Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spring 2014 > Contracts II > Flashcards

Contracts II Flashcards

1
Q

implied in fact

A

any term the court finds to be “implicit” in the parties words or conduct even though not literally expressed by them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

rationale for implied terms

A
  • to “save k”
  • to make k “fair”
  • implement “intent of the parties”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

rationale for implied terms in exclusive marketing agreements

A

an exclusive marketing agreement for which the only compensation for the producer is a share of the profits generated by the marketer implies a duty of reasonable efforts by the marketer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

situations in which the duty of good faith applies

A

1) to incl terms which weren’t in written agreement (to implement parties intent)
2) to find a breach when no express term was violated (intent again)
3) to judge use of one side’s contractually-granted power of discretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

implied obligation of good faith

A

duty of good faith & fair dealing is implied in every k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

implied obligation of good faith re: express terms

A

may not be used to contradict an express term of the k (though sometimes it seems to be anyway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

implied obligation of good faith - requirement/output k

UCC § 2-306

A

buyers in requirement k cant demand more than actually required in good faith (aka buyers cant demand much more than stated estimate/past requirements, but can reduce order even to 0 in good faith). Sellers in output k can also reduce in good faith. Good faith in this context generally means change stems from something beyond party’s control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

implied obligation of good faith - standards

rest § 228

A

when k involves personal aesthetics/fancy: good faith standard
when k involves commercial quality or the like: reasonable person standard, unless k provides for a different result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

definition of “good faith” re: implied obligation of good faith

A

honesty in fact in the conduct or transaction concerned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

implied obligation of good faith -

at-will employment k

A

duty of good faith & fair dealing applied to k terms that exist beyond the at-will employment relationship (such as promise to provide an evaluation before making a termination decision), but employees cannot recover for termination per se

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

implied obligation of good faith -

when termination violates public policy

A

No cause of action exists for termination of an at-will employment relationship unless it violates public policy.
Employer cannot:
- require employee to commit a crime
- prevent employee from complying w/ statutorily imposed duty
- discharge employee when specially prohibited from doing so by statute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

implied obligation of good faith -

public policy

A

Public policy is to be ascertained by reference to the laws & legal precedents & not from general considerations of supposed public interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

implied obligation of good faith -

private employer & whistleblowing

A

private employer does not violate public policy by firing an employee for whistle-blowing, when the employee was under no legal duty to report the acts at issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

implied obligation of good faith -

how to defeat at-will presumption

A

est. employee gave employer additional consideration other than the services for which she was hired or
underwent a substantial hardship other than the services which she was hired to perform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Infancy (Majority Rule)

A

K of minors (“infants”) are voidable & subject to be disaffirmed by the minor either before or after attaining majority

Exception: necessities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Infancy (Minority Rule)

A

when minor hasn’t been overreached in any way/no undue influence/k is fair & reasonable/ minor has actually paid $ on purchase price & taken & used item = minor shouldn’t be able to get back amount actually paid w/o allowing the vendor reasonable compensation for use/depreciation & willful/negligent damage to item while in minors hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mental Incompetents

A

K entered into by mental incompetents are voidable but they must pay for their use/depreciation of property acquired under the k unless contracting partner knew/had reason to know if incompetence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Economic Duress Elements

A
  1. “wrongful” threat (crim, tortious, or wrongful in moral sense ex: bad faith refusal to perform k obligation)
  2. induces consent (causation)
  3. lack of reasonable alt. or serious $$ hardship
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Undue Influence

A
  1. Unfair persuasion of a party
  2. who is under the domination of the person exercising the persuasion or
  3. who by virtue of the relation between them is justified in assuming that that person will not act in a manner inconsistent w/ his welfare.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fraud (tort) elements

A

π must prove by clear/convincing evidence that ∆:

  1. intent or knowledge made 1 or more
  2. false statement
  3. that were material
  4. & causation (enter into k)
  5. damages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

factors that may show undue influence

A
  1. unusual time
  2. unusual place
  3. time urgency
  4. numerical advantage (‘er)
  5. no lawyers or other help present (‘ee)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

damages available in fraud tort

A

punitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

fraud (misrepresentation- k defense)

A

if party’s manifestation of assent is induced by fraud or material misrepresentation by the other party, upon which the recipient is justified in relying, the k is voidable by recipient. In order to get recession, the π must tender what she has received under the k.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Puffery

A

exaggeration, putting things in the best possible light. cannot be an outright lie. sales pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Definition of “Opinion”

A

expresses only a belief, w/o certainty, re: existence of a fact or expresses only a judgement re: quality, value, authenticity, or the like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What an “Opinion” implies

A

when reasonable, recipient of opinion re: facts not disclosed/known to recipient, it’s implied:

  1. speaker really believes what they’re saying. if they don’t or know facts that show it to be false = false statement
  2. speaker has sufficient knowledge to justify his opinion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when reliance on an opinion is justified

A

listener not justified in relying on it unless:

  1. fiduciary relationship
  2. listener reasonably believed speaker has special knowledge about what he’s saying/that he’s an expert
  3. listener is vulnerable (old, child, sad, etc)

only 1 of these needs to be met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Misrepresentation - Liability for Opinions

Classical Rule

A

can’t really sue for an opinion, not around anymore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Nondisclosure - Modern Rule

A

persons nondisclosure = assertion fact doesn’t exist only when:

  1. necessary to correct a prior statement
  2. pertains to a basic assumption on which party is making k & good faith requires disclosure
  3. to correct a mistake about k contents
  4. fiduciary duty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When does good faith require disclosure?

A
  • casually acquired = must disclose
  • deliberately acquired = not recquired

though not rules, most courts follow this logic. seller more likely to have to disclose than buyer b/c seller in position of advantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Unconscionability

UCC §2-302; Rest §208

A

court may refuse to enforce k term if, in light of gen commercial background/commerical needs of particular trade/case, the clauses involved are so 1 sided as to be uncon. under the circumstances existing at the time k was made.

principle: prevention of oppression & unfair surprise. Not of disturbance of allocation of risk bc of superior bargaining power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Unconscionability -

procedural/substantive test

A

many courts require π show both to void k but the more you have of 1 the less needed of other

  • procedural = consent
  • substantive = unfair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Public Policy - covenants not to compete

A

disfavored & will not be enforced

1) if restraint is greater than necessary to protect employer’s legit interest or
2) employer’s interest is outweighed by the hardship to the employee & likely injury to the public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

public policy- “blue pencil”

A
  • to edit/strike out grammatically severable/unreasonable provisions
  • where not evident from k, court cannot create new agreement for parties to uphold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ABA’s position on restrictive covenants

A

prohibited between attorneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when a statute is inconsistent/silent as to whether a k is enforceable

A 
regulatory statute (designed to protect the public) = k's in violation are generally unenforceable
revenue raising statute = enforceable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A party bears the risk of a mistake when

A

a) k says so
b) knows s/he doesn’t know at time k was made
c) court imposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

implied in law

A

made a part of agreement by operation of the rules of law rather than by the agreement of the parties themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

frustration of purpose

A

after k is made, a party’s principal purpose is substnatially frustrated w/o his fault bc of an event (the non occurrence of which was a basic assumption on which k was made) his duties to perform are discharged, unless the language or circumstances indicate the contrary

the exchange called for by the k had lost all value to ∆ because of a supervening changes in extrinsic circumstances

40
Q

Impracticability

A

after k is made, a party’s performance is made impracticable w/o his fault by the occurrence of an event (non-occurrence of which was a basic assumption on which k was made) his duty to render that performance is discharged, unless the language or the circumstances indicate the contrary.

sufficiently different from what the parties had both contemplated at the time of contracting

41
Q

impracticability & frustration as excuse of nonperformance for economic loss

A

Neither impracticability nor frustration of purpose will excuse performance just because the affected party will now sustain a loss.

42
Q

what counts as a principal purpose for frustration of purpose doctrine?

A

the object must be so completely the basis of the k that, as both parties understand, w/o it the transaction would make little sense

43
Q

how severe does the frustration of purpose have to be?

A

frustration must be very substantial. Not enough that the transaction has become less profitable for the affected party or even that he will sustain a loss. Must be so severe that it’s not fairly to be regarded as w/in the risks that he assumed under the k

44
Q

Express Conditions -

Condition Precent

A
  • act or event, other than the lapse of time, which, unless the condition is excused, must occur before a duty to perform a promise in the agreement arises.
  • may be express or implied
45
Q

Modification under UCC

A

An agreement modifying a k w/in Article 2 needs no consideration to be binding.

Under Article 2, “no oral modification” clauses are enforceable (though must be separately signed if on a form between merchants). But they may be orally waived.

