Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CMPP > COPD > Flashcards

COPD Flashcards

1
Q

conditions that make it hard to exhale all of the air in the lungs

A

Obstructive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how many people does COPD affect in the US?

A

32 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what # cause of death in the US?

A

4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

triad of COPD

A

chronic bronchitis
emphysema
asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

chronic bronchitis definition

A

chronic inflammation and thickening of the walls of the bronchial tubes with excess mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

emphysema definition

A

abnormal, permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles accompanied by destruction of their walls and without obvious fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when does COPD start?

A

later in adulthood (40s), worsens with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when does asthma start?

A

childhood, does not worsen with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what triggers COPD

A 
smoking
inhaled fumes
pollution
dusts
chemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what triggers asthma

A

allergens
weather
heredity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

symptom pattern of asthma

A

symptom-free between attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

symptom pattern of COPD

A

chronic, occurring all of the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

airflow restoration in asthma

A

can be treated and quickly restored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

airflow restoration in COPD

A

some airflow can be restored by quitting smoking and taking prescribed meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

three main issues of COPD

A

airway inflammation
mucociliary dysfunction
airway structural changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

biggest culprit of COPD

A

smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

other causes of COPD

A 
environmental factors
airway hyerresponsiveness
alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
IVDA
HIV
GERD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

environmental factors contributing to COPD

A

air pollution
chemical fumes
dust
second hand smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

airway hyperresponsiveness is characterized by

A

easily triggered bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do we assess airway hyperresponsiveness

A

bronchial challenge test with methacholine or histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how does the bronchial challenge test work?

A

blow an irritant at the pt and see their response to it before treating them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when do we use a bronchial challenge test?

A

when spirometry test is not conclusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what pathologies do we see airway hyperresponsiveness in?

A

asthma

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the genetic predisposition to COPD

A

alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency (AAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is AAT inherited

A

autosomal co-dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

pathophys behind AAT deficiency

A

lack of protein released from liver that protects lung parenchyma from elastolytic breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what other pathology do we see AAT issues with?

A

liver issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what patient population do we see AAT in?

A

younger patients (around 26)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what should we do if we suspect AAT?

A

bloodwork!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how many IV drug users get emphysema?

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how does IVDU result in COPD?

A

pulmonary vascular damage due to insoluble fiber (such as talc, cornstarch, cotton fibers, and cellulose) in IV drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what HIV population is it common to see COPD in?

A

those with CD4 counts >500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how many HIV pts have COPD?

A

23%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the most common non-infectious pulmonary disease amongst HIV pts?

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what GI pathology exacerbates COPD?

A

GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how many COPD patients have GERD?

A

28%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is presence of COPD and GERD associated with?

A

increased risk of hospitalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

when does DOE occur in COPD?

A

in 6th decade

by the time FEV1 is less than 50% normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most common variable to grade COPD severity

A

FEV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what kind of cough do COPDers have?

A

productive cough

worse in AM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3 general symptoms of COPD

A

productive cough
acute chest illness
wheezing (especially with exertion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

best single predictor of an airflow obstruction?

A

history of >40 pack-years of smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

PE findings for COPD

A 
respiratory rate (increases with severity)
increased JVP
cyanosis
accessory muscle use
barrel chest
decreased breath sounds
distant heart sounds
hyperresonance
prolonged expiration
coarse crackles on inspiration
peripheral edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

term for accessory muscle use

A

hoover sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

why does a hoover sign occur?

A

flattened diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

describe a “blue bloater

A 
obese
frequent cough/expectoration
accessory muscle use
coarse rhonchi
wheezing
right sided heart failure symtoms (edema, cyanosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how advanced are blue bloater’s COPD

A

end stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

describe a pink puffer

A 
thin
barrel chest
little-no cough/expectoration
pursed lips
accessory muscle use
tripod
hyperresonant
wheezing
distant heart sounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the FEV1/FVC level for COPD?

A

<70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what determines how effectively gases are exchanged between the blood and airways in the lungs?

A

diffusion lung capacity with CO (DLCO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how do they test DLCO?

A

put pt in a glass box and blow CO at them to assess diffusion
pt inhales CO, helium, and O2 and holds breath for 10 seconds
gas levels analyzed from exhaled breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

pCO2, pH, and HCT relative levels with COPD DLCO

A

increased CO2
decreased pH
increased HCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

why is HCT increased in COPD?

A

body’s response to not having enough oxygen

overcompensates by creating more RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Xray findings in COPD

A

low flattened diaphragm
hyperinflation
increased AP retrosternal airspace
narrow cardiac silhouette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what happens in small airway disease in COPD?

A

airway inflammation and remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what happens in parenchymal destruction in COPD?

A

loss of alveolar attachments

decrease of elastic recoil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what causes small airway disease and parenchymal destruction?

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what does small airway disease and parenchymal destruction cause?

A

airflow limitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what does the GOLD criteria stand for?

A

global initiative for chronic obstructive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

who contributes to the GOLD criteria?

A

NIH and WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

3 criteria areas for GOLD

A

symptoms (based on modifed medical research council (mMRC) or COPD assessment test (CAT)
airflow obstruction (FEV1)
exacerbation hx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

relative difficulty and scale for mMRC questionaire?

A

easy (1 question)

grade 0-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

COPD assessment test format

A

rate a few questions 0-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

how do we ultimately want to classify COPD patients based on their severity?

A

category A-D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

MOA of SABA

A

beta2 agonist
relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
inhibits release of immediate hypersensitivity mediators from mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

indications for SABAs

A

adults and kinds
COPD
Acute asthma exacerbations
exercise-induced asthma prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

drug interactions of SABAs

A

beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

adverse effects of SABAs

A 
tachycardia
URI
Nausea
Pharyngitis
**a-fib
**hypokalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

generic for SABA

A

albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

brand names for SABA

A

ventolin, proventil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

pregnancy category of SABAs

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

clinical teaching of SABA

A 
warn of side effects
proper inhalation
rinse
wash mouthpiece
if used > 2x/week consider controller therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

SAMA MOA

A

anti-cholinergic effects
suppresses tightening of bronchial smooth muscle
anti-secretory properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

indications of SAMAs

A

adults and kids
COPD
asthma exacerbation
allergic rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

adverse effects of SAMAs

A 
headache
URI
bronchitis
xerostomia
dry nasal mucosa
**bronchospasm
**anaphylaxis
**glaucoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what med is often mixed with albuterol (to make duoneb)

A

SAMAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

generic SAMA

A

ipratropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

brand SAMA

A

atrovent HFA (MDI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

pregnancy category of SAMA

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

clinical teaching for SAMAs

A

avoid activities requireing mental alertness or coordination –> dizziness
improvements from nasal spray may be delayed
proper inhalation technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

SABA + SAMA MOA

A

beta2 agonist and anti-cholinergic effects
suppresses tightening of bronchial smooth muscle
anti-secretory properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

indications for SABA+SAMA

A

adults and kids
COPD
asthma exacerbation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

adverse effects of SABAs+SAMAs

A 
headache
URI
**bronchospasm
**anaphylaxis
**hypokalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

generic of SABA + SAMA

A

albuterol/ipratroprium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

brands of SABA+SAMA

A

combivent (MDI)

DuoNeb (neb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

pregnancy category of SABA+SAMA

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

clinical teaching for SABA+SAMA

A

avoid activities requiring mental alertness/coordination
improvments from nasal spray possibly delayed
proper inhalation technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

LABA MOA

A

beta2 agonist

relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and inhibits release of immediate hypersitivity mediators from mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

indications for LABAs

A

COPD
asthma
exercise-induced asthma prophylaxis

90
Q

what class drug reduces need for rescue medications by 21%

A

LABAs

91
Q

what class drug has the black box warning of increased risk for asthma related death, intubation, or hospitalization in ages 4-11 but not when combnined with an inhaled steroid

A

LABA

92
Q

adverse effects of LABAs

A 
HA
musculoskeletal pain
**death
**prolonged QT
**asthma exacerbations
93
Q

generics of LABAs

A

salmeterol

formoterol

94
Q

salmeterol brand

A

serevent (LABA)

95
Q

formoterol brand

A

foradil (LABA)

