Contracts 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In a non-carrier contract, where is the tender of delivery, unless expressly different?

A

In non-carrier cases, the tender of delivery is at the seller’s place of business unless otherwise agreed.

The seller must give reasonable notice of tender to buyer.

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2
Q

In a shipment contract, what tender obligations does the seller have?

A

In a shipment case, the seller must:
Put goods to a reasonable carrier and make reasonable contract for shipment;
Obtain and tender any documents necessary for buyer to take possession;
Promptly notify buyer of shipment.

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3
Q

In a destination contract, what are the seller’s tender obligations?

A

The seller must put and hold goods at the destination, give seller reasonable notice of tender, and provide title documents.

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4
Q

Unless otherwise agreed, when does buyer’s obligation to pay for goods under Article 2 occur?

A

Buyer is obligated to pay at tender of goods.

This can be concurrent with delivery (non-carrier or destination contracts) or with shipment (shipment contracts).

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5
Q

How is a promise distinguished from a condition?

A

A promise is a commitment to do or refrain from something.

A condition creates or releases the duty to perform the promise. Conditions in effect, shift the risk of performance.

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6
Q

Distinguish a condition precedent and a condition subsequent.

A

A condition precedent is an instance which must occur before an absolute duty arises.
A condition subsequent is an instance that removes the absolute duty to perform.

Failure of a condition is not a breach, but rather discharges liability from obligation.

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7
Q

What is a satisfaction clause?

A

A satisfaction clause is an express condition that forgives one’s duty to perform absent his subjective satisfaction with the product/subject matter.

Generally, manufacturing/commercial satisfaction clauses are held to an objective standard based on the trade.

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8
Q

Who can waive a condition?

A

The person receiving the benefit of the condition can waive a condition. A waiver given prior to time for performance can be retracted, unless the other has relied on the waiver.

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9
Q

Does difficulty of performance create an excuse to a condition?

A

Mere difficulty of performance does not excuse a condition, however if the party to perform a condition is hindered from performing by the intentional effort of the other, this excuses the condition.

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10
Q

What major factor determines if a party may terminate performance for a breach?

A

A party may terminate her performance under a contract for a material breach.

If the breach is not material, then it is considered a partial breach. Damages may be available, but performance must continue.

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11
Q

Under common law, how is materiality determined?

A

The Restatements have 6 considerations in determining if a breach is material:

1) The greater the benefit received…
2) The greater chance of adequate compensation to the injured…
3) The greater performance completed…
4) The greater the hardship to the breaching party…
5) The less willful or negligent the breaching behavior…
6) The greater the likelihood of full performance…
then. .. the less likely a material breach.

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12
Q

In order for an innocent party to bring a claim for breach, he must be ___________________ to perform.

A

In order for an innocent party to bring a claim for breach, he must be willing and able to perform.

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13
Q

In order to determine if a term of a contract is divisible, the court will consider what 3-part test?

A

In order to decide if a part of a contract is divisible, the following 3-part test must be satisfied concurrently:

1) The performance is divided into 2 or more parts;
2) Each party has equal parts due to the other; AND
3) Each performance is a quid pro quo of the other.

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14
Q

How is substantial performance viewed under the UCC?

A

Substantial performance is not considered under the UCC, rather the UCC follows the Perfect Tender Rule.

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15
Q

If the goods or delivery of the goods fail to conform to the contract, what options are available to the buyer?

A

If goods or delivery fail to conform, the buyer may:
Reject all goods,
Accept all goods,
Accept any of the goods and reject remaining.

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16
Q

When does the buyer’s right to reject nonconforming goods end?

A

Under the UCC, the right to reject ends with acceptance.

Acceptance is established when the buyer:
Indicates he will keep the goods;
Fails to reject in a reasonable time;
Fails to seasonably notify the seller of rejection;
Does any other act inconsistent with the seller’s ownership of the goods.

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17
Q

What is required in a notice of rejection?

A

The buyer must notify the seller of a rejection of goods. He must state a particular defect to justify the rejection if:
The seller could have cured the nonconformity, or
The seller has requested written defects (if btwn merchants).

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18
Q

What is the difference in a rejection and a revocation of goods?

A

A rejection denies acceptance.

A revocation occurs after acceptance and the buyer finds a substantially impaired value &:

1) has a reasonable belief the defect would be cured and it wasn’t, or
2) defect was difficult to discover or the buyer relies on the seller’s assurance.

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19
Q

When must a revocation be made?

A

A buyer can revoke acceptance within a reasonable time after discovered, or should have been discovered.

A buyer must revoke prior to any substantial change is made to the goods.

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20
Q

What is a seller’s response to a rejection or revocation?

A

To avoid a breach, a seller has the right to cure nonconforming goods by giving notice of cure and a new tender within a reasonable time.

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21
Q

What is the effect if the subject matter or consideration is or becomes illegal?

A

Illegality of consideration or subject matter generally renders an agreement void and unenforceable.

A contract can be legal but for an illegal purpose (Cheese additive case, Blossom Farm v Kasson) and if so then unenforceable.

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22
Q

What are limitations of an Illegality defense?

A

If the plaintiff is unaware of illegality, an innocent party may recover.

If plaintiff has unclean hands (in pari delicto) then no recovery

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23
Q

Is bribery a defense to contract enforcement?

A

Bribery can be a public policy defense. There must be a direct connection between the bribe and the obligation to be excused.

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24
Q

When is a operating without a proper license a defense to contract enforcement?

A

When a license is required for public welfare, it can be a defense against the party without a license.

Generally, if the license requirement is strictly for generating revenue, it is not a public policy defense.

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25
Q

What is another term for a Restraint of Trade agreement & what are the parameters?

A

A restraint of trade agreement is known as a Non-Complete agreement.
Non-competes must be reasonable in duration and geography and not harmful to the public.

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26
Q

What claims may a terminated at-will employee have under Contract law?

A

Under contract law, at-will employees have no claim for termination. A claim may exist under tort law based on statute or public policy.

Attorneys are considered at-will employees.

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27
Q

When are prenuptial agreements enforceable?

A

Prenuptial agreements are subject to the same defenses as other contracts- fraud, duress, incapacity, etc.

Under the Geyer standard, a full and fair disclosure is required.

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28
Q

Are surrogacy contracts enforceable?

A

Surrogacy contracts are generally invalid as against public policy if they dismiss parental rights prior to birth.

Surrogate contracts can be valid if voluntary and no money.

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29
Q

All or part of a contract that is “absent meaningful choice, coupled with unreasonable favorable terms” may be invalid on what grounds?

A

Unconscionability- An agreement that “no one in senses would make, no fair, honest would accept”

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30
Q

Are contracts when one party makes unusually high profit unconscionable?

A

Not generally. Business-people contracting are arm’s length establish valid agreements.

The bargaining power and sophistication of the parties will be considered.

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31
Q

A “take it or leave it” contract is also known as what?

A

A contract of adhesion, where one side drafts the entire contract without negotiation or input from the other.

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32
Q

Enforcing Adhesion Contracts-

A

Generally enforceable, if not oppressive and within reasonable expectations. When questioned, interpreted against the drafter.

Can’t forgive intentional wrongs, and must be conspicuous.

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33
Q

Is an unconscionable term more procedural or substantive in nature?

A

Unconscionability requires some degree of procedural and substantive unconscionability.

Procedural is the manner of negotiations, unfair surprise. Substantive is found in the fairness of the terms.

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34
Q

Does an unconscionable term void a contract?

A

Not always, unconscionable terms can be severed by the court.

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35
Q

When is good faith required?

A

Good faith is always required. Common law good faith is implied on every contract, that neither shall destroy or injure a right of the other.

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36
Q

How does the UCC define Good Faith?

A

Good Faith in UCC is “honesty in fact and observance of reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing in trade”

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37
Q

Is specific performance a remedy for lack of Good Faith?

A

Not generally. Relief is ensuring a good faith performance. (SAT didn’t review evidence of scores, crt ordered review but not acceptance, Dalton v. ETS)

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38
Q

What is a Force Majeure clause?

A

Force Majeure is an escape clause, excusing performance for unforeseen, unpredictable events.

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39
Q

When is a contract excusable for impracticability?

A

Impracticability is established when the performance can only be done at an unreasonable and excessive cost, effort, or burden. However, high cost alone is not enough to render impracticable.

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40
Q

What is a three step test to check impossibility?

A

1) Did an unexpected contingency (supervening event) occur?
2) Was the risk of the event allocated, by contract or custom?
3) Did the event make performance literally impossible?

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41
Q

Impossibility is considered subjectively or objectively?

A

Impossibility must be from an objective standard. If one party can’t perform but another could, not impossible.

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42
Q

What is the Ejusdem Generis doctrine?

A

In force majeure clause, a list of excusable events summarized by “other circumstances”- Other circumstances must be of the same kind as the list.

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43
Q

When a material part of a contract or performance is destroyed, what is the effect?

A

When performance depends on a thing and that thing ceases to exist, at no fault of either, performance excused.

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44
Q

What is the result from a casualty of goods of a contract?

A

If at no fault of either, &-
the goods are fully destroyed, the contract is avoided.;
the goods are partially destroyed, the buyer’s option to void all or part of contract.

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45
Q

What case introduced frustration of purpose?

A

Krell v. Henry, where a room was rented to watch a coronation that was rescheduled.

46
Q

Does impossibility create a frustration of purpose?

A

No, frustration of purpose doesn’t mean impossible. Rather, the value of performance has been destroyed by fortuitous event.

47
Q

What is a mutual mistake that allows for rescission of an agreement?

A

A mutual mistake exists at the time of formation, but is unknown and falsely assumed by both parties, and has a material effect to the basis of the contract.

Rescission is unavailable after full performance by either party.

48
Q

Is any recovery available for a mutual mistake?

A

Generally, mutual mistakes allow for rescission (voidable). If there have been partial performance, restitution may be found under Quantum Meruit.

49
Q

When is a Unilateral Mistake voidable?

A

A mistake that exists at formation but is unknown by 1 party is voidable if:

1) Material to contract
2) Other party knew or had reason to know
3) Enforcement would be oppressive to mistaken
4) voiding doesn’t create substantial hardship

50
Q

What circumstances can put the risk of a mistake on a party?

A

A party bears the risk of a mistake when:

1) the risk is allocated by contract or custom
2) A party has limited knowledge but act as sufficient knowledge
3) the court allocates the risk

51
Q

What type of errors have the most favor with the courts?

A

What the court calls mechanical errors, errors of computation, mathematics, clerical and transcription.

Common in erroneous bids.

52
Q

What is anticipatory repudiation?

A

Anticipatory repudiation is when one party notifies the other of intent to breach. It applies only to bilateral executory contracts, and must be clear and unequivocal repudiation.

53
Q

What is the effect of an anticipatory repudiation?

A

An anticipatory repudiation satisfies breach immediately. However, given a reasonable time and no reliance, a repudiation may be retracted.

54
Q

How does anticipatory repudiation differ from a prospective nonperformance?

A

Prospective nonperformance is an objective suspicion of an inability or unwillingness by the other to perform (insecurity).

55
Q

Is past financial trouble, or rumor, grounds for insecurity?

A

Generally yes.

56
Q

If one party has insecurity about another’s performance, what options are available?

A

An insecure party can request Adequate Assurances. Adequate assurances are based on commercial standards and practices, and failure to give can be treated as a repudiation.

57
Q

When is specific performance available?

A

Specific performance is an equitable relief. Courts generally prefer monetary damages unless inadequate.

Specific performance is typically granted in breaches on the purchase/sell of land. Also for rare or unique items.

58
Q

What are equitable defenses to specific performance?

A

Latches- when a party delays a claim that puts defendant in prejudiced spot (increase of cost or difficulty)
Unclean hands- when party brings claim but also guilty of a related wrongdoing
Bona Fide Purchase- If subject has been sold to another in good faith.

59
Q

When is specific performance available as relief to a breach of a service contract?

A

Specific performance is not available on services contracts. (problems with enforcement and involuntary servitude)

60
Q

If a seller discovers an insolvent buyer, what remedies are available under UCC 2-702?

A

If seller discovers insolvent buyer:

1) Stop delivery, or
2) Refuse delivery unless cash payment, or
3) if delivered, demand immediate cash, or
4) Reclaim within 10 days (if misrep about solvency in last 30 days, no time limit to reclaim)

61
Q

The preferred method of recovery in contract law is what?

A

Monetary damages is the preferred method of recovery in contract law.

62
Q

What is the purpose of damages in contract law?

A

The purpose of contract damages is to put the innocent party in the position he would have been if full performance.

63
Q

What is the most common measure of compensatory damages in contract law?

A

Expectation damages is the most common measure. This is based on damages sufficient to get substitute performance (benefit of the bargain).

64
Q

Where expectation damages are too difficult to measure, what method is used?

A

When expectation damages is immeasurable, Reliance damages are considered. This gives the plaintiff the cost of her performance to this point, to put in position as if never in contract.

65
Q

What are consequential damages in contract law?

A

Consequential damages arise from an innocent buyer’s special circumstances. They must have been reasonable foreseeable as a result of a breach at the time of contract.

Can be based on lost profits.

66
Q

What are incidental damages in contract law?

A

Incidental damages are those expenses reasonably related to the breached transaction. Can be cost of inspection, care and custody of rightfully rejected goods, shipping, reselling.

67
Q

What is the certainty rule, and how does it effect contract damages?

A

The certainty rule states that damages must be certain in nature, and not speculative. Also, damages must be a proximate result of the breach.

Future profits can be allowed, if show to reasonable certainty.

68
Q

Are damages required to be foreseeable?

A

Yes. Damages must have been foreseeable to the breaching party. They must have been reasonably contemplated at formation, reasonably considered as naturally arising from the breach, and to the purpose of the contract.

69
Q

When are punitive damages allowed under contract law theories?

A

Punitive damages are not provided under contract law. Punitives can be applied if there is a related tort, under tort theories.

70
Q

What are liquidated damages?

A

Liquidated damages are expressly stipulated damages for a specific breach, often late performance.

71
Q

What factors make liquidated damage clauses valid?

A

Liquidated damages may be valid if:

1) Actual damages impossible to measure
2) Amount attempts to fix fair compensation
3) Amount is not disproportionate to contract, is reasonable to harm caused

72
Q

Who has the burden to show a liquidated clause is actually a penalty?

A

Liquidated clauses are presumed valid. The defense has the burden to show a penalty (ex. if not fixed and not a pre-estimate of likely harm)

73
Q

If an express damage clause is more valuable than actual damages, what is the court position?

A

Express damages more valuable than actual damages are considered penalty (punitive) and not valid. Court may award actual damages for breach.

74
Q

Damages available to buyer if revoke/reject on seller breach?

A

Buyer is entitled to difference in contract price and market price, or cost of cover plus incidental/consequential less savings.

75
Q

When are a buyer’s damages calculated in an anticipatory repudiation by the seller?

A

Damages are measured from the time of repudiation plus a commercially reasonable time (to allow for retraction/cover investigation).

76
Q

When a buyer mistakenly accept non-conforming goods and revokes, damages are-

A

Warranty damages, plus incidental and consequential. The buyer must give notice in a reasonable time after discovery or should have discovered.

77
Q

What are a seller’s damages if a buyer repudiates or refuses goods?

A

The seller is entitled to the difference between the contract price and the market or resell price, plus incidental.

Good faith resell required.

78
Q

What is a lost volume seller?

A

A lost volume seller is able to resell as many products as she can produce, and loses a volume of business.

79
Q

What recovery is available to a lost volume seller?

A

A lost volume seller can recover the difference between contract price and market price (preferred if makes whole) or contract price minus costs (lost profit).

80
Q

If the owner breaches on a construction contract, what are the builder’s remedies?

A

If breach prior to start, the builder is entitled to lost profit.
If the breach is during construction, the builder gets lost profit plus costs to date (contract price less cost of completion).
If the breach is after completion, the builder gets contract price plus interest.

81
Q

If a builder breaches during construction, the owner is due-?

A

The owner is due the cost of completion, unless this results in an undue economic waste.

If undue economic waste, then owners gets diminished value (difference in as done and full performance value)
This is the same theory applied when “completed” but not to contract specification.

82
Q

What is an acceleration clause?

A

In an installment payment contract, an acceleration clause can make the full amount due upon missing an installment payment.

Without acceleration, a missed installment is only a partial breach.

83
Q

How does the theory of mitigation impact contract law?

A

In contract law, an innocent party can not recover damages that she could have reasonably avoided (mitigation of damages).

84
Q

Are expenses an innocent party spends to mitigate damages recoverable?

A

Yes. Reasonable expenses to mitigate the harm of an innocent party are recoverable from the breaching party.

85
Q

In manufacturing contracts, is a manufacturer responsible to cease production upon a repudiation?

A

Not always. A manufacturer can continue to produce after a repudiation in the exercise of reasonable commercial judgement to avoid a loss. (UCC 2-704(2))

86
Q

What is a builder’s mitigation responsibility following an owner’s breach or repudiation?

A

The builder in a construction contract has a duty to mitigate damages by stopping work upon owner’s breach.

87
Q

If a seller breaches in the sale of goods, what are the buyer’s options for recovery?

A

An innocent buyer can “cover” his loss by purchasing needed goods elsewhere. Recovery is the difference between market price (cost of cover) and the contract price.

88
Q

If a buyer breaches in a sale of goods, what are the seller’s recovery options?

A

An innocent seller can resell the goods. Recovery is the difference between the contract price and the resell price.

89
Q

Under UCC 2-713, failure to cover results in what damages?

A

Damages are the market price vs. the contract price.

If a repudiation, market price is determined by the time and place of tender in the contract.

90
Q

What is the recovery theory to prevent unjust enrichment?

A

Restitution is to prevent unjust enrichment. Quantum meruit is the value of the benefit that has been conferred.

91
Q

What is rescission?

A

Rescission is complete removal of the contract, as if never made.

Generally applied anytime a contract is voidable (duress, mistake, capacity, etc)

92
Q

Under the UCC, the statute of limitations for a breach on the sale of goods is 4 years. May the parties modify this?

A

Yes. Parties in the sale of goods can mutually agree to reduce the statute of limitations to less than 4 years, so long as not less than 1 year.

93
Q

When does an intended beneficiary’s rights vest?

A

A 3rd party’s rights vest when the beneficiary assents to either the promisee or promisor, or when the 3rd party has detrimentally relied on the benefit.

94
Q

If a contract has an intended beneficiary, who must agree to modify the original terms?

A

Both the promisee and the promisor must agree to modify. If a 3rd party has a vested interest, that 3rd party must also agree.

95
Q

What is required to make a 3rd party an intended beneficiary?

A

An intended beneficiary must be expressed in the contract, or be the intent of both parties.

If not expressed, it is presumed to be an incidental beneficiary.

96
Q

Can public contracts have intended 3rd party beneficiaries?

A

Theoretically yes, but generally public contracts are for the good of all the public and all the public is considered an incidental beneficiary.

97
Q

What type of duties are typically not assignable (delegable)?

A

Generally personal service contracts are not assignable. If the obligee has “substantial interest in have a particular person perform or control…”

98
Q

Does delegation of a duty release the original party’s obligation?

A

No. Delegation of a duty does not absolve the original duty. In order to absolve a duty, there must be a novation (substitution of parties).

99
Q

If a contractor is unable to complete a contract for impossibility, and her expenses are more than the contract price, how are damages calculated?

A

Damages will never exceed the contract price (plus incidentals and consequentials) The price is the maximum judgement.

100
Q

When does the UCC discharge duties for sever shortage of materials or supplies?

A

UCC discharges seller’s duties for severe shortage of materials or supplies if:

1) War or Embargo, or
2) Local Crop Failure, or
3) Labor Strike,
4) AND shortage caused marked increase in cost or prevented from securing supplies.

101
Q

What is required to absolve the original obligor when duties are passed to another party?

A

To absolve a promisor/obligor, the promisee must assent to a substitute (delegatee) obligor. This is called a novation.

102
Q

If a delegatee fails to perform, what redress does the delelgator have?

A

If a delegatee fails to perform a duty, the delegator can performed and recover any losses from delegatee.

103
Q

What rights are assignable?

A

Generally, all rights are assignable. Exceptions are: 1) when barred by contract term, 2) when assignment materially changes the duty, 3) when barred by statute.

104
Q

What is required in a non-assignment clause to make assignment ineffective?

A

Express and explicit language to void and invalidate on any assignment. Absent express intent, the assignment is valid and subject to breach damages.

105
Q

How must an assignment of rights be manifested?

A

Manifestation of an assignment of rights must be written or oral expression of intent to transfer rights.

Contract or statute may require writing, security agreements with respect to collateral must be written

106
Q

How are assignees effected by a contract modification?

A

Modification of a contract is effective against an assignee if made in good faith.

107
Q

How does a waiver of defenses impact assignments?

A

A (original) contract term can waive defenses against assignee if assigned, and the buyer’s recourse is with the assignor.

108
Q

What makes a Holder-In-Due-Course?

A

A holder in due course is an assignee who takes assignment:

1) for value, 2) in good faith, and 3) without knowledge of any claims or defenses.

109
Q

When multiple assignees claim a right to the same contract, who has the right?

A
This varies. The majority position is that the one first assigned is the right-holder. 
The minority (& Restatement) position is that the second may be rightful if: 1) obtained payment from obligor, or 2) recovered judgement on the debt, or 3) made a new K with obligor, or 4) received tangible token that must be surrendered.
110
Q

Compare ‘fraud in the factum’ to ‘fraud in the inducement’

A

Fraud in the factum is a misrepresentation to the nature of the contract (the duties, obligations, risks), and the contract is absolutely void.

Fraud in the inducement is a misrepresentation to induce the other to enter into contract. (“The car works”, when it knowingly doesn’t)

111
Q

What are the elements of misrepresentation (Restatements 2d S.164)?

A

1) Misrepresentation of existing fact
2) either fraudulent or material
3) Reasonable reliance

112
Q

When does silence make actionable misrepresentation?

A

1) affirmative action to conceal a fact
2) gaining subsequent info necessary to disclose to prevent a previous assertion from misrepresenting
3) knowing disclosure necessary to correct a wrong basic assumption of K
4) knowing disclosure necessary to correct other mistake to effect of writing
5) relation of trust or confidence