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Pharmaceutical Microbiology > control of microbial growth > Flashcards

control of microbial growth Flashcards

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1
Q

are different microbes with differences in resistance and harmfulness,

A

contaminants

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2
Q

what is the Importance of In-vitro microbial control

A
  1. Prevention of disease transmission (in hospitals and dental clinics).
  2. Prevention of growth of undesirable microorganisms in food and pharmaceutical products that may lead to spoilage and infections.
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3
Q

what is the Microbial spoilage

A

❑ Deterioration of pharmaceutical preparation by contaminant microbe. - Such spoilage will result in major financial problems for the manufacturer
▪ Loss of product
▪ Loss of faith in the company
▪ Direct effect on users

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4
Q

………. is The most extreme protocol for microbial control

A

Sterilization

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5
Q

is the destruction or removal of all viable microorganisms, including cells, spores and viruses from an object or in an area.

A

Sterilization

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6
Q

……..It describes an item that is completely free of living organisms

A

sterile

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7
Q

There are degrees of sterility

T or F?

A

F there are no degrees of sterility. an object is either

sterile or it is not.

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8
Q

An agent that can be used to achieve sterilization is called ……..

A

sterilant

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9
Q

Sterilization is used for animate objects

T or F? and why?

A

F, Sterilization is only used for inanimate objects as it would be impractical or dangerous to sterilize parts of the human body.

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10
Q

what is Disinfection?

A

Destruction or reducing the number of vegetative microbes (but not bacterial endospores) on non-living objects.

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11
Q

what is Disinfectants?

A

Chemicals used to destroy vegetative pathogens
(but not endospores) on non-living objects.
▪ Because they are strong chemical substances,
disinfectants cannot be used on living tissues.

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12
Q

what is Antisepsis?

A

Destruction or reducing the number of vegetative microbes (but not bacterial endospores) on living objects.

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13
Q

what is Antiseptics?

A

The chemical compounds applied to living

tissues that are used to destroy vegetatively pathogens on living tissues.

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14
Q

Degermation

A

the mechanical removal of microbes from a limited

area such as the skin around an injection site.

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15
Q

what is the difference between Microbicides and Microbistatics?

A

Microbicides
▪ Agents that kill microbes.▪ Bactericide: an agent that specifically kills bacteria.
▪ Fungicide: an agent that specifically kills fungi including fungal spores.
▪ Sporicide: an agent that specifically kills bacteria endospores.
Microbistatics
▪ Agents that inhibits the reproduction (growth) of microorganisms but does not necessarily kill
them.
▪ Bacteriostatic: an agent that specifically inhibits the growth of bacteria.
▪ Fungistatic: an agent that specifically inhibits the growth of fungi.

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16
Q

what are the Methods of In vitro microbial control?

A 
A) Physical methods
1. Heat
2. Radiation
B) Mechanical removal methods
▪ Filtration
C) Chemical methods
1. Gases
2. Liquids
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17
Q

what are the factors that should be considered in choosing sterilization
methods?

A
  1. Knowledge of the properties of the sterilizing agent.
  2. Knowledge of the properties of the product to be sterilized.
  3. Knowledge of the nature of the likely contaminants and the level of decontamination required.
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18
Q

………It is the permanent loss of reproductive capability, even under optimum growth conditions

A

microbial death

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19
Q

what is the Survivor (or death) curve

A

It is a plot of the logarithm of the fraction of surviving microorganisms against the size of the treatment

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20
Q

……… a short activation phase due to an initial increase in the viable count is seen during the heat treatment of certain bacterial spores

A

-Bacterial spores

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21
Q

what is the Reduced rate of kill means?

A

presence of heat resistant microorganisms.

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22
Q

Sterility assurance level (SAL) is a time-independent process.
T or F AND WHY?

A

F it is a time-dependent process, because the true sterility, represented by zero survivors, and that can only be achieved after an infinite exposure period or radiation dose.

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23
Q

What is meant by the sterility assurance level (SAL)?

A

▪ The probability of a single viable microorganism surviving after sterilization.

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24
Q

A very effective sterilization process has a very high SAL.

T or F?

A

F, very low SAL

25
Q

How can we assess the effectiveness of any sterilization process?

A

use SAL that it provides for a probability of finding a non-sterile unit or less than one in one million. ▪ That is, the process including production, storage will provide a Sterility assurance level (SAL) equal to or better than 10-6, which is a 1 in 1,000,000 chance of a non-sterile unit, so there is a one in one million chance that the item being sterilized is still contaminated.

26
Q

what is meant If a process has a SAL value of ’10−6?

A

There is a one in one million chance that the item being sterilized is still contaminated.
▪ If a pharmaceutical manufacturer were to make a batch of an injection consisting of one million ampoules, one of them would contain a surviving organism.
▪ Lower values of SAL indicates higher efficiency of the sterilization process and greater assurance of sterility

27
Q

An SAL of 10−6 provides a greater assurance of sterility than an SAL of 10−3
T or F?

A

T

28
Q

Lower values of SAL indicates higher efficiency of the sterilization process and greater assurance of sterility. T or F?

A

T

29
Q

❑ Vegetative forms of bacteria and fungi, along with the larger viruses, show lower sensitivity to sterilization processes than small viruses and bacterial or fungal spores.
T or F?

A

F, ❑ Vegetative forms of bacteria and fungi, along with the larger viruses, show greater sensitivity to sterilization processes than small viruses and bacterial or fungal spores.

30
Q

A sterilization process may thus be developed without a full microbiological background to the product. why?

A

because we can choose a suitable reference organism for testing the efficiency of sterilization processes are therefore made from the most durable bacterial spores. based on the ability to deal with a ‘worst case’ condition.

31
Q

what is the D-value: (The decimal reduction (or decay) time)?

A

It is the time required to kill 90% of microorganisms or spores (1 log cycle reduction of survivors)in a sample under specified conditions (fixed temperature or radiation dose).

32
Q

As the temperature increases, D-value decreases.

T or F?

A

T

33
Q

The higher the D value, the more sensitive is the organism and the higher the efficiency of a killing agent.
T or F?

A

F, The smaller the D value, the more sensitive is the organism and the higher the efficiency of a killing agent.

34
Q

▪ It is used only for heat treatment.
D value
or Z value

A

Z value

35
Q

Z - value is……………

A

the increase in temperature needed to reduce the D -

value of an organism by 90%

36
Q

…………. helps to indicate how much time is needed to sterilize an area depending on the level of contamination.

A

D-value

37
Q

………… It is a measure of the influence of temperature changes on thermal resistance of a microorganism

A

Z value

38
Q

what is the Estimation of the Z-value?

A

The Z-value may be estimated graphically by plotting to log D-values against temperature

39
Q

compare between Thermal Death Point and Thermal Death Time.

A

Thermal death point (0C) :
The lowest temperature at which a suspension of bacteria in an aqueous medium is killed in a given
time.
WHILE Thermal death time (min.):
The time required to kill a culture at a specific temperature.

40
Q

what is the Thermal death point (0C)?

A

it is the lowest temperature at which a suspension of bacteria in an aqueous medium is killed in a given time

41
Q

what is the Thermal death time (min.)?

A

it is the time required to kill a culture at a specific temperature.

42
Q

what are the Factors affecting microbial death using a sterilization process?

A
  1. Population size
  2. Population composition
  3. Concentration of an agent
  4. Duration of exposure
  5. Local environment
  6. Temperature
43
Q

70% ethanol is more effective than

95% why?

A

because its activity is enhanced in the presence of water

44
Q

Heat is more effective under basic conditions.

T or F?

A

F acidic

45
Q

The presence of organic matter (vomit or feces) increases \ stimulates the action of chemical antimicrobials.
T or F?

A

F inhibits

46
Q

❑ A lower concentration of disinfectant or sterilizing agent can be used at a higher temperature.
T or F

A

T

47
Q

Therefore, a SAL of 10−6 has represented the sterilization standard WHY?????

A

When the initial microbial contamination level is assumed to be 106 and if the D value of the sterilization process is 7 min., complete kill is approached by
application of 6D-values (42min.), however at this point reliable sterilization would not be assured because a few abnormally resistant members of the population may remain, so by extending the process to include additional 6Dvalues (overkill conditions), most of the remaining is inactivated, reducing the probability of one organism surviving in one million.

48
Q

what are the Advantages of heat sterilization?

A
  1. Reliable.
  2. Unexpansive.
  3. Leave no residues which might be toxic to humans.
49
Q

………………..is the most widely used method for sterilization of heat-stable materials.

A

Heat sterilization

50
Q

what is the Heating up period?

A

The time required to reach the sterilization temperature

51
Q

what is the Holding period?

A

The time at which the article to be sterilized is kept at the sterilizing temperature.

52
Q

what is the Cooling-down period?

A

The time during which the temperature decreases to

room temperature.

53
Q

writ a short note about the heat sterilization process (Sterilization Cycle)

A

A. Heating up period: The time required to reach the sterilization temperature.
B. Holding period: The time at which the article to be sterilized is kept at the sterilizing temperature.
C. Cooling-down period: The time during which the temperature decreases to room temperature.

54
Q

writ a short note about the Mode of the action of dry heat

A
  1. Slow protein denaturation through
    oxidation of certain groups in the protein molecules.
  2. Oxidation and destruction of enzymes and other essential cell constituents.
  3. Evaporation of water increases electrolyte concentration within cells causing toxic effects.
55
Q

………..it is The most extreme form of dry heat treatment in which microbes are burnt to destruction at many hundreds of degrees Celsius (Direct exposure to
intense heat).

A

Incineration

56
Q

what are the Methods used for incineration?

A

A. Direct Flaming
▪ The flame of a Bunsen burner reaches 1,500°C at its hottest point.
B. Incinerators
▪ incinerators operate at temperatures of 870°C to 980°C.

57
Q

what are the Main design features of hot air ovens?

A

▪ An insulated, stainless-steel chamber
▪ An outer case containing electric heaters
▪ Perforated shelves: to permit circulation of hot air and allow good airflow.
▪ A fan is fitted to the back of the oven for air circulation, thus ensuring even
temperature distribution throughout the sterilization chamber.
▪ A fixed temperature sensor connected to a chart or digital recorder provides a
permanent record of the sterilization cycle.
▪ Appropriate door-locking controls should be incorporated to prevent
interruption of a sterilization cycle once begun.

58
Q

what are the Precautions of using hot air ovens?

?

A
  1. Avoid overload to allow proper heat transfer by radiation and convection.
  2. Articles to be sterilized must be wrapped to avoid post sterilization contamination.
  3. Allow the chamber temperature to fall to around 40°C before removal of sterilized articles to avoid cracking of glass.

Pharmaceutical Microbiology (2 decks)

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