96
Q

pregnancy category of LABA

A

C

97
Q

clinical teaching of LABAs

A

not for acute exacerbation
adverse effects
inhalation technique

98
Q

LAMA MOA

A

anti-cholinergic effects
suppresses tightening of bronchial smooth muscle
anti-secretory properties

99
Q

indications of LAMAs

A

COPD

100
Q

adverse effects of LAMAs

A 
URI
xerostomia
bronchitis
constibation
**bowel obstruction
**bronchospasm
**glaucoma
101
Q

generic of LAMA

A

tiotropium

102
Q

brand of tiotropium

A

Spiriva (LAMA)

103
Q

pregnancy category of LAMAs

A

C

104
Q

clinical teaching of LAMAs

A

avoid activities requiring mental alertness or coordination
improvements may be delayed
proper inhalation technique

105
Q

LAMA + LABA MOA

A

anti-cholinergic and LABA

106
Q

indications of LAMA+LABA

A

COPD

107
Q

adverse effects of LAMA+LABA

A 
pharyngitis
diarrhea
extremity pain
**asthma related death
**anaphylaxis
**HTN
**hypokalemia
**prolonged QT
108
Q

generic of LAMA + LABA

A

umeclidium/vilanterol

109
Q

umeclidium/vilanterol brand

A

anoro ellipta

110
Q

pregnancy category of LAMA+LABA

A

C

111
Q

clinical teaching of LAMA+LABA

A

if using other inhalers, use at least another minute before using another

112
Q

ICS+LABA MOA

A

beta2 agonist relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and inhibits release of immediate hypersensitivity mediatorys from mast cells
mimics cortisol with salt-retaining properties

113
Q

indications for ICS+LABA

A

adults and kids
COPD
asthma

114
Q

adverse effects of ICS+LABA

A 
oral candidiasis
GI upset
HA
nasopharyngitis
URI
**hypokalemia
**glaucoma
**cataracts
**asthma related death
115
Q

generic of ICS + LABA

A

formoterol/budesonide
salmeterol/fluticasone
formoterol/mometasone

116
Q

brand of formoterol/budesonide

A

symbicort (ICS+LABA)

117
Q

`brand of salmeterol/fluticasone

A

advair (ICS+LABA)

118
Q

brand of formoterol/mometasone

A

dulera (ICS+LABA)

119
Q

pregnancy category of ICS+LABA

A

C

120
Q

clinical teaching of ICS+LABA

A 
not indicated for acute
reduced growth rate in kids
adrenal supression
rinse mouth
oral infections
121
Q

MOA of PED4i

A

reduces neutrophil and eosinophil counds in lungs

122
Q

PDE4i stands for

A

phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor

123
Q

indications for PDE4i

A

COPD (chronic, exacerbation, prophylaxis)

124
Q

adverse effects of PDE4i

A 
weight loss
GI upset
influenza
back ache
dizziness
HA
insomnia
**suicidal thoughts
125
Q

generic of PED4 i

A

roflumilast

126
Q

roflumilast brand

A

daliresp (PDE4i)

127
Q

pregnancy category of PDE4i

A

C

128
Q

clincial teaching for PDE4i

A

not for acute bronchospasm
warn SE
report weight loss
report depression, anxiety, suicidal ideation, unusual changes in behavior

129
Q

theophylline MOA

A

bronchodilation through smooth muscle relaxation

suppression of airway stimuli

130
Q

class of theophylline

A

methylxanthene

131
Q

indications of theophylline

A

COPD
asthma exacerbation
asthma
newborn apnea

132
Q

adverse effects of theophylline

A 
nausea
vomiting
HA
insomnia
restlessness
irritability
**a-fib
**stevens-johnson
**seizures
133
Q

brand of theophylline

A

theo-dur

134
Q

pregnancy category of theophylline

A

C

135
Q

clinical teaching of theophylline

A

not for acute exacerbations

theophylline toxicity

136
Q

symptoms of theophylline toxicity

A

vomitting
arrhythmia
seizures

137
Q

COPD complications

A 
respiratory infections
pulmonary HTN
increased risk of heart disease
GERD
lung CA
depression
138
Q

what happens to FEV1 with smoking cessation

A

rate of decline is slowed

139
Q

what reduces the frequency of the common cold which triggers COPD exacerbations?

A

PPIs

140
Q

when do we give O2 therapy to COPDers?

A

when chonically hypoxic

resting O2 <90%

141
Q

which vaccination should all COPD pts have?

A

influenza

142
Q

which vaccination should COPDers >65 have?

A

pneumococcal

143
Q

how good is AAT treatment?

A

questional benefit

144
Q

what can reduce dyspnea in selected pts?

A

bullectomy

145
Q

what surgeries can be done for COPD?

A

lung volume reduction surgery

lung transplant

146
Q

is surgery common for COPD?

A

no

147
Q

chronic infections in COPD

A

S. pneumonia
M. catarrhalis
H. influenza

148
Q

severe infections in COPD

A

p. aeruginosa

149
Q

what should we consider with COPD pts and infections?

A

have a low threshold for treating them because they are more prone

150
Q

what does airtrapping look like on CXR

A

hyperlucency (black)

151
Q

reliever meds for COPD

A

SABAs

152
Q

controller meds for COPD

A

LABAs

153
Q

preventer meds for COPD

A

inhaled corticosteroids

154
Q

definition of bronchiectasis

A

abnormal, permanent dilation/destruction of bronchi walls where mucous pools

155
Q

who is bronchiectasis more common in?

A

slender white women >60

156
Q

what is lady windermere’s syndrome?

A

bronchiectasis

157
Q

what infection did lady windermere die from?

A

M. avium (MAC)

158
Q

what is an important cause of lung disease in developing countries?

A

bronchiectasis

159
Q

what deficiency is common in bronchiectasis

A

vitamin D

160
Q

what is vitamin D deficiency a marker of

A

disease severity

161
Q

what are vitamin D deficient bronchiectasis patients more commonly colonized with?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

162
Q

what bronchi are most affected by bronchiectasis

A

proximal and medium sized

163
Q

is dilation of the bronchi focal or diffuse in bronchiectasis

A

either

164
Q

how does one get bronchiectasis?

A

acquired (more common)

congenital

165
Q

causes of bronchiectasis

A 
congenital
infection
airway obstruction
impaired drainage
toxic gas exposure
CF
166
Q

what do affected bronchi show in bronchiectasis?

A

transmural inflammation
mucosal edema
craters
ulcers

167
Q

causes of infection in bronchiectasis

A 
S. pneumonia (most common)
S. aureus
H. influenza
M. tuberculosis
P. aeruginosa
M. avium
M.catarrhalis
RSV
168
Q

what causes airway obstruction in bronchiectasis?

A

foreign body aspiration due to altered mental status or GERD

stroke patients because they cannot protect their airway

169
Q

impaired drainage with bronchiectasis caused by

A

CF
primary ciliary dyskinesia
allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)-fungal infection

170
Q

toxic gas exposure in bronchiectasis caused by

A

chlorine (water disinfectant)

ammonia (used in fertilizer, refrigerants, cleaning solutions)

171
Q

what caused 1/3 of bronchiectasis

A

CF

172
Q

clinical manifestations of bronchiectasis

A 
cough
mucopurulent sputum production
lasts months-years
blood-streaked sputum or hemoptysis
little or no sputum can be a sequela of TB
173
Q

what is bronchiectasis hard to differentiate from?

A

COPD

174
Q

non-specific bronchiectasis symptoms

A

dyspnea
pleuritic chest pain
wheezing
fever

175
Q

specific symptoms to bronchiectasis

A

weakness

weight loss

176
Q

non specific physican exam findings for bronchiectasis

A 
crackles
rhonchi
wheezing
inspiratory squeaks
cyanosis
177
Q

specific bronchiectasis physical exam findings

A

digital clubbing
wasting
weight loss

178
Q

what do you make the bronchiectasis diagnosis based off of

A

clinical presentation
sputum analysis
high-resolution CT (confirmatory)

179
Q

how do we often control infections in bronchiectasis

A

fluoroquinolones

180
Q

how do we reduce inflammation in bronchiectasis

A

beta agonists
anti-cholinergics
ICS

181
Q

how do we improve bronchial hygiene

A

airway mucous clearance-

chest percussion and postural drainage

182
Q

CF definition

A

disease of exocrine gland causing production of abnormally thick mucus, leading to blockage of bronchi, pancreatic ducts, and intestines

183
Q

how is CF inherited

A

autosomal recessive

chromosome 7

184
Q

what is the most common lethal hereditary disease in the white population

A

CF

185
Q

median age of CF dx

A

6-8 months

186
Q

median survival age for CF

A

41

187
Q

how many live births are affected with CF

A

1/3000

188
Q

what is the genetic defect of CF

A

defect in CF gene (protein transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)

189
Q

how many mutations are possible in CF

A

> 1500

190
Q

what is missing in CF

A

missing the gene so it doesn’t move the chloride ions out and mucous becomes sticky

191
Q

what ions are increased/decreased in CF

A

decreased secretion of chloride

increased reasborption of sodium and water

192
Q

what other secretions are affected in CF

A

respiratory tract
pancreas
GI tract
sweat glands have increased viscosity

193
Q

clinical manifestations of CF

A 
severe lung disease
pancreatic insufficiency
nasal polyposis
sinus disease
meconium ileus
rectal prolapse
chronic diarrhea
pancreatitis
cholelithiasis
cirrhosis
194
Q

CF PE findings

A 
rhinitis
nasal polyps
cough
tachypnea
respiratory distress with retractions
wheezes, crackles
increased AP chest diameter
clubbing
cyanosis
hyperresonace
195
Q

what kind of cough to CF pts have?

A

worse at night and upon awakening

viscous, purulent, green sputum

196
Q

GI PE findings for CF

A 
abd distention
hepatosplenomegaly (portal HTN)
rectal prolapse
dry skin (vit A deficiency)
cheilosis (vit B deficiency)
swelling of submandibular or parotid gland
aquagenic wrinkling of palms
197
Q

male urogenital PE for CF

A

undescended testicles
hydrocele
absence of vas deferens

198
Q

what percent of CF men are sterile

A

> 95%

199
Q

female urogenital PE findings for CF

A

severe nutritional deficiency –> amenorrhea

200
Q

what percent of CF female are sterile?

A

20%

201
Q

what too abnormalities does vitamin D deficiency cause in CF?

A

scoliosis and kyphosis

202
Q

how does CF affect the nose?

A

sinusitis due to obstruction of sinus ostia

203
Q

what occurs from inflammation of pulmonary vessels in CF

A

hemoptysis

204
Q

what occurs from rutpured alveoli in CF

A

pneumothorax

205
Q

what effects does CF have on the GI tract?

A

pancreatic insufficiency
diabetes (decreased flow from pancreatic duct)
cholithiasis (decreased bile flow = sludge)

206
Q

other effects on the body from CF

A

weak muscles due to malabsorption

stress incontinence due to decreased strength of pelvic floor muscles)

207
Q

diagnosis of CF

A 
postive sweat chloride test or positive genetic test
AND one of the following
COPD
documented pancreatic insufficiency
positive family history
208
Q

what imaging should we do for CF

A

initially CXR then consider CT

209
Q

primary goals of treatment for CF

A

maintain lung function
administer nutritional therapy to maintain adequate growth
manage complications with supplements and vaccines

210
Q

how do we clear the airways of mucus for CF patients?

A

bronchodilator before chest physiotherapy

mucolytic- dornase alpha (pulmozyme) + hypertonic saline solution aerosols

211
Q

what vitamins/ supplements do CF patients need?

A

vitamins (ADEK)-fat soluble
pancreatic enzymes
high energy, high fat diet

212
Q

how may we manage diabetes CF complications?

A

insulin

213
Q

how may we manage pneumothorax CF complications?

A

chest tube

214
Q

will CF patients get nasal polys?

A

yes –> polypectomy

215
Q

what GI complications may we have to treat for CF?

A

ileus
prolapse
gastrotomy tube for supplemental feeding

216
Q

other treatment for CF

A

CFTR potentiators

217
Q

MOA of CFTR potentiators

A

target defective CFTR protein

218
Q

indication for CFTR potentiators

A

patients with IG551D mutation

219
Q

generic of CFTR potentiator

A

ivacaftor

220
Q

brand for ivacaftor

A

Kalydeco (CFTR potentiator)

CMPP (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions