be done before starting prophylactic antibiotics for COPD?

A

to exclude QT prolongation, as azithromycin can prolong the QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When should mucolytics be considered to treat patients with COPD?

A

in a person with stable COPD who develops chronic cough productive of sputum

only continue if there is symptomatic improvement (e.g. reduction in frequency of cough and sputum production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What should muclytics not be used to treat in COPD?

A

routine prevention of exacerbations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a risk of using ICS to treat COPD?

A

increased risks of pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who is the only person who can start a patient on long-term oral steroid treatment for COPD?

A

respiratory specialist

30
Q

What monitoring should be performed for patients taking prophylactic oral macrolides for COPD?

A
  • LFTs 1 month after starting then every 6 months
  • ECG 1 month after starting to check for new QTc prolongation - stop if present
31
Q

Should oral azithromycin taken prophylactically be stopped during an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

no, unless another antibiotic with potential to affect QT interval has also been prescribed

32
Q

What are 4 possible clinical signs of cor pulmonale in association with COPD?

A
  1. Peripheral oedema
  2. Raised jugular venous pressure
  3. Systolic parasternal heave
  4. Loud P2
33
Q

What are 2 options for treatment of cor pulmonale in COPD and what are 3 things that are NOT recommended by NICE?

A
  1. Loop diueretic for oedema
  2. Consider long-term oxygen therapy

ACE-inhibitors, CCBs and alpha blockers not recommended

34
Q

What are 3 factors which may improve survival in patients with stable COPD?

A
  1. Somking cessation - single most important intervention in patients who are still smoking
  2. Long-term oxygen therapy in patients who fit criteria
  3. Lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients
35
Q

If patients are prescribed long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) to manage their COPD, how should it be used?

A

should breathe supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day

36
Q

What can be used to provide a fixed supply of oxygen for LTOT?

A

oxygen concentrators

37
Q

What are 6 things to assess a patient with COPD for when considering prescribing LTOT?

A
  1. Very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 <30% predicted). Assessment should be considered for patients with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30-49% predicted)
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Polycythaemia
  4. Peripheral oedema
  5. Raised jugular venous pressure
  6. Oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air
38
Q

What investigation should be performed when considering starting LTOT for a patient with COPD?

A

arterial blood gases should be measured on 2 occasions at least 3 weeks apart, in patients with stable COPD on optimal management

39
Q

When should LTOT be offered to patients with COPD? 2 situations

A

PAtients with pO2 of <7.3kPa OR those wiht a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and one of the following:

  1. secondary polycythaemia
  2. peripheral oedema
  3. pulmonary hypertension
40
Q

What do NICE advise about LTOT and smoking?

A

do not offer LTOT to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services

41
Q

What are 2 key things that should be part of the structured risk assessment before offering LTOT for COPD?

A
  1. Risks of falls from tripping over equipment
  2. Risks of burns and fires - increased if someone smokes in the home (including e-cigarettes)
42
Q

What are 3 causes of COPD?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (suspect if <40)
  3. Occupational exposures:
    • cadmium (used in smelting)
    • coal
    • cotton
    • cement
    • grain
43
Q

What is a fact illustrating the freqeuncy of acute exacerbations of COPD?

A

one of the most common reasons why people present to hospital in developed countries

44
Q

What are 4 signs of acute exacerbation of COPD?

A
  1. Increase in dyspnoea, cough, wheeze
  2. May be an increase in sputum suggestive of an infective cause
  3. Patients may be hypoxic
  4. In some cases may have acute confusion
45
Q

What are the 3 most common bacterial organisms that cause infective exacerbations of COPD?

A
  1. Haemophilus influenzae (most common)
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Moraxella catarrrhalis
46
Q

What proportion of COPD exacerbations are accounted for by respiratory viruses?

A

30%

47
Q

What is the most important viral pathogen known to cause COPD exacerbations?

A

human rhinovirus

48
Q

What are 4 aspects of the management of an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A
  1. Increase frequency of bronchodilator use
  2. Consider giving bronchodilator via nebuliser
  3. Give prednisolone 30mg daily for 5 days
  4. Antibiotics only if sputum purulent or clinical signs of pneumonia: amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycycline
49
Q

What is the only situation when you should give antibiotics to treat an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia

50
Q

What are the 3 antibiotics, that the BNF recommends using one of which to treat an acute exacerbation of COPD (when clinically indicated)?

A
  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Clarithromycin
  3. Doxycycline
51
Q

What are 2 examples of SABAs?

A

salbutamol and terbutaline

52
Q

What are 3 examples of LABAs?

A

salmeterol, formoterl, vilanterol

53
Q

What is an example of a SAMA?

A

ipratropium bromide

54
Q

What is an example of a LAMA?

A

aclidiunium bromide

55
Q

What are 4 examples of combintion inhalers with LABA and ICS?

A
  1. Fostair: formoterol + beclometasone
  2. DuoResp Spiromax: formoterol + budesonide
  3. Symbicort Turbohaler: formterol + budesonide
  4. Seretide 500 Accuhaler: salmeterol + fluticasone
56
Q

What are 3 options for interventions for smoking cessation?

A
  1. Nicotine replacement therapy
  2. Varenlicline
  3. Bupropion
57
Q

How should NRT/varenicline/bupropion usually be prescribed?

A

don’t favour one over another; prescribe as part of commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date (target stop date)

prescription should only last 2 weeks after target stop date: usually after 2 weeks of NRT therapy, and 3-4 weeks for varenicline and bupropion

58
Q

What should you do if a patient hasn’t stopped smoking by their target date using NRT/ varenicline/ bupropion?

A

don’t give further prescriptions unless demonstrated their quit attempt is continuiung

if unsucessful, don’t offer repeat prescription within 6 months unless special circumstances

59
Q

Can you offer NRT/ varenicline/ bupropion in combination?

A

no

60
Q

What are 3 adverse effects of nicotine replacement therapy?

A
  1. Nausea and vomiting
  2. Headaches
  3. Flu-like symptoms
61
Q

What forms of NRT should be prescribed and how?

A
  • combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT (such as gum, inhalator, lozenge, nasal spray) if show high dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in past
  • otherwise single NRT form
62
Q

What is the mode of action of varenicline?

A

nicotinic receptor partial agonist

63
Q

When should patients be started on varenicline and how long should it continue for?

A

1 week before patient’s target date to stop

recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks - monitor regularly, only continue if not smoking

64
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of varenicline?

A

nausea

65
Q

What are 4 common side effects of varenicline?

A
  1. Nausea
  2. Headache
  3. Insomnia
  4. Abnormal dreams
66
Q

What are 3 situations when varenicline should be used with caution or contraindicated?

A
  1. caution if: history of depression or self-harm - risk of suicide
  2. contraindicated in pregnancy
  3. contraindicated in breast feeding
67
Q

What is the mechanism of action of buproprion?

A

norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor and nicotinic antagonist

68
Q

When should bupropion be started?

A

1 to 2 weeks before target date to stop smoking

69
Q

What is a rise associated with the use of bupropion?

A

small risk of seizures (1 in 1000)

70
Q

What are 4 situations when bupropion is contraindicated?

A
  1. Epilepsy
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Breast-feeding
  4. Eating disorder - relative contraindication
71
Q

What is recommended about smoking monitoring in pregnancy?

A

NICE recommended in 2010 all pregnant women should be tested using carbon monoxide detectors - some women find it difficult to say smoke due to pressure to stop

all those who smoke, have stopped in past 2 weeks, or with CO reading of 7ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services

72
Q

What are 2 intervention options for smoking cessation in pregnancy?

A
  1. First line: CBT, motivational interviewing, self-stuctured help and support from NHS Stop Smoking services
  2. NRT: if above fails. remove patches before bed

varenicline and bupropion contraindicated