46
Q

Express Conditions

A

must be literally performed & aren’t subject to doctrine of substantial performance, as constructive conditions are. (§237) (But perhaps only if the condition is material)

47
Q

Modification- CL Preexisting Duty Rule & Exceptions

A

a promise to perform a preexisting duty doesn’t count as consideration

exceptions:

  1. unanticipated conditions
  2. provision by statute
  3. reliance
48
Q

Express Conditions -

Ambiguous Language

A

will be interpreted as a promise rather than an express condition (§ 227)

49
Q

Express Conditions -

performance of a duty subject to a condition

A

cannot become due unless the condition occurs or its non-occurrence is excused. Unless it has been excused, the non-occurrence of a condition discharges the duty when the condition can no longer occur. Non-occurrence of a condition isn’t a breach by a party unless he’s under a duty that the condition occur (§225)

50
Q

express conditions - ways it can be excused in nonoccurrence of a condition

A
  1. waiver (waiver of material condition requires consideration or reliance. none required for unimportant condition)
  2. prevention
  3. breach
  4. if it would cause a disproportionate forfeiture

rest § 229

51
Q

Material Breach - Substantial Performance

A

Except as stated in (divisible performances), it is a condition of each party’s remaining duties to render performances to be exchanged under an exchange of promises that there be no uncured material failure by the other party to render any such performance due at an earlier time.
Rest § 237.

52
Q

Material Breach - Divisible Performances

A

If the performances to be exchanged under an exchange of promises 1) can be apportioned into corresponding pairs of part performances 2) so that the parts of each pair are properly regarded as agreed equivalents, a party’s performance of his part of such a pair has the same effect on the other’s duties to render performance of the agreed equivalent as it would have if only that pair of performances had been promised

53
Q

What is a material breach?

A

an unjustified failure to perform all or any part of what is promised in a k

54
Q

A breach is more likely to be material to the extent…

multi-factor test

A
  • injured party will be deprived of the benefit she reasonably expected;
  • injured party cannot be adequately compensated for the part of the benefit of which she will be deprived
  • party failing to perform will not suffer a forfeiture
  • party failing to perform is not likely to cure the breach
  • behavior of party failing to perform fails to comply w/ good faith
    Rest. § 241
55
Q

Total Breach (more likely to be considered total to the extent…)

A
  • it’s material;
  • delay reasonably appears likely to hinder injured party in making substitute arrangements
  • agreement provides for performance w/o delay
    (Rest §242)
56
Q

Material Breach - how total & partial breach relieves parties

A

Total: relieves nonbreaching party from his duties under k
Partial: does not discharge nonbreaching party, who must continue to perform his obligations under k

57
Q

Material Breach - Damages

A

Victim of total breach: actual & future damages

victim of a partial breach: only actual damages

58
Q

Anticipatory Repudiation -

What is a repudiation?

A

a definite & unequivocal statement by the obligor to the obligee indicating the obligor will commit a breach that would’ve itself given the obligee a claim for damages for total breach, or
a voluntary affirmative act which renders the obligor unable or apparently unable to perform w/o such a breach. Statement or action must amount to a statement of intention not to perform except on conditions which go beyond the k

59
Q

Anticipatory Repudiation

- Right to Adequate Assurance of Performance Requirements

A
  1. When reasonable grounds for insecurity arise w/ respect to the performance of either party,
  2. the other may in writing [not strictly enforced] demand adequate assurance of due performance &
  3. until he receives such assurance may if commercially reasonable suspend any performance for which he has not already received the agreed return.
  4. After receipt of a justified demand, failure to provide w/in a reasonable time not exceeding 30 days such assurance of due performance as is adequate under the circumstances of the particular case is a repudiation of the k
60
Q

Anticipatory Repudiation - How is it nullified?

A

retraction of the statement if notification comes to the attention of injured party before he materially changes his position in reliance on the repudiation or indicates to the other party that he considers the repudiation to be final.
The effect of events other than a statement is nullified if, to the knowledge of the injured party, those events have ceased to exist before he materially changes his position in reliance on the repudiation or indicates to the other party that he considers the repudiation to be final

61
Q

Computing the Value of Plaintiff’s Expectation - Expectation Damages

A

usual measure of k damages. The amount of $ required to put injured party in position he would’ve been in had k been performed.
(rest formula):
injured party has right to damages based on his expectation interest as measured by
(a) loss in value to him of the other party’s performance caused by its failure or deficiency, +
(b) any other loss, incl incidental or consequential loss, caused by the breach, -
(c) any cost or other loss that he has avoided by not having to perform

62
Q

Anticipatory Repudiation

A

Where an obligor repudiates a duty before he has committed a breach by non-performance & before he has received all of the agreed exchange for it, his repudiation alone gives rise to a claim for damages for total breach.

63
Q

Limits on the Recovery of Expectation Damages: Duty to Mitigate Damages

A

Damages aren’t recoverable for loss that the injured party could’ve avoided w/o undue risk, burden or humiliation, except to the extent that she has made reasonable but unsuccessful efforts to avoid loss

Exceptions:

  1. lost volume seller
  2. employee need not take dissimilar job
64
Q

Restrictions on the Recovery of Expectation Damages: Mitigation of Damages - Employment

A

An employee who has been wrongfully terminated has a duty to mitigate damages through reasonable efforts to achieve other employment. Employer bears burden of proving that comparable, or substantially similar employment, was available to employee

65
Q

Restrictions on the Recovery of Expectation Damages: Mitigation of Damages - Lost Volume

A

Mere fact that an injured party can make arrangements for the disposition of the goods or services that she was to supply under k doesn’t necessarily mean that by doing so she will avoid loss. If she would have entered into both transactions but for the breach, she has “lost volume” as a result of the breach. In that case, the 2nd transaction is not a “substitute” for the 1st

66
Q

Restrictions on the Recovery of Expectation Damages - for breach of k

A

recoverable only if the damages either arise naturally from the breach or are the result of special circumstances communicated to the breaching party at the time k was formed

67
Q

Restrictions on the Recovery of Expectation Damages - Lost profits are recoverable if the loss…

A

1) is w/in the contemplation of the parties at the time k was made
2) flows directly or proximately from the breach; &
3) is capable of reasonably accurate measurement or estimate

68
Q

Nonrecoverable Damages: Items Commonly Excluded from Plaintiff’s Damages for Breach of Contract - Tortious Breach

A

Outside the insurance context, a tortious breach of k may be found when:

  1. breach is accompanied by a traditional CL tort such as fraud or conversion;
  2. means used to breach k are tortious, involving deceit or undue coercion or;
  3. one party intentionally breaches k intending or knowing that such a breach will cause severe unmitigable harm in the form of mental anguish, personal hardship, or substantial consequential damages.
69
Q

Nonrecoverable Damages: Items Commonly Excluded from Plaintiff’s Damages for Breach of Contract - American Rule for Attorneys Fees & Exceptions

A 
Attorneys fees are not ordinarily recoverable for breach of  k actions. 
Exceptions:
A.  Contractual Provisions
B.  Statutes
C.  Court Rules
D.  Collateral Litigation
70
Q

Reliance Damages

A

As an alternative to expectancy, the injured party has a right to damages based on his reliance interest, incl. expenditures made in preparation for performance or in performance, less any loss that the party in breach can prove with reasonable certainty the injured party would have suffered had the k been performed.

71
Q

Restitutionary Damages

& Exception

A

On a breach by non-performance that gives rise to a claim for damages for total breach on a repudiation, the injured party is entitled to restitution for any benefit that he has conferred on the other party by way of part performance or reliance.
Exception: unless his duties have already been fully performed and the breaching party’s only remaining duty is the payment of money. (limited to expectation damages)

72
Q

Restitutionary Damages - Market Value Restitution

A

Restitution for the value of services provided to ∆ is available even if the injured party would have lost money on the k
(Rest. § 373)

73
Q

Restitutionary Damages -

What breaching party may recover

A

breaching party may recover in restitution the value of any benefit conferred, minus any damages caused by the breach

74
Q

Restitutionary Damages available when…

A

a. cause of action of restitution (incl total breach of k at the injured party’s election)
b. k void due to some defense such as fraud, duress, mistake, incapacity, impossibility
c. breaching party (minus any damages caused by breach)

75
Q

Specific Performance

A

Specific relief is available only when the remedy at law is inadequate. Often this is the case bc k is for sale of an interest in land, subject of the k is unique, or a damage award would be uncollectible

76
Q

Specific Performance

A

Specific performance will not be granted unless the terms of the k are sufficiently certain to provide a basis for an appropriate order. But specific relief will not be denied merely because the parties have left some matters out of their agreement, or left some issues to be agreed on in the future, so long as all material terms have been agreed on.

77
Q

Specific Relief

personal service k

A

Specific performance is not available for personal service k. Courts may be willing to enjoin the defendant from performing services for another person, but not if the probable result of the injunction would be to compel a performance involving personal relations the enforced continuance of which is undesirable or will be to leave the employee without other reasonable means of making a living. (Rest. § 367)

78
Q

Agreed Remedies

A

Damages for breach by either party may be liquidated in the agreement but only at an amount that is reasonable in the light of the anticipated or actual loss caused by the breach and the difficulties of proof of loss. A term fixing unreasonably large liquidated damages is unenforceable on grounds of public policy as a penalty.
Rest § 356; UCC 2-718

79
Q

Nondisclosure - Classical Rule

A

Silence cannot count as a lie

80
Q

Bilateral Mistake

A
  1. Where a mistake of both parties at the time a k was made
  2. as to a basic assumption on which the k was made has a material effect on the agreed exchange of performances,
  3. the k is voidable by the adversely affected party unless he bears the risk of the mistake under §154
81
Q

Unilateral Mistake

A

Where a mistake of one party at time of k was made as to a basic assumption on which he made the k has a material effect on the agreed exchange of performances that is adverse to him, the k is voidable by him if he doesn’t bear the risk under §154 &

a) effect of the mistake is such that enforcement of the k would be unconscionable (cause a substantial loss) OR
b) other party had reason to know of or caused the mistake

82
Q

Foreseeability Re: Frustration of Purpose

A

The non-occurrence of the frustrating event must have been a basic assumption on which the contract was made. Foreseeability is a factor in that determination, but the mere fact that the event was foreseeable does not compel the conclusion that its non-occurrence was not such a basic assumption.

83
Q

Frustration of Purpose Re: Governmental Action

A

Courts are generally more willing to grant relief under frustration of purpose when the event on which the claim of frustration rests is some form of supervening governmental action rather than cases in which the event is war, natural disaster, or market change.

84
Q

Some reasons courts give for refusing to grant specific relief include:

A
  • K is insufficiently definite
  • burdens on the court of supervising the order outweigh the order’s benefit to the parties
  • the order would cause harm to the breaching party that outweighs the order’s benefit to the breach’s victim
  • the order would cause harm to third parties that outweighs the order’s benefit to the breach’s victim
85
Q

Nonrecoverable Damages: Items Commonly Excluded from Plaintiff’s Damages for Breach of Contract - Punitive Damages

A

Punitive damages are not generally available for ordinary breach of k. They are available in tort for conduct that is outrageous, because of the defendant’s evil motive or his reckless indifference to the rights of others.
Rest Torts § 908(2)

86
Q

Nonrecoverable Damages: Items Commonly Excluded from Plaintiff’s Damages for Breach of Contract - Emotional Distress

A

Recovery for emo disturbance will be excluded in an action for breach of an ordinary commercial k unless breach also caused bodily harm or k or breach is of such a kind that serious emo disturbance was a particularly likely result.

87
Q

Public Policy - Statutes

A

Statute may prohibit certain k, in which case such k are void. Courts will not invalidate k on basis of public policy unless that public policy comes from a statute or a long-standing CL rule.

88
Q

Relationships/transactions that may include an ancillary covenant include:

A
  1. Promise by the seller of a business not to compete w/ buyer
  2. Promise by employee not to compete w/ employer
  3. Promise by partner not to compete w/ partnership
89
Q

Conditions - A k term may be a:

A

Condition: nonoccurrence = not a breach but excuses conditioned duty.
Promise: nonoccurrence = breach but doesn’t excuse any reciprocal duty unless its a total breach.
Both: nonoccurrence = breach & excuses conditioned duty.
Neither: nonoccurrence isn’t a breach & has no effect on any contractual duty. (generally timing clauses.)

90
Q

Anticipatory Repudiation- Effect

A

triggers a right to sue for past and future damages and permits the injured party to cancel his/her reciprocal performance

91
Q

when Reliance Damages are available

A
  1. Expectation damages not reasonably calculable
  2. Promissory estoppel cause of action where court believes equity calls for less than full expectation damages (limits damages as justice requires)
  3. Rare restitution cause of action cases
92
Q

Limits on Expectation Damages: Consequential Damages (Hadley rule)

A

consequential damages are only recoverable if they were reasonably w/in contemplation of parties at time of k formation.

93
Q

Incidental damages are

A

Costs incurred in a reasonable effort to avoid or mitigate damages caused by the other party’s breach

94
Q

Consequential damages incl

A

Reasonable foreseeable injuries to a person, business, or property caused by breaching party’s failure to perform, to fully perform or properly perform.

When consequential damages are available, injured party has duty to mitigate.

95
Q

3 approaches to agreed remedies

A

traditional: just reasonable (time of k) don’t care if you were right or not
rest: reasonable or right will be enforceable
rest: reasonable and right to be enforceable

96
Q

Definition of “promise”

A

Manifestation of intention to act or refrain from acting in a specified way, so made as to justify a promisee in understanding that a commitment has been made

97
Q

defenses

A
  1. minority
  2. mental incapacity
  3. undue influence
  4. economic duress
  5. misrepresentation
  6. nondisclosure
  7. unconscionaility
  8. mistake
  9. impossibility, impracticability, frustration of purpose
  10. modification

Spring 2014 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions