Controlling Microbial Growth in Vitro Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathogenic staphylococcal species?

A

staphylococcal aureus

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2
Q

What microbes are obligate intracellular pathogens?

A

Viruses

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3
Q

Sterilization

A

Removal of all microorganisms (absolutely free of microbes, endospores and viruses).

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4
Q

Disinfection

A

Eliminates most pathogens (not endospores)

Some viable microbes may exist.

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5
Q

What disinfectants is used on inanimate objects and surfaces?

A

Disinfectant or biocides or germicides

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6
Q

What disinfectant is used on living tissues (skin)?

A

Antiseptics (de-germining)

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7
Q

Pasteurization

A

Brief heat treatment used to reduce organisms that cause food spoilage.

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8
Q

True or False:

Surfaces can also be pasteurized?

A

True

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9
Q

Sanitized

A

Reducing microbial contamination to acceptable “safe” levels.

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10
Q

Preservation

A

Process used to delay spoilage of perishable items.

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11
Q

What control approach often includes that addition of growth inhibiting ingredients?

A

Preservation

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12
Q

What do the sufix -cide or dical refer to?

A

Killing

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13
Q

What are chemicals that kill microbes?

A

Germicidal agents, biocidal agents and microbicidal agents.

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14
Q

What agents kill bacteria, but not necessarily endospores?

A

Bactericidal agents

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15
Q

What do sporicidal agents kill?

A

Bacterial Endospores

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16
Q

What agents kill fungi and fungal spores?

A

Fungicidal agents

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17
Q

What do algicidal agent and viricidal agents?

A

Algicidal - kill algae

Viricidal - destroy viruses

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18
Q

What is growth?

A

The acquisition of biomass leading to cell division, or reproduction.

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19
Q

Tolerance means?

A

Microbes will survive under certain conditions, but will not necessarily grow.

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20
Q

-phile means

A

Describe conditions permitting growth.

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21
Q

What the difference between thermophilic bacterium and thermotolerant?

A

Thermophilic will grow under conditions of elevated temperature. Thermotolerant bacterium will survives, but will not necessarily grow.

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22
Q

What is the difference between obligate and facultative?

A

Obligate - means that a given condition is required for growth.
Facultative means the organisms can grow under conditions, but is not required.

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23
Q

What factors can affect microbial growth?

A

Nutrients, moisture, temperature, pH, Osmotic pressure and salinity, barometric pressure.

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24
Q

What means that the microbes prefer pH of 2-5?

A

Acidophiles (ex. Helicobacter pylori)

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25
What means that the microbes prefer pH greater than 8.5?
Alkaliphiles (ex. yeast, vibrio cholerae)
26
What are Halophilies?
Microbes that prefer a certain osmotic pressure and salinity. (ex. staphylococcus aureus)
27
What microbes prefer barometric pressure?
Barophiles
28
What is pickling?
Pickling is in a hypertonic. The bacteria undergo plasmolysis which prevents food spoilage.
29
What types of microbes are obligate aerobes?
Most fungi, algae, protazoa, and bacteria
30
Are facultative aerobes gram positive or negative pathogens?
Gram negative pathogens (ex. escherichia)
31
What amount of oxygen do microaerophiles require?
Roughly 5% of oxygen
32
What microbes are killed by the presence of oxygen?
Obligate anaerobes (ex. clostridia)
33
Aerotolerent
Can live in oxygen environments, just won't necessarily grow.
34
What are capnophiles?
Grow in environments with higher concentration of CO2.
35
Where are most canophiles found in the body?
Most are found in the intestinal tract, respiratory tract, and other body tissues where pathogenic bacteria grow.
36
What does an anoxic jar do?
An anoxic jar creates an oxygen free atmosphere for anaerobe growth.
37
What is the O2 free chamber used for?
The anaerobic chamber is for building up for culturing bacteria.
38
Is bacterial growth an increase in number or size?
Number
39
How do bacteria divide?
Binary fission
40
What is generation time?
The time is takes one cell to be come two cells. (ex. E.coli = 20 minutes)
41
What are artificial media?
Liquid and solid (physical state) Chemical defined, complex media (composition) Selective media, differential media, enriched media, aerobic media (function)
42
Define: Chemically defined
Highly purified inorganic and organic compounds in H2O
43
What is complex (undefined) microbial growth?
digests of casein, beef, soybeans, yeast
44
What are the three types of media? And what does each mean?
Selective - suppress unwanted microbes Differential - differentiation of colonies Enriched - similar to selective but increase desired microbes levels
45
Are the three types of media (selective, differential, and enriched) exclusive?
No, they are not exclusive. Blood agar, for example, is both enriched and differential.
46
What is MacConkey agar used for?
Inhibit gram (+), lactose, pH indicatior (pink = acid) Lactose fermenter pink colonies (Ex. E. coli) Non-lactose fermenter white/transparent (salomnella)
47
What is Mannitol-salt agar is used for?
For staphylococus | It inhibits most bacteria. Yellow = acid
48
What indicates staphylococus aureus?
Yellow colonies
49
Does staphylococus epidermidis have any color?
No
50
What do metallic green sheen colonies on a eosin methylene blue agar indicate?
Strong lactose fermenter. Also, can indicate E. coli.
51
What does brown-pink coloration of growth on a eosin methylene blue agar indicate?
Weak fermentation of lactose. Also can indicate klebsiella or enterobacter.
52
What does translucent color on a eosin methylene blue agar indicate?
Non-lactose. Also indicates pseudomonas or salmonella (non-coliform)
53
What kind of enterobacteriaceae are found when a patient has E. coli?
EHEC-0157:H7 ex. of symptoms = bloody diarrhea
54
How do you culture Protoza?
Protozoa can be cultured in vitro.
55
What are the four main phases of growth in bacterial culture?
Lag phase, exponential growth, stationary, and death phase.
56
When brewing beer, which phase of the four main phases would you need to have the beer in?
The exponential growth phase. This is done by continuously adding more of the food or liquid to the growth chamber.
57
What are contaminants?
Unwanted organisms
58
What is the cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by large numbers of individual particles in the test tubes called?
Turbidity
59
What is direct cell count?
When special slides are used to count how many living cells are in a mL.
60
What is a flow cytometer used for?
It is a technology that is used to analyse the physical and chemical characteristics of particles in a fluid as it passes through at least one laser.
61
What is a laboratory technique of molecular biology based on the polymerase chain reactions?
Real-time PCR
62
What types of plates are used for indicating streptococcus species?
Blood agar plates
63
What are the three branches of streptococcus?
alpha-hemolytic, beta-hemolytic, and gamma-hemolytic.
64
What can alpha-hemolytic cause?
Pneumoniae and viridans
65
What can beta-hemolytic cause?
Pyogenes (group A strep) and agalactiae (group B strep).
66
Which type of streptococcus causes strep throat?
Streptococcus pyogenes group A bacteria.
67
What can gamma-hemolytic cause?
Entreococcus
68
Which type of strep reacts with bacitracin disks?
Group A
69
What are chocolate agar plates used for?
Growth of fastidious organisms. (ex. neisseria gonorrhoeae and neisseria meningitis)
70
What is a drug or chemical that inhibits growth?
Microbistatic agents
71
What agent is one that specifically inhibits the metabolism and reproduction of bacteria?
Bacteriostatic agent
72
What is the process that combines dehydration and freezing. Typically used to preserve foods, make antibiotics, microorganisms and other biological materials?
Lyophilization
73
What is the term used to refer to the presence of pathogens in the blood and tissue?
Sepsis
74
What does asepsis mean?
The absence of pathogens.
75
What do antimicrobial procedures depend on?
Type of microbe, extent of contamination, environment, and composition of infected tissue.
76
Which bacteria is resistant to heat, drying, and numerous chemicals?
Bacterial endospore
77
What bacteria's resistance is dependent on the cell wall structure?
Mycobacterium species
78
What microbes generally excrete in feces and cause diarrheal disease?
Protozoan cysts and oocysts
79
What species can grow in the presence of many chemical disinfectants?
Pseudomonas species
80
Which viruses lack envelopes and are more resistant to chemical killing?
Naked viruses
81
What temperature destroys most microoganisms and viruses?
Boiling
82
Is boiling a good means of sterilization?
No
83
True or False: | Boiling destroys endospores
False
84
What does pasteurization do?
Pasteurization reduces organisms, but does not sterilize. It also increases shelf life of food.
85
What does an autoclave do?
An autoclave uses pressurized steam to sterilize.
86
What are the requirements to sterilize prions in an autoclave?
132*C and 15 psi for 4.5 hours
87
Do cold temperatures kill microorganisms?
No, generally the microorganisms won't die. Instead, their metabolic activities are slowed down.
88
What is desiccation?
When microoganisms are dried. They are still viable, but cannot reproduce.
89
True or False: | Radiation (gamma rays) can be used to destroy microbes in air, drinking water, and surfaces?
True
90
What are ultrasonic waves used in hospitals and medical and dental clinics for?
Sterilization of equipment
91
How do you separate cells/microorganisms from liquids or gases?
Filtraton
92
True or False: | Gaseous atmospheres can be altered to inhibit growth?
True
93
True or False: | Chemicals used to disinfect and sterilize are called germicidal chemicals?
True
94
True or False: | Strong organic acids are often used as food preservatives?
False, weak ones are
95
True of False: | Nitrates and nitrites are used in processed meats?
True; they are used to inhibit germination of endospores and growth of vegetative cells.
96
What are lipid-containing viruses (category A)?
Lipoviruses
97
True or False: | Category B viruses contain lipid in the virus?
False; they do not contain them