CONTRACTS Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Bilateral Contract?

A

A contract formed by an exchange of promises.

Example: A offers to sell a car to B for $5000, B promises to purchase A’s car at that price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a Unilateral Contract?

A

A contract formed involving only one promise that expressly requires performance to accept.

Example: A promises to pay B $100 if B paints A’s fence; the contract is formed once B paints the fence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a quasi-contract?

A

Not a contract, but restitution to prevent unjust enrichment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an Express Contract?

A

A contract formed by express written or oral terms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an Implied in Fact Contract?

A

A contract formed by the conduct of the parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an Implied in Law Contract?

A

Not a contract, it is a restitution remedy to prevent unjust enrichment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does Void mean in contract law?

A

No contract exists; the agreement has no legal effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does Voidable mean?

A

A problem with the contract exists, but it may be enforced or rejected at the option of one party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does Unenforceable mean?

A

A valid contract that cannot be enforced because a defense applies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the UCC?

A

The UCC governs SALE OF GOODS contracts and has additional rules if both parties are merchants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Common Law in contract law?

A

Applies to all other contracts, such as non-movable things like real estate, services, and construction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are Mixed Contracts?

A

Contracts that are hybrid containing both goods and non-goods, courts will use the predominant purpose test to determine which body of law applies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the requirements to form a valid contract?

A

1) Mutual assent (offer and acceptance) 2) Consideration 3) No defenses to formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an Offer?

A

An objective manifestation of present intent to enter into a contract with definite and reasonably certain terms communicated to an identified offeree.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a Counteroffer?

A

Terms of the initial offer are changed, making a brand new offer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the ways an offer can be terminated?

A

1) Revocation by offeror 2) Rejection or counteroffer by offeree 3) Lapse of time 4) Death/incapacity of either party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Revocation?

A

Revocation of an offer terminates the offeree’s power of acceptance if communicated before acceptance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the exceptions to revocation?

A

1) Option Contract 2) UCC Merchant’s firm offer 3) Detrimental reliance 4) Start performance in Unilateral Contracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a Rejection?

A

A manifestation of intent to NOT accept the offer communicated to the offeror.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Acceptance?

A

The offeree’s clear expression of assent to the offer, which can be through words, conduct, or performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Mirror Image Rule?

A

Acceptance must mirror the offer’s terms; cannot omit, add, or change terms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the timing of offer/acceptance?

A

Offer/rejection/counteroffer effective when received; acceptance effective when dispatched.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Consideration?

A

Bargained for exchange of legal value that benefits the promisor or causes detriment to the promisee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Promissory Estoppel?

A

A promise made without exchange of consideration that reasonably induces action or forbearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the requirements for modifications?

A

Requires mutual assent and new consideration, except under UCC where only good faith is needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Incapacity in contract law?

A

Lack of capacity to enter into a contract, making it voidable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Duress?

A

Wrongful act or threat that overcomes the free will of a person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Undue Influence?

A

Unfair persuasion from a person in a position of trust or confidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Mutual Mistake?

A

Voidable if both parties are mistaken about a basic assumption of fact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Misrepresentation?

A

Fraudulent or nonfraudulent false statement of a material fact that induces reliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Illegality in contract law?

A

Courts will not enforce illegal contracts or those contrary to public policy.

32
Q

What is Unconscionability?

A

Contract terms that shock the conscience of the court due to procedural or substantive unconscionability.

33
Q

What is the Statute of Frauds?

A

Contracts subject to SoF are not valid unless in writing.

34
Q

What contracts are subject to the Statute of Frauds?

A

1) Marriage 2) Year 3) Land contracts 4) Executory promises 5) Goods for $500 or more 6) Surety.

35
Q

What are UCC SoF Exceptions?

A

1) Merchant’s Confirmatory Memo 2) Goods accepted or paid for 3) Custom made goods.

36
Q

What is the Parole Evidence Rule?

A

Evidence of prior negotiations is inadmissible to contradict a later written contract.

37
Q

What are UCC omitted & implied terms?

A

Courts will use gap fillers for price, time of payment, place for delivery, and terms.

38
Q

What is a Material Breach?

A

Occurs when a party does not substantially perform, excusing the non-breaching party’s performance.

39
Q

When are goods presumed delivered to the carrier?

A

Goods are presumed delivered to the carrier if the contract does not specify and shipment is by an independent carrier.

40
Q

What is a destination contract?

A

In a destination contract, the seller must safely deliver goods to the buyer’s location (F.O.B. buyer’s location), passing ownership to the buyer when goods are delivered.

41
Q

What constitutes a material breach?

A

A material breach occurs when a party does not substantially perform, meaning at least halfway completed, excusing the non-breaching party’s performance.

42
Q

What are the factors to consider in a material breach?

A

Factors include extent of performance, adequacy of compensation for loss, hardship, whether the breach was intentional, and likelihood of curing.

43
Q

What is a minor breach?

A

A minor breach does not excuse performance and can only result in a lawsuit for damages.

44
Q

When is delayed performance not a material breach?

A

Delayed performance is typically not a material breach unless it significantly deprives the other party of the benefit of the contract or there is a time of essence clause.

45
Q

What is the UCC Perfect Tender Rule?

A

Under the UCC, the seller must deliver conforming goods; the smallest non-conformity is considered a breach.

46
Q

What options does a buyer have under the UCC if goods are non-conforming?

A

The buyer can reject delivery, accept all delivery and sue for damages, or accept some and reject others (only for commercial units).

47
Q

What is the Right to Cure under UCC?

A

The seller has the right to cure when the time for performance has not expired or when the seller had reasonable grounds that a substitute would be acceptable.

48
Q

What happens in installment contracts if an installment is defective?

A

The buyer can cancel the contract only if an installment is so defective that it substantially impairs the value of the entire contract.

49
Q

How does acceptance of goods occur under UCC?

A

Acceptance occurs when the buyer signifies that goods are conforming, fails to reject after inspection, or acts inconsistently with the seller’s ownership.

50
Q

When can a buyer revoke acceptance of goods?

A

A buyer may revoke acceptance if non-conforming goods substantially impair their value and the defect was difficult to discover or acceptance was induced by the seller’s assurance.

51
Q

What is impossibility in contract performance?

A

Impossibility occurs when performance is objectively impossible due to death, incapacity, unanticipated destruction, or supervening illegality.

52
Q

What is impracticability in contract performance?

A

Impracticability occurs when an unanticipated event makes performance extremely or unreasonably difficult or expensive.

53
Q

What is frustration of purpose?

A

Frustration of purpose occurs when the purpose of the contract no longer exists due to a substantially frustrating unforeseeable event.

54
Q

What is anticipatory repudiation?

A

Anticipatory repudiation occurs when a party unequivocally communicates their inability or unwillingness to perform before performance is due.

55
Q

What is an accord in contract law?

A

An accord is a new agreement to accept alternative performance in lieu of the original performance obligation.

56
Q

What is satisfaction in contract law?

A

Satisfaction occurs upon the completion of the accord, excusing further performance under the original contract.

57
Q

What is novation?

A

Novation is when all parties to a contract agree to discharge the original party and substitute a third party in their place.

58
Q

What is a warranty of title?

A

A warranty of title warrants that the title is good, free from securities, liens, or encumbrances.

59
Q

What is an express warranty?

A

An express warranty is created when the seller makes an affirmation of fact, promise, description, or provides a sample related to goods.

60
Q

What is an implied warranty of merchantability?

A

An implied warranty of merchantability ensures that all goods sold by a merchant are fit for their ordinary purpose.

61
Q

What is an implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose?

A

An implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose applies when the buyer relies on the seller’s skill or judgment for a specific purpose.

62
Q

What is the difference between intended and incidental third-party beneficiaries?

A

Intended third-party beneficiaries have rights because the contract was intended to benefit them, while incidental beneficiaries do not have rights and cannot sue.

63
Q

What is required for third-party beneficiary rights to vest?

A

Rights vest when the third party knows and manifests assent, determinately relies on the promise, or sues to enforce the promise.

64
Q

What are the requirements for assignment of rights?

A

Rights may be transferred if the assignor manifests intent to transfer and the assignee assents to the assignment.

65
Q

What are the exceptions to assignment?

A

Exceptions include materially altering what’s expected, being prohibited by law or policy, or being specifically prohibited in the contract.

66
Q

What is the expectation damages principle?

A

Expectation damages aim to put the non-breaching party in the same position they would have been in if the contract had been performed.

67
Q

What are consequential damages?

A

Consequential damages arise indirectly from the breach, such as lost profits, and must be reasonably foreseeable and certain.

68
Q

What are incidental damages?

A

Incidental damages are reasonable costs incurred as a result of the breach, such as costs to return or inspect non-conforming goods.

69
Q

What are reliance damages?

A

Reliance damages are expenditures made in reliance on a contract, meant to put the non-breaching party in the position they would have been in if the contract never existed.

70
Q

What are restitution damages?

A

Restitution damages are awarded to prevent unjust enrichment, reflecting the value of the benefit conferred.

71
Q

What is the duty to mitigate damages?

A

A party must take reasonable steps to mitigate losses; if they fail, the court will reduce total damages by the amount that could have been avoided.

72
Q

When is specific performance allowed?

A

Specific performance is allowed only if monetary damages are inadequate, typically for unique goods and land, not for personal services.

73
Q

What is the waste doctrine?

A

The waste doctrine allows courts to award damages for diminution in value instead of expectation damages when completion costs exceed the value of completed work.

74
Q

What remedies does a seller have when a buyer breaches?

A

Seller remedies include withholding delivery, canceling the contract, covering damages, and stopping delivery.

75
Q

What remedies does a buyer have when a seller breaches?

A

Buyer remedies include canceling the contract, recovering amounts paid, and recovering damages.