COPD Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main chronic conditions associated with breathlessness?

A

COPD
Asthma
Interstitial lung disease (Pulmonary fibrosis)
Bronchiectasis
Industrial or occupational lung diseases (asbetosis)
Lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is asbestosis?

A

Chronic exposure to asbestos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the main causes of breathlessness?

A

Airways become inflamed and narrowed
Mucous plug, reduces cilia beating efficacy
Reduction in elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main acute conditions that cause breathlessness?

A

Flare up of asthma or COPD
Pulmonary embolism/clot in lungs
Pneumothorax/Collapsed lung
Accumulation of fluid of pleural cavity (heart failure), pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is dyspnoea?

A

breathlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

Breathlessness when lying flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does heart failure contribute to dyspnoea?

A

Reduction in stroke volume due to inefficient contractile and diastolic time causes increased volume of blood in pulmonary capillaries –> accumulation of fluid within the pleural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why does orthopnea occur?

A

Systemic blood is redistributed, increasing volume present in the pulmonary capillaries
Reduction in respiratory rate when in sedentary position
Reduction in cardiac output due to decline in adrenaline.
Added pressure onto lungs due to increased fluid accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which cardiovascular/systemic conditions cause breathlessness?

A
Congestive heart failure
Pulmonary oedema
Valvular defects
Acute coronary syndrome
Anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens during hyperventilation?

A

Smooth airway muscles and intercostal muscles become tense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why does a panic attack result in breathlessness?

A

Exaggerated and accelerated build up of physical responses.
Respiratory rate increases
Adrenaline and cortisol is released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the symptoms of anxiety?

A

Syncope, sweating, vomiting, pounding heart, shaky limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why does obesity increase breathlessness?

A

Intercostal muscles weaken, weak muscles have a greater respiratory demand, requiring more oxygen to perform.
Increased effort to expire and be mobile.
Additional weight around abdomen and chest, restricts lung movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which BMI score is associated with obesity?

A

25+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What condition occurs due to obesity derived breathlessness?

A

Obesity hypoventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is obesity hypoventilation?

A

Poor breathing contributes to reduced oxygen levels, and elevated carbon dioxide concentrations in blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is grade 1 on the degree of breathlessness?

A

Not troubled by breathlessness except on strenuous exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Short of breath when hurrying on the level of walking up a slight hill

A

Grade 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Walks slower than most people on the level, stops after a mile or so, or stops after 15 minutes walking at own pace

A

grade 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is grade four on the degree of breathlessness?

A

Stops for breath after walking about 100 yards or after a few minutes on level ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is grade five on the degree of breathlessness?

A

Too breathless to leave the house, breathless when undressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What clinical investigations are performed to investigate FEV1 and FVC?

A

Breathing and lung function tests using a spirometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How can the breathing rate be measured?

A

Number of breaths per minute

Auscultate and palpate the chest during breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why should heart rate and rhythm be examined for patients presenting breathlessness?

A

To identify heart failures and the accumulation of fluid within the pleural cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What clinical examinations are performed for patients presenting breathlessness?

A
Monitor temperature
Measure, weight, waist, height, BMI
Examine the head, neck, armpits, and identify swollen lymph glands for signs of pathology 
Percussion 
Auscultation 
Palpate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does crackling indicate during auscultation?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is blood saturation monitored?

A

Pulse oximeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why is smoking a considerable factor?

A

Susceptibility to lung cancer, emphysema, COPD and CVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why should a chest radiography be performed?

A

Identify signs for heart failure, and pulmonary pathology (pleural effusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why should an ECG be performed?

A

Signs of heart failure, arrhythmia, and pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why should spirometry be performed?

A

Signs of obstructive or restrictive patterns associated with interstitial lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why should a full blood count be performed?

A

Check for anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Why should urea and electrolytes + random blood glucose be measured?

A

Test for renal failure and diabetes (Metabolic acidosis and breathlessness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why is a thyroid function test conducted?

A

Detect thyroid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What factors are measured to assess heart failure for patients without history of myocardial infarction?

A

BNP

NTproBNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When should a chest radiography and referral to respiratory specialist occur?

A

Patients with suspected bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define FEV1:

A

Forced expiratory volume in the first second

The volume of air that is expelled from the lungs within one second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which parameters are compared during measurement of FEV1/FVC`?

A

Height, gender and age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the average deviation for FEV1?

A

80-120%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How are the FEV1 values impacted by an obstructive disorder?

A

Reduction

Obstruction to airflow, reduces the rate of air being transmitted across the bronchioles and expired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is FVC?

A

Forced vital capacity

The volume of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after complete inspiration (L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the average FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

70-80% (Declines with age)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is the FEV1/FVC ratio influenced in obstructive conditions?

A

Diminished due to increased airway resistance (FEV1), FVC is minimally reduced, therefore fev1 is significantly effected, resulting in a reduced ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the average range for COPD for FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

less than 80%-45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is the FEV1/FVC ratio impacted in restrictive conditions?

A

FEV1 and FVC both reduced proportionally, therefore the value may be normal or increased due to decreased lung compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What factors reduces FVC?

A

Cancer, emphysema, pneumonia, fibrosis, muscular dystrophy, cystic fibrosis and scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What two conditions are classified under COPD?

A

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What clinically defines chronic bronchitis?

A

Productive cough for greater than 3 months annually

2+ consecutive years

49
Q

Which cells are responsible for hypersecretion of mucous?

A

Goblet cells

50
Q

By what mechanism does mucous hypersecretion via submucosal glands and goblet cells?

A

Hypertrophy

Hyperplasia

51
Q

What causes the sensory activation of mucous secretin?

A

Pollutants
Cilia
Tobacco smoke

52
Q

Which factor produced by epithelial cells activates fibroblasts?

A

TGF-B

53
Q

Which factor is secreted by macrophages to recruit further macrophages?

A

MCP-1

54
Q

Which chemotactic factors cause neutrophil activation?

A

CXCL8 (IL-8)

LTB4

55
Q

Which type of proteases are released by neutrophils?

A

Neutrophil elastase and metalloproteinase

56
Q

How does neutrophil elastase impact COPD?

A

Causes alveolar detachment , subsequently reducing the elasticity of the bronchioles and the capacity to be held open.
lumen of the bronchioles are therefore reduced, obstructing inspiratory and expiratory airflow.

57
Q

Why does mucous hypersecretion exhibit a problem?

A

Formation of mucous plug within the lumen of bronchioles, reduces cilia beating efficacy
Difficulty to remove bacteria, increases risk of infection

58
Q

What is the pathophysiology of emphysema?

A

Disrupted balance between elastase and anti-elastase, increased elastase activation rustles in increased elastin hydrolysis within the alveolar wall, and respiratory bronchioles. Reduces elastic recall, latency to be maintained during exhalation is lost = airway collapse

59
Q

Which diameter of the chest increases due to hyperinflation, and increased residual air?

A

Anterior-posterior diameter

60
Q

How can hyperinflation be identified upon examination?

A

Hyperessonance during percussion

61
Q

Which volumes increase due to COPD (Lung function)?

A

Total lung capacity

Residual volume

62
Q

Which capacities are reduced in COPD?

A

Inspiratory and expiratory

63
Q

Why does cyanosis suggest COPD?

A

Chronic hypoexmia causes pulmonary vessel constriction, hypoxic vasoconstriction leads to pulmonary hypertension.
Increases afterlaod on right ventricle, difficulty to eject volume, causes jugular venous distension,

Cyanosis

64
Q

Which FEV/FVC ratio is indicative of COPD?

A

Less than 70%

65
Q

What effect does bronchodilators have on PFT results?

A

Less than 12% change in FEV1 =COPD

Greater = asthma

66
Q

Why should A1AT screening be conducted?

A

Patients under age 45
No associated risk (no smoking or occupational dust exposure)

A1AT deficiency (autosomal dominant disorder)

67
Q

What is A1AT deficiency?

A

Inhibition of A1AT transportation from liver, therefore there is a deficiency in lungs, and elastase accumulates to damage parenchyma

68
Q

What X-ray features depict COPD?

A

Hyperinflated lungs
Anterior 7 ribs form mid-clavicular line visible
Diaphgramn is flattened
Heart visually smaller and narrower, air visible below inferior border

Bullae

69
Q

What are bullae?

A

Pockets of air, forming near the surface of the lung, bull can be enlarged (greater than 1cm), occupying significant space within the lung.

70
Q

How are bullae depicted on a radiograph?

A

Relatively darker patches on radiograph,

71
Q

What are blebs?

A

Small bullae

72
Q

What occurs due to ruptured bullae?

A

Causes air to escape and lung collapse = spontaneous pneumonthorax

73
Q

What are the symptoms of pneumothorax?

A

Sharp chest pain and increased breathing difficulties

74
Q

What are B2 adrenergic receptors?

A

Sympathetic innervation stimulates bronchodilation
Adrenaline
Agonists

75
Q

What are muscarinic acetylcholine receptors?

A

Parasympathetic innervation stimulates bronchoconstriction, thus anatagonists used

76
Q

If there are no asthmatic features presented, what medication should be used?

A

LABA & LAMA combined therapy for additive benefit

77
Q

What is rescue therapy?

A

SABAs, and SAMAs

78
Q

What is maintenance therapy?

A

LABAs and LAMAs

79
Q

Why is maintenance therapy used?

A

Symptom frequency increased despite use of short acting attend , FEV1 less than 60%

80
Q

What drug treatments are used for COPD?

A

Antibiotics, Muscalytics, anti-inflammatory and antiproteases
anti oxidants

81
Q

Why are vaccination programmes and antibiotics used?

A

accumulation of mucous within bronchioles due to mucous hypersecretion in addition to ineffective cilia beating, increases risk of infection
Vaccination (PPSV-23)

82
Q

If there are asthamtic features, what medication to prescribe?

A

LABA ICs

83
Q

When do you use a DPI?

A

Patient can perform quick and deep

84
Q

What is a dpi?

A

Dry powder inhaler

85
Q

If the patient can breathe slow and steady?

A

SMI or PDMI

86
Q

What is an SMI?

A

Soft miss inhaler

87
Q

What is PDMI?

A

Pressurised metered dose inhaler

88
Q

If you have not used SMI in 3 months?

A

3 times priming

89
Q

What do you do if inhale steroids?

A

Rinse mouth with water

90
Q

What are the advantages of spacer?

A

Increases medication to the lung, reduces dosage
Faster medication to lungs
Less is absorbed by body, thus minimal side effects

91
Q

What are the two techniques for spacers?

A
Tidal volume (Multiple breathing)
Single breathing (Hold)
92
Q

What effects of bupaprion hydrochloride?

A

Apatite changes, dizzieness

93
Q

Effects of NRTs?

A

skin irritation when using patches
irritation of nose, throat or eyes when using a nasal spray
difficulty sleeping (insomnia), sometimes with vivid dreams
an upset stomach
dizziness
headaches

94
Q

What are the side effects for Varenicyline?

A
feeling and being sick
difficulty sleeping (insomnia), sometimes with vivid dreams
dry mouth
constipation or diarrhoea
headaches
drowsiness
dizziness
95
Q

Who cannot use bupoprion hydrochloride?

A

children under 18 years of age
women who are pregnant or breastfeeding
people with epilepsy, bipolar disorder or eating disorders

96
Q

Who cannot use varenicline?

A

children under 18 years of age
women who are pregnant or breastfeeding
people with severe kidney problems

97
Q

Hows does Varenicline affect smoking cessation?

A

Reduces cravings for nicotine

Inhibits reward pathway

98
Q

What are the examples of the NHS stop smoking services?

A

Advice, drug treatment, and behavioural support

99
Q

What is the most effective method of smoking cessation?

A

Abrupt quitting

100
Q

What are the five fundamentals of COPD care?

A
Support to stop smoking 
Pneumoccocal and influenza vaccination 
Offer pulmonary rehabilitation 
Co develop a personalised self management pan
Optimise treatment for comorbdities
101
Q

If COPD has impact on quality of life?

A

ICS, lama AND LABA

102
Q

What influences the choice for Varenicline and bupropion hydrochloride?

A

Adherence, preferences, and previous expereicen of smoking cessation aids

103
Q

What are the examples of long acting NRT?

A

Transdermnal patch

104
Q

What are the examples of a short acting NRT?

A

Lozenges, gum, sublingual tablets, oral sprays, inhalators, nasal sprays

105
Q

If a patient expresses nicotine cravings how long should the transdermal patch be on for?

A

24 hours

106
Q

How long should a transdermal patch be used for?

A

16 hours

107
Q

What is the minimum duration of treatment for NRT post-quitting?

A

2 weeks after quitting date,

108
Q

What is the harm reduction approach?

A

Smoking cessation using NRT, prevents relapse, and smoking reduction or temporary abstinence with or without

109
Q

What are the advantages of E cigarettes in comparison to smoking?

A

no toxins being delivered, however nicotine still used

110
Q

What powder is used for DPI?

A

Lactose

111
Q

What is the formulation of SMI?

A

Aqueous solution

112
Q

What is the metering system of a PMDI?

A

Metering valve and reservoir

113
Q

When should a chest X-ray be done for patients with suspect pleural or lung cancer?

A

Ever smoked
exposed to asbestors
Cough, fatigue, chest pain, weight loss, appetite
performed within 2 weeks

114
Q

What are ascites?

A

Abnormal buildup of fluid in the abdomen

115
Q

What to do during urgent chest x-ray?

A

Finger clubbing

recurrent chest infections
Supraclavicaular lymphadenopathy
Chest signs

116
Q

How long have you had these symptoms?

A

Chronic could be asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis,

Acute: Pneumothorax

117
Q

Are you waking up at night?

A

Heart failure.Lying down causes orthopnea, dud to redistribution of blood, increasing pressure on the pleural cavities.

118
Q

Are you having chest pain?

A

Heart attacks, and angina
Pneumothorax,
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia