Continuous Improvement Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Continuous process improvement includes a focus on the processes of the organization where non-value-added activities are eliminated. Which of the following describes Mura in a waste analysis?
    A. Unevenness in work and demand flow.
    B. Greater demand than capacity in any given time or overburdening the process.
    C. Has necessary non-value-adding waste.
    D. Has unnecessary non-value-adding waste.
A
  1. Answer: A - Continuous process improvement includes a focus on the processes of the organization where non-value-added activities are eliminated. In a waste analysis designed to remove waste, Mura is the unevenness in work and demand flow. Muri is having a greater demand than capacity in any given time or overburdening the process. Muda waste has two types. Type 1 is the necessary non-value-adding waste, while type 2 is unnecessary non-value-adding waste.
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2
Q
  1. When eliminating barriers to flow it is useful to develop a diagram that uses graphical symbols to depict the nature and flow of the steps within a process. This type of diagram is called which of the following?
    A. Swim lane diagram.
    B. Spaghetti diagram.
    C. Isikawa (fishbone) diagram.
    D. Current state process flow diagram.
A
  1. Answer: D - When eliminating barriers to flow it is useful to develop a diagram that uses graphical symbols to depict the nature and flow of the steps within a process. This type of diagram is called the current state process flow diagram. These diagrams are also referred to as process mapping or flow mapping the process. The process steps are placed in time sequence order to determine the current state process flow and understand both how the process currently operates and any operational barriers.
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3
Q
  1. Economies of flow are commonly used to design services versus products. What is “failure demand” in economies of flow?
    A. The point at which a process must be redesigned because it no longer meets demand levels.
    B. A failure to do something for a customer or a failure to do something correctly.
    C. The point at which demand can no longer be met.
    D. The point at which flow meets resistance because of a failure.
A
  1. Answer: B - Failure demand in economies of flow is the demand caused by a failure to do something or to do something correctly for a customer.
    Improving economies of flow necessitates designing processes to eliminate failure demand.
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4
Q
  1. The 7 classic wastes in lean include which grouping of concepts below?
    A. Overproduction, inventory, defects, over-processing, waiting, motion, and transportation.
    B. Overproduction, marketing, returned products, over-processing, waiting, motion, and lack of training.
    C. Just-in-time production, inventory, failure points, over-processing, waiting, motion, and transportation.
    D. Muda, inventory, Muri, over-processing, defects, waiting, and motion.
A
  1. Answer: A - The seven classic wastes include overproduction, inventory, defects, over-processing, waiting, motion, and transportation. A waste walk often identifies the underlying causes, including the wastes of correction, overproduction, waiting for resources, not using just in time inventory, unneeded steps in production, and unnecessary travel around a factory.
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5
Q
  1. Which type of process waste actually has two forms?
    A. Muri, which deals with demand.
    B. Muda, which deals with value-adding wastes.
    C. Mura, which is unevenness in work demand.
    D. Lean waste, which is found through process improvement.
A
  1. Answer: B - Muda waste actually has two forms. Type 1 is necessary, non-value-adding waste. Type 2 is unnecessary, non-value-adding waste. Muri is having a greater demand than capacity at any given time or overburdening the process. Mura is the unevenness in work and demand flow. Continuous process improvement includes a focus on the processes of the organization where non-value-added activities are eliminated.
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6
Q
  1. Which type of waste causes fluctuation in performance in a manufacturing environment?
    A. Uncaptured or measured waste.
    B. Muda, which has two forms of waste.
    C. Muri, or demand for the process.
    D. Mura, or demand of unevenness.
A
  1. Answer: D - The type of waste that causes fluctuation in performance in a manufacturing environment is Mura. Mura is the unevenness in work and demand flow.
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7
Q
  1. A laminate processing plant has a high level of Muri. What does that mean for employees?
    A. Employee satisfaction is at an all-time high.
    B. Employees feel as the processes are out of their control.
    C. The employees do not feel engaged.
    D. The employees feel overworked.
A
  1. Answer: D - A laminate processing plant with a high level of Muri means employees feel pressured and are overworked. Muri is having a greater demand than capacity at any given time or overburdening the process.
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8
Q
  1. The alignment of value-added work fragments means getting the most out of employee effort. Which choice below should management follow to properly align work fragments?
    A. Ensure there are no breaks in processes causing a fragment.
    B. Optimize each level of the processes.
    C. Align the right complexity of work with the right position within the organization.
    D. Implement a Kaizen program.
A
  1. Answer: C - In order to get the most out of employee effort and properly align work fragments management should align the right complexity of work with the right position within the organization. An engaged workforce is more effective, and when the right employees are aligned with the complexity level for their optimal engagement the most effective use of the workforce is developed.
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9
Q
  1. Organizing flow is typically done with the critical path method and value stream mapping. Which of the following would NOT be included in the benefits of the critical path method when organizing flow?
    A. The ability to acquire resources.
    B. The ability to specify individual activities.
    C. The ability to provide a graphical view of a project.
    D. The ability to show activity precedence and interrelations.
A
  1. Answer: A - The critical path method and value stream mapping are used to organize flow. The ability to acquire resources is incorrect and would NOT be included in the benefits of the critical path method when organizing flow.
    The critical path method cannot be used to acquire a resource. The Gantt chart associated with the critical path method may be able to assign resources, but not an instrument to acquire resources.
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10
Q
  1. Improving end-to-end flow would require identifying and mapping
    A. Customer requirements or the customer’s voice.
    B. The value stream.
    C. A spaghetti diagram of the work location.
    D. The level of waste at each level of production.
A
  1. Answer: B - Improving end-to-end flow would require identifying and mapping the value stream. The value stream is the activities across the organization involved in jointly delivering a product or service. The end-to-end flow is the total end-to-end process that delivers the value to the customer and the process.
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11
Q
  1. When visually managing the flow of a process, what is the primary goal of a visual project board?
    A. To provide the status and progress of a project.
    B. To show the team members and charter for a project.
    C. To show the project timeline.
    D. To show the return on investment for the project.
A
  1. Answer: A - When visually managing the flow of a process, the primary goal of a visual project board is to show the status and progress of a project.
    The goal is to provide a brief visual update to management and employees of the work area impacted by a project. It allows them to see what areas may need improvement.
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12
Q
  1. An organization realized it was having difficulty with Takt time.
    What basic problem existed?
    A. The average length of production was too long in duration.
    B. The length of production for a single item was too long in duration.
    C. Production outpaced the customer demand.
    D. No measure for time existed.
A
  1. Answer: C - When an organization realized it was having difficulty with Takt time, the basic problem that existed was production outpaced the customer demand. Takt time is the time between the production of consecutive items processed in a production system.
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13
Q
  1. Scientific thinking and the scientific method are the basis for lean methodologies. What is the first step used in a scientific thinking
    process?
    A. Analyzing the results of a test.
    B. Observing the results of a test.
    C. Trying an experiment.
    D. Developing a hypothesis.
A
  1. Answer: D - Scientific thinking is the basis for lean methodologies. The first step used in a scientific thinking process is to develop a hypothesis. The next steps are to design an experiment based on the hypothesis, then observe the test and analyze the results.
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14
Q
  1. The foundation of lean is stability and standardization. Stability would be demonstrated by which lean activity?
    A. A3 thinking with structured sections.
    B. Kanban visual records, cards, or signals.
    C. Takt time to determine if a plant is “balanced”
    D. 5S - sort, straighten, shine, standardize, and sustain.
A
  1. Answer: D - The foundation of lean is stability and standardization.
    Stability would be demonstrated by 5S -sort, straighten, shine, standardize, and sustain. A3 and Kanban are associated with standardization and Takt time is associated with just in time processing.
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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is the reason for standardization of a process?
    A. Without standardization there is no benchmark for improvement.
    B. Without standardization cost per unit varies.
    C. Without standardization production time varies.
    D. Without standardization each employee works at their own speed.
A
  1. Answer: A - The reason for standardization of a process is because without standardization there is no benchmark for improvement. Taiichi Ohno stated that “without standardization there could be no improvement.”
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16
Q
  1. Which measure would a lean practitioner use to determine or recognize abnormality in a process?
    A. An and on which provides work instructions.
    B. A process capability measurement.
    C. A bar chart.
    D. An Excel pivot table.
A
  1. Answer: B - A lean practitioner would use a process capability measurement to understand abnormality or variability in a process. A process capability measure indicates the normal limits of variability within the upper and lower control limits. The goal of process improvement is to have a process that does not vary outside of the normal range of variability.
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17
Q
  1. Lean practitioners wanting to enact empiricism into behavior would use what lean technique?
    A. They would develop a “swim lane” diagram.
    B. They would use a kaizen blitz.
    C. They would deploy a “go and see” technique.
    D. They would form a rapid process improvement team.
A
  1. Answer: C - Lean practitioners wanting to enact empiricism into behavior would use a “go and see” technique which can only come from a sensory experience. “Go and see” requires going to see a problem, asking why it occurred, and showing respect.
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18
Q
  1. Which principle used in lean would allow an employee to have autonomation?
    A. Andon, which is a device that indicates the status of a process.
    B. Jidoka, which puts faith in the worker to think.
    C. Kanban, which is a visual record, card, or signal.
    D. Takt Time, where employees only produce exactly what customers will consume.
A
  1. Answer: B - The principle used in lean which would allow an employee to have autonomation is Jidoka. Jidoka puts faith in the worker to think and react and forms autonomation by producing automation with a human touch. In Jidoka, all workers can stop the production line on which they are working.
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19
Q
  1. Quality at the source is a principle where quality is measured at every level of a process, not just the endpoint. Which of the following choices below would impact quality at the source?
    A. Annual bonus percentages for employees.
    B. The retirement of an employee.
    C. Employees being aware of quality standards and quality benchmarks.
    D. Installation of replacement parts on the assembly line.
A
  1. Answer: C - Quality at the source is a principle where quality is measured at every level of a process, not just the endpoint. Each employee contributes to the process. Employees being aware of quality standards and quality benchmarks would impact quality at the source. Employees are their own audit tool for quality.
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20
Q
  1. One of the many principles of process improvement is that no defect should be passed forward. From a leader’s perspective, what would this require them to do?
    A. Stop the process long enough to determine the root cause and develop countermeasures.
    B. Develop a plan to incur a long term loss.
    C. Indicate to subordinates that variation exists in a process and they must determine a solution.
    D. Determine fault for the issue and pursue discussion with the individual who allowed the defect to pass.
A
  1. Answer: A - One of the many principles of process improvement is that no defect should be passed forward. From a leader’s perspective, this would this require them to stop the process long enough to determine the root cause and develop countermeasures. From the employee’s perspective, no defect passed forward means they may take ownership and accountability for the process.
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21
Q
  1. The second part of Jidoka includes separating the man from the machine. What is the goal of the separation of man from the machine?
    A. Reduction of the number of employees required in a process.
    B. Building processes that are capable of making intelligent decisions and shutting down automatically.
    C. Reduction of errors by reducing the number of humans in contact with a process.
    D. Allowing humans to focus on more complex activities.
A
  1. Answer: B - The goal of the separation of man from the machine in jidoka is to build processes that are capable of making intelligent decisions and shutting down automatically. The thought process is that it is better to stop a machine at the first sign of trouble than to keep on producing the problem and generate more waste.
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22
Q
  1. Multi-process handling occurs when one worker is performing more than one processing task with or without machines. What is the highest process risk in this type of environment?
    A. Excessive wear and tear on the equipment.
    B. Employee burnout or loss of engagement
    C. The risk of ergonomic injury.
    D. The risk of increased variability in the output of the process.
A
  1. Answer: D - The highest process risk when multi-process handling occurs is that of increased variability in the output of the process. Increased variability results in decreased quality.
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23
Q
  1. Using a self-detection method in the reduction of defects would have which effect?
    A. Additional waste would occur as employees misjudge quality.
    B. Employees would have the ability to determine appropriate quality level.
    C. Additional costs for self-detection versus machine detection.
    D. Decreased autonomy in the work environment.
A
  1. Answer: B - Using a self-detection method in the reduction of defects would allow employees to have the ability to determine appropriate quality level. This also leads to showing humility and respect in the environment, as management respects employees’ decision-making and interaction in the improvement process.
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24
Q
  1. The stop and fix method is one of Toyotas guiding principles. Stop and fix ensures you get quality right the first time. What is the main reason problems are ignored?
    A. Problems are ignored because they keep employees from being productive.
    B. Problems cause employees additional work.
    C. The cause of problems are often difficult to determine.
    D. Employees do not realize there is a problem.
A
  1. Answer: A - The main reason problems are ignored is that they keep employees from being productive. Under the stop and fix method, a culture of stopping and fixing problems is developed to ensure that problems do not reoccur. Quite often problems are dismissed because employees think it won’t happen again.
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25
Q
  1. Integrating improvements within the organization is best incorporated where?
    A. In the measure phase of the DMAIC model when measuring improvements.
    B. In the define phase of the DMAIC model.
    C. In the control plan under the control phase of the DMAIC methodology.
    D. In the analyze phase of the DMAIC model.
A
  1. Answer: C - Integrating improvements within the organization is best incorporated in the control plan under the control phase of the DMAIC methodology. Improvements should be incorporated into the culture and shared throughout the organization to impact similar or like processes and to promote sustainment and control of the process.
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26
Q
  1. Kaizen is a Japanese word meaning “change for the good,” or continuous improvement. Which process below describes Kaizen?
    A. A Japanese methodology where all employees focus on the same problem.
    B. Rapid process improvement.
    C. Gradual improvement over time by achieving higher standards.
    D. Applying Kanban cards with a part number.
A
  1. Answer: C - The process that describes Kaizen is a gradual improvement over time by achieving higher standards. Kaizen in an organization means to improve all facets, functions, and processes. It is used to continuously improve standardized systems and processes and support activities to improve quality, delivery time, service, and cost.
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27
Q
  1. Kaikaku is used for breakthrough continuous improvement.
    Kaizen focuses on incremental improvements and Kaikaku focuses on what?
    A. Successive incremental improvement.
    B. Radical change, transformation, and revolution.
    C. Synergistic effects of continuous improvement.
    D. The human aspects of inspection.
A
  1. Answer: B - Kaizen focuses on incremental improvements and Kaikaku focuses on radical change, transformation, and revolution. Kaikaku is performed in addition to Kaizen, not as a substitute, and is sometimes used in preparation for Kaizen activities.
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28
Q
  1. Visual signs are encouraged in the workplace in lean environments. What would be a visual sign for process measures?
    A. Organizational information about processes.
    B. Identification of hazards.
    C. Standard work instructions and flow charts.
    D. Reject rates, run charts, and KPIs.
A
  1. Answer: D - A visual sign for process measures would include reject rates, run charts, and KPIs. Visual signage is used in lean manufacturing to immediately let workers know the status of activities through signs and andons. These generally include process measures, organizational information, safety information, and work instructions.
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29
Q
  1. What would a project team do during the 4th step of a 5 s?
    A. Seiso, or cleaning/shining.
    B. Seketsu, or standardizing processes.
    C. Seiton, or organizing work areas.
    D. Seiri, or clearing up and sorting.
A
  1. Answer: B - During the 4th step of a 5 s, a project team would Seketsu or standardize processes. The 55 method stands for sort, straighten, shine, standardize, and sustain and can be used for any process or service. It includes organizing and separating needed items, straightening items for easy identification, cleaning work areas, and standardizing processes so that everything has a place.
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30
Q
  1. What would be the benefit of lot size reduction in a lean production environment?
    A. Smaller lots have lower production costs.
    B. Smaller lots produce greater economies of scale.
    C. Smaller lots reduce the needed span of control.
    D. Smaller lots reduce variability.
A
  1. Answer: D - The benefit of lot size reduction in a lean production environment would be that small lots reduce variability in the system and smooth production. Lot size directly affects inventory and scheduling, so a smaller lot size would improve quality, reduce inventory, and simplify scheduling.
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31
Q
  1. Which technique would a continuous improvement team use for balancing production throughput over time?
    A. Level loading production.
    B. Load-load working from piece to piece.
    C. Line balancing work, staffing, and Takt time.
    D. Listening post, which collects and documents feedback.
A
  1. Answer: A - A continuous improvement team would use load leveling for balancing production throughput over time. Load leveling is performed through all phases of design, manufacturing, assembly, and installation of a product.
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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT included in the steps of production process preparation 3P?
    A. Developing the production cost analysis.
    B. Building, presenting, and selecting process prototypes.
    C. Diagraming flow from raw material to finished product.
    D. Defining the product or process design objectives.
A
  1. Answer: A - Developing the production cost analysis is not included in the steps of production process preparation 3P. The steps include defining the product or process design objectives; diagramming the flow from raw material to finished product; finding examples in nature; sketching and evaluating the process; building, presenting, and selecting process prototypes; and holding a design review and developing a project implementation plan.
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33
Q
  1. Which of the following choices is a Japanese management philosophy used to increase time between failure or life of machinery.
    A. Theory of Constraints (TOC).
    B. Total Productive Maintenance (TPM).
    C. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF).
    D. (VOC) Voice of the Customer.
A
  1. Answer: C - Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is a Japanese management philosophy used to increase time between failure or life of machinery. MTBF represents a statistical approximation of how long a piece of equipment should last before failure. During the lifespan MTBF numbers improve and failures become rarer, as early failure equipment has been repaired or replaced. MTBF numbers help determine when equipment should be repaired.
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34
Q
  1. Which of the following would be an example of built in feedback in a lean manufacturing environment?
    A. Including employees in the pursuit of achieving objectives.
    B. A comment card sealed in each carton of product.
    C. A link to a customer satisfaction survey included with each product.
    D. A toll free number printed on all packaging.
A
  1. Answer: A - Including employees in the pursuit of achieving objectives would be an example of built in feedback in a lean manufacturing environment. The employees who actually produce the product provide feedback, so it is built into the system. This allows lean organizations to build in methodologies in the processes.
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35
Q
  1. A strategic business assessment leverages lean and corporate planning techniques to develop a foundation for quality and productivity improvements. Which of these tools is used in a strategic business assessment?
    A. Risk analysis(Personnel + Process + Dependency) 3.
    B. Hoshin planning methods.
    C. SWOT analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats).
    D. Statistical process control (SPC).
A
  1. Answer: C - The SWOT analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats)is used in a strategic business assessment. The SWOT analysis reviews the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats of an organization typically in a quadrant type grid and reviews the criteria of leadership, organization structure, operations and processes, product or service, pricing, market analysis, and industry demographics.
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36
Q
  1. A CIPM, or continuous improvement process methodology, seeks to combine the process improvement benefits of the Six Sigma method with the waste reduction benefits of lean. Continuous improvement requires several conditions in order to be implemented within an organization. Which of the following is NOT included in these requirements?
    A. Thorough problem solving tool structures for DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control).
    B. Strategically aligned outcome-based goals, including the voice of the customer.
    C. An established infrastructure to support continuous process improvement implementation.
    D. Management oversight and attendance at all initiatives.
A
  1. Answer: D - Management oversight and attendance is not required at all initiatives in order to implement continuous improvement processes. Support is required and visualization is helpful but management is not required to attend the process team CIPM meetings.
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37
Q
  1. Which phase of the PDCA cycle includes observing the effects of the change?
    A. The check step of PDCA.
    B. The plan step of PDCA.
    C. The do step of PDCA.
    D. The act step of PDCA.
A
  1. Answer: A - The check step of PDCA includes observing the effects of the change. PDCA is a cyclic process approach for planning and testing improvement activities prior to full-scale implementation.
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38
Q
  1. PDA encourages small tests within current processes. Which phase of PDCA is the baseline for the current process being developed?
    A. The act step of PDCA.
    B. The check step of PDCA.
    C. The do step of PDCA.
    D. The plan step of PDCA.
A
  1. Answer: D - The baseline of the current process being developed is the plan step of PDCA. The plan phase expects team members to describe the problem and make a prediction.
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39
Q
  1. Which phase of PDA requires users to determine what modifications should be made to a process?
    A. The plan step of PDCA.
    B. The act step of PDCA.
    C. The check step of PDCA.
    D. The do step of PDCA.
A
  1. Answer: B - The act step of PDCA requires users to determine what modifications should be made to a process. It also expects team members to modify and retest processes.
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40
Q
  1. Which phase of the DMAIC model has core activities which include developing the project charter and deliverables?
    A. The measure phase.
    B. The define phase.
    C. The control phase.
    D. The analyze phase.
A
  1. Answer: B - The define phase of the DMAIC model has core activities which include developing the project charter and deliverables. Define is the first stage of the methodology.
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41
Q
  1. The DMAIC methodology and Six Sigma are used for several improvement applications. Which of these is NOT an application or requirement for Six Sigma?
    A. When causes or situations are unknown.
    B. When you need a broad approach with a proven methodology.
    C. When the process requires a rigorous testing methodology.
    D. When team composition is at least five members.
A
  1. Answer: D - The DMAIC methodology and Six Sigma are used for several improvement applications. Team composition of at least five members is not a requirement for Six Sigma.
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42
Q
  1. The DMAIC methodology is a data-driven quality strategy for improving processes. What are the steps in the DMAIC model?
    A. Determine, measure, analyze, innovate, control.
    B. Define, measure, act, include, control.
    C. Define, measure, analyze, improve, control.
    D. Describe, measure, analyze, improve, contain.
A
  1. Answer: C - The steps in the DMAIC model are define, measure, analyze, improve, and control. The DMAIC model is used for products or processes that exist in the organization but do not meet customer specifications or do not perform as designed. The DMADV model of define, measure, analyze, design, and verify is used for new products or services requiring design and product verification.
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43
Q
  1. Which phase of the DMAIC model has core activities which include benchmarking and return on investment calculations?
    A. The measure phase.
    B. The define phase.
    C. The control phase.
    D. The analyze phase.
A
  1. Answer: A - The measure phase of the DMAIC model has core activities which include benchmarking and return on investment calculations. Measure is the second phase of the DMAIC methodology.
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44
Q
  1. Which phase of the DMAIC model has core activities which include determining correlations and design of experiments?
    A. The measure phase.
    B. The control phase.
    C. The analyze phase.
    D. The define phase.
A
  1. Answer: C - The analyze phase of the DMAIC model has core activities which include determining correlations and design of experiments. The analyze phase is the third phase of the DMAIC methodology.
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45
Q
  1. A project team utilizes problem solving storyboards to help a project team to do what?
    A. Display the project scope and deliverables.
    B. Visually conceptualize possible solutions to problems.
    C. Show a visual depiction of the process flow.
    D. Provide a document to house the steps in the process improvement.
A
  1. Answer: B - A project team utilizes problem solving storyboards to help a project team visually conceptualize possible solutions to problems.
    Storyboards are the key to communication on a project and are an important part of spreading and sustaining the results of events such as Kaizen.
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46
Q
  1. Lean improvements use the frame work from several quality systems including TQM and TQMS. All of the following are initiatives which have contributed to improving quality EXCEPT?
    A. Plan, do, study, act (PDSA).
    B. Spill containment and countermeasures.
    C. Business process engineering.
    D. Taguchi methods.
A
  1. Answer: B - Spill containment and countermeasures are not included in quality initiatives. They may improve overall safety in an organization but are not considered a quality initiative.
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47
Q
  1. The International Standards Organization (ISO) is the world’s largest developer of voluntary International Standards. Which qualit management standard covers basic concepts and language?
    A. ISO 9001:2008.
    B. ISO 9000:2005.
    C. ISO 9004:2009.
    D. ISO 19011:2011.
A
  1. Answer: B - ISO 9000:2005 quality management standard covers basic concepts and language. ISO 9001:2008 sets the requirements of a quality management system, ISO 9004:2009 focuses on making quality management systems more efficient and effective, and ISO 19011:2011 sets guidance for internal and external audits of quality management systems.
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48
Q
  1. Standards other than those of the International Standards Organization are also used for quality improvement. Which group choice below does NOT develop standards which enhance quality?
    A. Americas Aerospace Quality Group (AAQG).
    B. Quality Excellence for Suppliers of Telecommunications Leadership
    Forum.
    C. The National Education Association.
    D. The United States Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
A
  1. Answer: C - The National Education Association does not develop standards which enhance quality. Many organizations develop standards for quality and many such as the American Society for Quality provide tools and certifications for quality.
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49
Q
  1. A project manager has multiple lean projects she manages concurrently. Why would she employ a corrective action system?
    A. To ensure implementation and establish that timelines are followed and sustainment is enacted.
    B. To ensure team members complete assigned team tasks.
    C. To ensure documentation for compliance purposes.
    D. To eliminate sustainment activities.
A
  1. Answer: A - She would employ a corrective action system to ensure implementation and establish that timelines are followed and sustainment is enacted for lean initiatives.
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50
Q
  1. Variation is a change in data, characteristics, or functions caused by one of four factors. Which of the following is NOT one of the four factors that cause variation?
    A. Tampering with samples.
    B. Special causes.
    C. Social variation.
    D. Common causes.
A
  1. Answer: C - Social variation is NOT one of the four factors causing variation. The four factors include special causes, tampering with samples, common causes, and structural variation.
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51
Q
  1. Using tools to manage the outcome of organizational initiatives from conception to completion would be called which of the following?
    A. Define activities of the DMAIC.
    B. Benchmarking activities.
    C. Analyze activities of the DMAIC.
    D. Project management.
A
  1. Answer: D - Project management is using tools to manage the outcome of organizational initiatives from conception to completion. Project management responsibilities may include constraint management, implementation techniques including risk management, project leadership, and project planning.
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52
Q
  1. Which of the listed elements is NOT included in the base elements of a project charter?
    A. Analysis of the problem.
    B. The project deliverables.
    C. Communication and status reporting processes.
    D. Responsibilities of team members.
A
  1. Answer: A - An analysis of the problem is NOT included in the base elements of a project charter. The project charter tells the project purpose, scope, deliverables, responsibilities, executive sponsor, project sponsor, roles, issue escalation procedures, implementation plans, milestones, major assumptions, and risks.
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53
Q
  1. Appropriate communication techniques are necessary indifferent situations to overcome barriers to project success. Which of the following would NOT be considered a common roadblock to quality improvement?
    A. Lack of Project Management.
    B. Lack of critical thinking.
    C. Conflict among team members.
    D. Readily available knowledge.
A
  1. Answer: D - Readily available knowledge would not be considered a common roadblock to quality improvement. Knowledge would be an enhancement of the communication process.
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54
Q
  1. In project management, which leadership style would be most aligned or used for teams that are self-directing?
    A. Directing style of leadership.
    B. Delegating style of leadership.
    C. Coaching style of leadership.
    D. Supporting style of leadership.
A
  1. Answer: B - In project management the delegating leadership style is that which would be most aligned or used for teams that are self-directing.
    Supporting leadership style is used for teams that require continual support in terms of competencies and experience. Coaching is used for teams on the verge of being self-directed. Directing leadership is used for teams which are new or on time-sensitive projects.
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55
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a project management responsibility?
    A. Constraint management on a project.
    B. Implementation techniques for a project.
    C. Provision of resources.
    D. Project planning.
A
  1. Answer: C - Provision of resources is not a responsibility of the project manager. Provision of resources is the responsibility of the project sponsor.
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56
Q
  1. Sally Akins is a project manager for a real-estate development company. Which of these is NOT a responsibility of hers as project manager?
    A. Delivering the project on time, within established fiscal parameters and to specification.
    B. Managing and directing project staff, suppliers, and project stakeholders.
    C. Reviewing the performance standards for team members.
    D. Undertaking the activities required to initiate, plan, execute, and close the project successfully.
A
  1. Answer: C - Reviewing the performance standards for team members is not a responsibility of the project manager. She may want to provide suggestions for input or development of standards, but she is not required to review their performance standards.
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57
Q
  1. Process design is used for all of the following needs EXCEPT?
    A. Determining environmental requirements.
    B. Determining the process workflow.
    C. Determining equipment needs.
    D. Determining implementation requirements.
A
  1. Answer: A - Process design is not used for developing environmental requirements. It is used for determining the workflow, equipment needs, and implementation requirements for a particular process, including flowcharting, process simulation, and prototype development.
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58
Q
  1. Pull systems are triggered by demand in lean production and small batches are produced as triggers indicate replenishment is needed. Which of the following is a descriptor of a push system?
    A. The inventory control system begins with a customer’s order.
    B. Forecasting inventory needs to meet customer demand.
    C. Only enough product is made to fulfill a customer’s orders.
    D. Has no excess of inventory.
A
  1. Answer: B - Forecasting inventory needs to meet customer demand is a push system. The other choices describe pull systems. Pull systems differ from push systems, where production is scheduled to meet demand and pushed through the system, often generating too much inventory. An example of a pull inventory control system is just-in-time inventory.
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59
Q
  1. Leveraging lean initiatives requires successful knowledge transfer within the organization. Which initiative would have the most organizational knowledge impact?
    A. Leading a team through a Kaizen event.
    B. Having the team review a quality video.
    C. Asking a team to develop a histogram of a process.
    D. Having a project team develop a charter.
A
  1. Answer: A - Leading a team through a Kaizen event would have the most organizational knowledge impact. Hands-on training allows the lean participants to put what they have learned into practice. Activities such as Kaizen, value stream mapping, and performing a gap analysis will have the most knowledge transfer impact.
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60
Q
  1. A workflow analysis is performed to determine waste and areas to target for improved efficiencies. A workflow analysis can also be used for which of the following?
    A. Compiling employee interview results.
    B. Eliminating standardized work.
    C. Making recommendations for processes that need to be changed.
    D. Determining views towards automation.
A
  1. Answer: C - A workflow analysis can be used for making recommendations for processes that need to be changed. While the analysis cannot enact the changes, it provides decision-making tools for improving the workflow by reducing waste and improving efficiency.
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61
Q
  1. Flowcharting is a graphical representation of the steps in a process. Flowcharts are drawn to better understand processes and are one of the seven tools of quality. What can a flowchart NOT do?
    A. Show analysis of data.
    B. Show gaps in a process.
    C. Show readiness to deliver a project
    D. Identify steps in a process with symbols or shapes.
A
  1. Answer: A - A flowchart cannot show the analysis of data. It can be used to display process “flow” through graphics and symbols to improve performance. A well-designed flowchart will also demonstrate a team’s understanding of what is included in the workflow of a project, and can be used to evaluate if they are fully ready undertake a project.
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62
Q
  1. Flow analysis charts are used to show analysis of the points in flow which have been displayed in a flow chart. Which of the following would require a flow analysis?
    A. Flow charting the logistical requirements to move newspapers from the United States to China.
    B. Flow charting the ingredients and steps in baking croissants.
    C. Development of the steps to build a greenhouse.
    D. Development of software for landscaping.
A
  1. Answer: D - The development of software for landscaping would require a flow analysis, as the corresponding steps are the most complex from the choices given. Flow analysis differs from a flow chart in that a flow analysis will contain detailed variation, characteristics, and patterns in the analysis.
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63
Q
  1. Value stream mapping is mapping of all activities (both value-added and non-value-added) that are needed to bring a product from its raw material state into a state ready for use by a customer. Which of the following baseline measurements in a value stream map would measure the amount of work that fluctuates for a given activity?
    A. First pass yield.
    B. Cycle lead time.
    C. Demand variation.
    D. Process capability measures.
A
  1. Answer: C - Demand variation in a value stream map would measure the amount of work that fluctuates for a given activity. A value stream map shows all of the actions required to change raw materials into a product delivered to the customer. The map separates the value-added activities of a system from the non-value-added activities. The non-value-added activities are opportunities for possible improvement within the system. The value stream shows the process flow from order to delivery.
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64
Q
  1. Takt time is the time between the production of consecutive items processed in a production system. If a bakery bakes 50 loaves of bread and there are 500 minutes of production, what is the Takt time?
    A. The Takt time is 100 minutes.
    B. The Takt time is 50 minutes.
    C. The Takt time is 500 minutes.
    D. The Takt time is 10 minutes.
A
  1. Answer: D - If a bakery bakes 50 loaves of bread and there are 500
    minutes of production, the Takt time is 10 minutes. 500/50 = 10.
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65
Q
  1. Data collection and presentation includes maintaining a repository of relevant improvement data and displaying it in a manner so that stakeholders understand its progress over time. All of the following are data collection plan components EXCEPT:
    A. Who will collect the data.
    B. Metrics such as KPOV or KPIV.
    C. The cost of assembling the data.
    D. Operational definitions.
A
  1. Answer: C - The cost of assembling data is not included in a data collection plan. It does include metrics, who will collect the data, operational definitions, sample sizes, frequency, location, and how the data will be displayed.
66
Q
  1. Which process improvement diagram, picture, or chart would a lean team use to show if the improvements implemented in a project are improving over time?
    A. A scatter diagram.
    B. A trend analysis.
    C. A Pareto chart.
    D. Histogram of the process measures.
A
  1. Answer: D - A lean team would use a histogram to show if the improvements implemented in a project are improving over time. Scatter diagrams are used to show the correlations between variables. Trend analyses show if the improvements implemented in projects are improving from the baseline or benchmarks. Pareto charts help ensure a balance between effort and resources.
67
Q
  1. Pareto charts are graphical tools used for ranking causes from most significant to least significant. Which of the following is incorrect regarding when you would use a Pareto chart?
    A. When the causes are already known by a team.
    B. When you want to focus on the most significant problems or issue.
    C. When focusing on the frequency of problems.
    D. When communicating with a team about process data.
A
  1. Answer: A - When the causes are already known by a team, you would not use a Pareto chart. If the causes are known there is no need to rank them.
68
Q
  1. Check sheets are one of the seven tools of quality which include the cause and effect diagram, check sheet, control chart, flowchart, histogram, Pareto chart, and scatter diagram. The checklist is a mistake-proofing aid. What is a check sheet used for?
    A. Auditing process outputs.
    B. Capturing and categorizing observations.
    C. Carrying out multi-step procedures.
    D. Finishing of process outputs.
A
  1. Answer: B - Check sheets are used for collecting data in real time at the location where the data is generated. The check sheet is for capturing and categorizing observations, whereas the checklist is used as a mistake-proofing aid for multi-step procedures.
    to least significant. Joseph M. Juan developed the principle, which was named after Vilfredo Pareto. It suggests that most effects come from relatively few causes.
69
Q
  1. When identifying root causes, several tools can be used to resolve chronic problems. Which tool would you use to rank causes from most significant to least significant?
    A. Cause and effect diagrams.
    B. Fault tree analysis.
    C. Pareto charts.
    D. Waste analysis.
A
  1. Answer C - Pareto charts are used to rank causes from most significant to least significant. Joseph M. Juan developed the principle, which was named after Vilfredo Pareto. It suggests that most effects come from relatively few causes.
70
Q
  1. Cause and effect diagrams illustrate the main causes and sub-causes leading to an effect, or the inputs × which result in the output
    y in the equation y = f(x). The resulting diagram resembles a
    fishbone diagram called the Ishikawa diagram. Cause and effect diagrams are used in all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. When identifying possible causes for a problem.
    B. When a team is having difficulty brainstorming causes.
    C. When asking “why does this happen?”
    D. When an analysis of data is needed.
A
  1. Answer: D - Cause and effect diagrams are used to identify possible causes for a problem, when a team is having difficulty brainstorming problem solutions, and when asking “why does this happen?” Cause and effect diagrams are not used to perform data analysis.
71
Q
  1. The 5 whys are a questioning process designed to drill down into the details of a problem or a solution by refining a problem statement or a potential solution and get to the root cause or root solution. It is used for brain storming. Which of the following is NOT a situation in which a project team would use brainstorming?
    A. When the solution of scope is defined.
    B. When original ideas are desired.
    C. When participation of the entire team is desired.
    D. When several options are desired.
A
  1. Answer: A - Brainstorming is a method for generating a large number of creative ideas in a short period of time. When the solution of the scope is defined a project team would not use brainstorming, as the solution is already defined.
72
Q
  1. Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) identifies potential product failures by scoring risks. Scores for each category are on a scale of 1 to 10 in terms of risk. Which score is considered a trigger for corrective action?
    A. Any RPN value exceeding 80 requires a corrective action.
    B. Any RPN value exceeding 60 requires a corrective action.
    C. Any RPN value exceeding 40 requires a corrective action.
    D. Any RPN value exceeding 20 requires a corrective action.
A
  1. Answer: A - Any Risk Priority Number (RPN) value exceeding 80 requires a corrective action. The FMEA evaluates each process step and assigns a score on a scale of 1 to 10 for the following variables of severity, occurrence and detection. The Risk priority number is calculated as RPN= severity X occurrence X detection.
73
Q
  1. Variation data is commonly displayed in histogram form. The pattern of variation in a set of data is called a distribution. Which of the following questions would NOT impact a project team’s graphic display of variation?
    A. Is the distribution asymmetrical?
    B. Is the distribution symmetric?
    C. What is the most common value for the variable?
    D. How much variation is present?
A
  1. Answer: A - “Is the distribution asymmetrical?” is not a question a project team would ask when graphically displaying data. Distributions can be described using the term’s shape, center, and spread. Shape asks whether the distribution is symmetric. Center asks what the most common value for the variable is. Spread asks how much variation is present.
74
Q
  1. Statistical process control charts monitor processes and may be applied to production or business processes. Statistical process control helps us understand variation and process capability and performance by using control charts of Cp, Cpk, Pp, Ppk, x-bar, and R, and attribute charts of - p, np, c, and u. Which control chart is used to plot units that do not conform when samples of equal size are taken from the process?
    A. P control charts.
    B. U charts.
    C. Moving average control charts or c charts.
    D. Np control charts.
A
  1. Answer: D - Np control charts are used to plot units that do not conform when samples of equal size are taken from the process. The np attribute control chart shows the number of defective units in a sample for determining a go or no go situation. The c chart shows the number of defects in a subgroup, the p chart shows the proportion of defects in a subgroup, and the u chart shows the defects per unit in a subgroup.
75
Q
  1. Scatter and concentration diagrams show the correlations between variables. Which of the following is NOT an application for a scatter diagram?
    A. When the dependent variable has multiple values for each value of the independent variable.
    B. When you are trying to identify potential root causes of problems.
    C. When you have paired numerical data.
    D. When you know two variables are related.
A
  1. Answer: D - If two variables are related, this would not be an appropriate application for a scatter diagram. The scatter diagram is used when you are trying to determine whether the two variables are related. The scatter diagram graphs pairs of numerical data with one variable on each axis to look for a relationship between them. If the variables are correlated, the points will fall along a line or curve. The better the correlation, the tighter the points will be to the correlation line.
76
Q
  1. Product and service design techniques are refined using the voice of the customer. Which question below would be a question related to the VOC?
    A. What types or products do we offer?
    B. What issues do you have within your organization?
    C. How many competitors do you have?
    D. What is a defect?
A
  1. Answer: D - “What is a defect?” would be a question related to the VOC.
    VOC questions determine the customer needs and requirements.
77
Q
  1. Engineering changes and capabilities may be required in lean or Six Sigma methodologies. Engineering changes are most commonly needed in which of the following?
    A. PDSA changes.
    B. Kaizen blitz events.
    C. DMADV methodology.
    D. Poke yoke implementation.
A
  1. Answer: C - DMADV methodology most commonly requires engineering changes, as the methodology is used for new products or services requiring design and product verification. The capabilities must be engineered into the new design or prototype.
78
Q
  1. Concurrent engineering is a method by which several teams within an organization work simultaneously to develop new products and services. Which process below would benefit most from concurrent engineering?
    A. A consortium of farmers.
    B. A computer technology development company.
    C. A taxi cab service company.
    D. A book publishing company.
A
  1. Answer: B - A computer technology development company would benefit most from concurrent engineering. Concurrent engineering is a method where several teams in an organization work simultaneously to develop new products and services. By developing several products at once, the amount of time getting a new product to market is significantly decreased.
79
Q
  1. Quality Function Deployment (QFD) is used to relate the characteristics that customers value to the specific features and specifications of the product. Quality Function Deployment is often called the “house of quality” from its appearance. Which of the following scoring choices is NOT included in the QFD process?
    A. The cost of comparable products.
    B. The customer’s voice.
    C. Positive and negative relationships between the process how’s.
    D. Competitor ratings for similar products.
A
  1. Answer: A - The cost of comparable products is not included in the QFD process. Quality Function Deployment (QFD) focuses on the quality of a product, not the cost. QFD is a systematic process for motivating a business to focus on its customers. It is used by cross-functional teams to identify and resolve issues involved in providing products, processes, services, and strategies to satisfy their customers.
80
Q
  1. Answer: B - Technical process benchmarking is used to determine the capabilities of products or services in comparison to a competitor’s product or services. Competitive process benchmarking compares the organization to the leading competitor for critical attributes and functions. Organizational process benchmarking compares organizational benchmarks, not process benchmarks, and altruistic is not a form of process benchmarking.
A
  1. Process benchmarking is the development of data to determine an organization’s standing in relation to like organizations in the same industry. Which type of benchmarking is used to determine the capabilities of products or services in comparison to a competitor’s product or services?
    A. Altruistic process benchmarking.
    B. Technical process benchmarking.
    C. Competitive process benchmarking.
    D. Organizational process benchmarking.
81
Q
  1. DFx or design for product life cycle is a methodology to optimize specific aspects of design. The
    uses the design for
    X and DFX methods where a product is designed using robust design principles such as the Taguchi method.
    A. Control phase of DMAIC.
    B. Analyze phase of DMAIC.
    C. Measure phase of DMAIC.
    D. Design phase of DMAIC.
A
  1. Answer: D - Design for X is used in Design for Six Sigma and maintains that a design should be manufacturable, maintainable, cost effective, and high quality. The design phase of DMAIC uses the design for X and DFX methods where a product is designed using robust design principles such as the Taguchi method.
82
Q
  1. Variety reduction in a product or manufacturing environment includes all of the following EXCEPT?
    A. Fixed and variable change.
    B. Modularization
    C. Multifunctionalization and consolidation change.
    D. Reduction of the reliance on systemization.
A
  1. Answer: D - Variety reduction in a product or manufacturing environment does not include reduction of the reliance on systemization. Increasing systemization is considered part of variety reduction. It also includes reduction of fixed and variable change, consolidation of change, and modularization.
83
Q
  1. Design for Manufacturability is a team approach to develop production costs and the best options for the error free production of a product. Which of the following is NOT included in the steps of the Design for Manufacturability process?
    A. Develop subcontractor production proposals.
    B. Create a baseline process for assembling the product.
    C. Investigate and implement the design concepts.
    D. Brainstorm ideas to apply to the design that would reduce the design complexity.
A
  1. Answer: A - Developing subcontractor production proposals is not included in the steps of the Design for Manufacturability process. The process would include developing a design concept, developing a baseline process, brainstorming ways to reduce complexity, and developing action plans to investigate and implement the design concept.
84
Q
  1. Organizing for improvement is best achieved by developing standardized work where the sequence and job elements are efficiently organized and monitored by an employee. When organizing lean improvement efforts, which tool best helps organize organizations for improvement?
    A. Poka Yoke mistake proofing.
    B. A Kaizen blitz for rapidly creating objectives for improvement.
    C. The 55 method to control outcomes and make improvements.
    D. Kanban, which uses a system of signal cards showing a step in a process.
A
  1. Answer: C - When organizing lean improvement efforts, the tool that best helps organize organizations for improvement is the 5S method. The 5S method is a tool to control outcomes and make improvements to keep track of the changes implemented. It stands for sort, straighten, shine, standardize, and sustain. It can be used for any process or service to improve safety and communication, process flow, compliance, and reduction in space requirements, as well as boost morale and remove non-value-added steps.
85
Q
  1. Kaizen blitz events can be used to resolve small but consistent long-term problems or to completely re-design a procedure. What is the advantage of a Kaizen blitz over other lean improvement initiatives?
    A. Kaizen blitzes require no training.
    B. A Kaizen blitz requires no data for improvement.
    C. A Kaizen blitz only requires one employee.
    D. Objectives can be created related to specific problems in a relatively short period of time.
A
  1. Answer: D - The advantage of a Kaizen blitz over other lean improvement initiatives is that objectives can be created related to specific problems in a relatively short period of time. Kaizen was initially used as a Japanese philosophy of continuously improving everything we come in contact with during our lifetime. In lean methodology, a Kaizen blitz rapidly eliminates waste by eliminating non-value-added work.
86
Q
  1. Countermeasure activities help employees to maintain ongoing continuous lean and improvement activities. Countermeasures establish ways to correct issues for the future. Countermeasure activities include all of the following EXCEPT?
    A. Completion of an incident form.
    B. Communication boards to communicate new standards.
    C. Visual techniques for standard procedures.
    D. Electronic scoreboards for key performance indicators.
A
  1. Answer: A - Completion of an incident form does not enact a countermeasure. To result in a countermeasure, completed incident forms would need to be collected and analyzed, forming data which could be measured, benchmarked, and improved.
87
Q
  1. Which of the following choices cannot be a method of mistake and error proofing (poka-yoke)?
    A. Analysis of a process flow.
    B. Electrical sensors which signal completion of a production phase.
    C. Mechanical lift activation when a bin is full.
    D. Visual cues that tell an employee when to stop paint dispersal.
A
  1. Answer: A - An analysis of a process flow is not a prevention method. A poka-yoke can be electrical, mechanical, procedural, visual, human, or any other form that prevents the incorrect execution of a process step.
88
Q
  1. Quick changeover setup reduction (SMED) allows a company to more readily respond to changes in customer demand. What does SMED enable a manufacturing company to do?
    A. Quickly convert a machine or process to produce a different product type.
    B. More efficiently produce a standardized product.
    C. Change out conveyer belt systems increasing overall capacity.
    D. Reduce production costs, enabling the company to produce a greater variety of products for the customer.
A
  1. Answer: A - SMED enables a manufacturing company to quickly convert a machine or process to produce a different product type, thereby responding to changes in customer demand. This reduces time consuming equipment changeover and set up time associated with batching and queue processes.
89
Q
  1. In one piece flow manufacturing products are manufactured one at a time and flow through the manufacturing and supply chain as a single unit fabricated as the customer ordered. All of the following are indicators one piece flow should be used EXCEPT:
    A. Leftover product at beginning and end of a production run.
    B. High inventory turns.
    C. Large batches of defects and rework with the same or similar defect.
    D. Long delivery lead times.
A
  1. Answer: B - High inventory turns are not indicators that one piece flow should be used. High inventory turns are a good thing. A low inventory turn would indicate a problem and necessitate the implementation of one piece flow.
90
Q
  1. Performing cellular production often requires the right sizing of equipment to be used in the new processes. The rule of thumb is that machines need not be more than
    in size than the part
    they are intended to produce.
    A. One-half the size.
    B. Three times larger.
    C. Twice as large.
    D. Five times as large.
A
  1. Answer: B - In cellular production the rule of thumb is that machines need not be more than three times larger in size than the part they are intended to produce. Right sized equipment is often movable so that it can quickly be reconfigured and repositioned into a different cellular process layout in a different location in the processing plant.
91
Q
  1. Cellular flow work stations and equipment are arranged in sequence. The goal is minimal transportation movement or delays in production time. How do products flow through a cellular work system?
    A. Groups of odd number lots, as these are considered “lucky” batches.
    B. Processed in multiple batches determined by the Kanban.
    C. Processed in lots determined by the processing department.
    D. One piece at a time based on customer need.
A
  1. Answer: D - Products flow through a cellular work system one piece at a time based on customer need. Cellular flow improves the velocity and flexibility to vary product type or features on the production line in response to specific customer demands. This minimizes the time it takes for a single product to flow through the entire production process.
92
Q
  1. Sensible automation is a form of lean batching. How is an analysis of lean batching performed or what measures are used?
    A. Reviewing material usage and frequency.
    B. Reviewing the total cost of production.
    C. Reviewing labor costs
    D. Reviewing lot size and batch development.
A
  1. Answer: A - In sensible automation an analysis of lean batching is performed by reviewing material usage and frequency. Sensible automation improves efficiency, accuracy, and repeatability in the production environment by using interchangeable equipment-based solutions.
93
Q
  1. Material signs (Kanban) were developed by Toyota and Taiichi Ohno during the late 1940s and early 1950s. Originally modeled after a grocery store, a Kanban reminds an employee to do what?
    A. Ensure the workflow for the process continues.
    B. Ensure others are focusing on quality.
    C. Remember to take a break to reduce stress.
    D. Stock the shelves.
A
  1. Answer: D - Kanban reminds an employee to stock the shelves. The Toyota Corporation studied American supermarkets and their management techniques. They noticed the relationship between inventory and logistics in the supermarkets, such as an empty bin of oranges or lack of canned food on an aisle. The premise behind Kanban is a visual signal or “kanban.” This visual signal tells the supermarket employee to stock the shelves.
94
Q
  1. A combination of poka-yoke devices and
    would
    virtually eliminate the need for statistical quality control.
    A. Quality improvement labs.
    B. Open supplier systems.
    C. Source inspection.
    D. Engaged lean employees.
A
  1. Answer: C - Shingo shows that a combination of poka-yoke devices and source inspections would virtually eliminate the need for statistical quality control. Source inspections detect errors before they become defects.
    Mistake-proofing devices separate defects before they continue down the production line.
95
Q
  1. Business continuity plans are important in the overall project plan because of what?
    A. Internal supply continuity of operations.
    B. Facility impact of a shutdown.
    C. External supply process uncertainty.
    D. Seller competition at the expense of the organization’s business loss.
A
  1. Answer: C - Business continuity plans are important in the overall project plan because of external supply process uncertainty. Internal supply processes are under the control of the organization, but external supply must be mitigated and planned.
96
Q
  1. Lean supply management organizations use a variety of methods and tools to automate the management of inventory and as replenishment tools. Which of the following is a supplier managed inventory?
    A. A system where an inventory is reviewed at periodic intervals.
    B. A system that holds a supplier responsible for ensuring that stock is maintained at the purchaser’s facility.
    C. A system in which the buyer sends an automated request when supply is low.
    D. A system where an order is placed whenever a predetermined level is reached.
A
  1. Answer: B - Lean supply management organizations use a variety of methods and tools to automate the management of inventory and as replenishment tools. A supplier managed inventory is a system that holds a supplier responsible for ensuring that stock is maintained at the purchaser’s facility.
97
Q
  1. Cross-docking is a form of inventory flow where products are received at an inbound dock and immediately moved “cross dock” for outbound shipment to customers. The benefits of cross-docking make it an attractive option, but the operating conditions under which it is most beneficial are not always clear. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this lack of clarity?
    A. Inaccurate less-than-truckload pricing.
    B. Tariffs and taxes.
    C. Variation in demand
    D. Storage costs for truck-load shipments.
A
  1. Answer: B - Tariffs and taxes are not a cause associated with operating conditions under which cross-docking value cannot be determined. Pricing variation and storage costs affect the clear representation of the benefits.
98
Q
  1. Supplier assessment and feedback allows the organization to determine supplier performance in terms of quality and service.
    Which form of cost management is a quality-related term that encompasses the physical aspects of a product, its desired performance, and its appropriateness of application?
    A. Improved form, fit, and function.
    B. Improved quality and use.
    C. Administrative savings and heightened quality.
    D. Easier use and improved capability.
A
  1. Answer: A - Improved form, fit, and function is a form of cost management that encompasses the physical aspects of a product, its desired. performance, and its appropriateness of application. The remaining answers do not define forms of cost management; rather they focus on improved quality and use, easier use and improved capability, and administrative savings and heightened quality.
99
Q
  1. Supplier development consists of developing and managing effective relationships with suppliers. Providing a supplier training for statistical processes or lending a supplier an engineer for assistance for a technical problem is referred to as what?
    A. Supplier support relationship.
    B. Supplier mentorship relationship.
    C. Supplier goal sharing relationship
    D. Supplier/ buyer relationship building.
A
  1. Answer: B - Providing a supplier training for statistical processes or lending a supplier an engineer for assistance for a technical problem is referred to as a supplier mentorship relationship. In this case the organization mentors the suppliers with the desired facets of service related to quality.
100
Q
  1. Scott Namos is performing supplier benchmarking for Billings Distribution Company. He notices that capabilities are not matching demands in terms of what actually exists and what should exist.
    What would be his BEST course of action?
    A. Initiate a strategic retreat.
    B. Perform industry benchmarking.
    C. Perform a SWOT analysis.
    D. Perform a gap analysis.
A
  1. Answer: D -When Scott notices capabilities are not matching demands in terms of what actually exists and what should exist, his best course of action would be to perform a gap analysis. Performing a SWOT analysis would t not help match capabilities. Performing industry benchmarking would not help n with matching demands. Initiating a strategic retreat would be related to strategic planning.
101
Q
  1. In the logistics environment, significant capital investment is made in shipping equipment and facilities. To manage the complex processes of prescheduled pickup and delivery frequency, it would be best to employ use of what?
    A. Radio-frequency identification (RFID).
    B. Routing and scheduling software packages.
    C. Six Sigma improvement methodology.
    D. Automated storage and retrieval system AS/RS.
A
  1. Answer: B - Significant capital investment is made in shipping equipment and facilities. To manage the complex processes of prescheduled pickup and delivery frequency, it would be best to employ use of routing and scheduling software packages. RFID, AS/RS, and Six Sigma would not be the best choice for managing prescheduled pickup and delivery frequency.
102
Q
  1. Internal supply processes include material handling, which is a labor-intensive process in which
    is a non-value-added
    activity?
    A. Traveling in the warehouse footprint.
    B. Sorting products, parts, and materials.
    C. Inventorying pieces and parts.
    D. Loading transportation vehicles.
A
  1. Answer: A - Materials handling is a labor intensive process in which traveling is a non-value-added activity. Sorting, inventorying, and loading are value-added activities, as they are required activities for internal supplies.
    Traveling is not viewed as a value-added activity for which lean processes should be implemented.
103
Q
  1. In material handling, the best asset tracking system for warehouse inventory monitoring would be which of the following?
    A. Kanban indexing for improved tracking.
    B. Radio frequency identification devices.
    C. Excel databases for tracking electronically.
    D. Hand count for tracking and paper audit.
A
  1. Answer: B - The best asset tracking system for warehouse tracking would be radio frequency identification devices. Excel databases, hand count, and Kanban indexing would not be as effective as radio frequency identification devices.
104
Q
  1. If your organization has limited warehouse space, only needs small amounts of a product, or needs a wide variety of products for many suppliers, it is most advantageous to use which of the following?
    A. Large suppliers to store and warehouse anticipated needs.
    B. Small suppliers to store and warehouse anticipated needs.
    C. Distributors to store and warehouse anticipated needs.
    D. Manufacturers to store and warehouse anticipated needs.
A
  1. Answer: C - If your organization has limited warehouse space, only needs small amounts of a product, or needs a wide variety of products from many suppliers, it is most advantageous to use distributors. This promotes effective use of your warehouse space and eliminates the overhead costs for the storage of product.
105
Q
  1. Planning and scheduling for a lean initiative requires the use of many tools such as affinity diagrams, interrelationship digraphs, tree-diagrams, prioritization matrices, matrix diagrams, process decision program (PDPC) charts, and activity network diagrams. To develop a realistic timeline with attainable deadlines which method would be employed?
    A. A process decision program chart (PDPC).
    B. A Gantt chart.
    C. The critical path method (CPM).
    D. A PERT analysis to determine probabilistic estimates.
A
  1. Answer: D - To develop a realistic timeline with attainable deadlines for a project, a PERT analysis would be used to determine probabilistic estimates.
    A PERT analysis is based on the central limit theorem and the variance is the standard deviation squared. Timeframes are based on the pessimistic time, optimistic time, and most likely time of completion.
106
Q
  1. In the lean environment what does a poka-yoke device prevent or prohibit?
    A. Additional costs for hiring additional shifts.
    B. Employees from remaining idle between processes.
    C. Incorrect execution of a process step.
    D. Disagreement between employees.
A
  1. Answer: C - In the lean environment a poka-yoke device prevents or prohibits the incorrect execution of a process step. A poka-yoke can be electrical, mechanical, procedural, visual, human, or any other form that prevents the incorrect execution of a step. Poka-yoke helps people and processes work right the first time by building in techniques that make it impossible to make mistakes. These techniques can drive defects out of products and processes and substantially improve quality and reliability. Poka-yoke can be used wherever something can go wrong or an error can be made.
107
Q
  1. An improvement team is performing an analysis on patient wait is times in a specialty clinic with multiple clinics using the same waiting area. Which type of queue is in place in this environment?
    A. Single Server - Single Queue.
    B. Service facilities in a series.
    C. Several Servers - Several Queues.
    D. Several Parallel Servers - Single Queue.
A
  1. Answer: B - In this environment, the queue type would be service facilities in a series. In this type of queue a customer enters the first station and gets a portion of service and then moves on to the next station, gets some service, moves on to the next station, and finally leaves the system having received the complete service. An example of this flow would be check in, blood lab or urinalysis, see the specialist, radiology imagery, patient leaves.
108
Q
  1. Which design of experiments principle is used to remove
    systematic error?
    A. Replication, in which the number of tests should equal the number of replications.
    B. Efficiency, which is the lowest possible variance from any estimator divided by the expected variance of the selected estimator.
    C. Balance, which is evenly distributing both the quantity and variety of work across available work time, avoiding overburden and underuse of resources.
    D. The power of a hypothesis test to measure of the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false.
A
  1. Answer: A - When using the design of experiments, replication is used to remove systematic error. The number of tests performed should be equal the number of replications. The design of experiments is a systematic series of tests used to determine relationships of x and y variables that affect a process and response. The results of the experiment are analyzed to find the regression equation that relates the factors to the response.
109
Q
  1. Which of these choices is an example of an internal cost related to an improvement?
    A. Redesign of a supply warehouse floor layout.
    B. Warranties provided for a product by built by the organization.
    C. A quarterly loss in sales revenue.
    D. A customer complains.
A
  1. Answer: A - The redesign of a supply warehouse floor layout would be an example of an internal cost. The goal is to have all the costs of quality in the Appraisal and Prevention areas and zero costs of poor quality. Internal cost examples are rework, delays, redesign, shortages, failure analysis, retesting, and downtime. External cost examples are environmental costs, complaints, repairing goods and redoing services, customers’ bad will, warranties, and sales losses.
110
Q
  1. Which of these choices is an example of an external cost related to an improvement?
    A. A shift leader realizes they are short 130 cases of product for their shift.
    B. A lot number of books has to be retested for ink alignment.
    C. Environmental costs for environmental cleanup or abatement.
    D. A robotic arm which lifts assembly line automobiles is out of service.
A
  1. Answer: C - Environmental costs for environmental cleanup or abatement would be an example of an external cost related to an improvement. The three types of costs associated with an improvement are internal, external, and prevention. The cost of poor quality is measured differently depending on the industry. Some companies will relate the cost of quality as a percentage of total sales.
111
Q
  1. The Theory of Constraints is the management philosophy of Eliyahu M. Goldratt, where he stated the throughput of the system can be improved with a focused effort to improve the constraint.
    Which of the following is NOT included in his five steps to improve performance?
    A. Identify the current constraint.
    B. Exploit quick improvements to the throughput.
    C. Develop team focus in the improvement.
    D. Review all other activities in the process.
A
  1. Answer: C - Develop team focus in the improvement is not included in the five steps to improve performance. The theory of constraints uses five steps to improve performance: 1) Identify the current constraint, 2) Exploit quick improvements to the throughput of the constraint using existing resources, 3) Review all other activities in the process to ensure that they are aligned with and support the needs of the constraint, 4) Elevate if the constraint still exists to consider what further actions can be taken to eliminate it, and5) Repeat the process.
112
Q
  1. The characteristics for control chart monitoring which require monitoring are common causes and special causes. Which of the following is NOT a control chart for special characteristics?
    A. An x-chart.
    B. An r-chart..
    C. A bp-chart.
    D. A t-chart.
A
  1. Answer: D - A t-chart is not a control chart for special characteristics.
    The control charts for special characteristics are: x-charts, which plot the behavior of the average level of x; r-charts, which plot the behavior of the
    produced that are “defective
    priasted that ared beretarts, which plot the behavior and proportion of items
113
Q
  1. In project management, there are four leadership styles in a team approach. Which leadership style aligns with the “supporting” approach?
    A. Used for teams which are empowered and self-directing.
    B. Used for teams that require continual support in terms of competencies and experience.
    C. Used for teams on the verge of being self-directed.
    D. Used for teams which are new or on time-sensitive projects
A
  1. Answer: B - The “supporting” leadership style aligns with the approach where teams require continual support in terms of competencies and experience. The delegating style is useful for teams which are empowered and self-directing. The coaching style is used for those teams on the verge of being self-directed. The directing style of leadership is used for teams which are new or on time-sensitive projects.
114
Q
  1. Which management and planning tool would one use to compare alternative actions or choices when a clear choice is not easily understood or apparent?
    A. Prioritization matrices.
    B. Affinity diagrams.
    C. Interrelationship digraphs.
    D. Matrix diagrams.
A
  1. Answer: A - Prioritization matrices are tools to compare alternative actions or choices when a clear choice is not easily understood or apparent.
    Prioritization matrices use brainstorming techniques, action planning, and issue analysis, then score the results. Affinity diagrams are used when group consensus is necessary. Interrelationship digraphs are used to show the relationship among factors in a relationship. Matrix diagrams are a planning tool for displaying the relationships among various data sets.
115
Q
  1. Process and design FMEA identifies and evaluates the potential failures of a process, product, or service. How is the risk priority number calculated?
    A. By assessing the impact of the failure mode, with 1 representing the least safety concern and 10 representing the most dangerous safety concern.
    B. By assessing the RPN, which is severity × occurrence × detection.
    C. By assessing the chance of a failure happening, with 1 representing the lowest occurrence and 10 representing the highest occurrence.
    D. By assessing the chance of a failure being detected, with 1 representing the highest chance of detection and 10 representing the lowest chance of detection.
A
  1. Answer: B - The risk priority number is calculated by RPN= severity X occurrence X detection. Any RPN value exceeding 80 requires a corrective action. Severity assesses the impact of the failure mode, with 1 representing the least safety concern and 10 representing the most dangerous safety concern. Occurrence assesses the chance of a failure happening, with 1 representing the lowest occurrence and 10 representing the highest occurrence. Detection assesses the chance of a failure being detected, with 1 representing the highest chance of detection and 10 representing the lowest chance of detection.
116
Q
  1. QD is used to translate customer requirements to engineering specifications, providing linkage to customers, designers, competitors, and manufacturing. Which of the following is NOT included in one of the steps of QFD?
    A. Product life cycle costing analysis.
    B. Product planning to translate customer requirements into the product technical requirements in order to meet them.
    C. Process planning to identify process operations necessary to achieve the characteristics in step 2.
    D. Product design to transfer technical requirements to key product characteristics.
A
  1. Answer: A - Product life cycle costing analysis is not is not included in one of the steps of QFD. QFD is used early in the design phase using these four steps:1) Product planning to translate customer requirements into the product technical requirements in order to meet them,2) Product design to transfer technical requirements to key product characteristics, 3) Process planning to identify process operations necessary to achieve the characteristics in step 2, and4) Process Control being converted to control operations.
117
Q
  1. When collecting data on the frequency or patterns of problems or defects, the best form of data collection would be which of the following?
    A. A process check sheet.
    B. A SIPOC diagram.
    C. Box and whisker plot.
    D. An affinity diagram.
A
  1. Answer: A - When collecting data on the frequency or patterns of problems or defects, the best form of data collection would be a process check sheet. A check sheet is a tally sheet that is used to collect data. The other choices are not data collection tools.
118
Q
  1. When selecting and using appropriate sampling methods you must ensure the integrity of data bias. Data bias is a factor in decision making. Which of the following would explain under coverage bias?
    A. Occurs when sample members are self-selected volunteers. The resulting sample tends to over-represent individuals who have strong opinions.
    B. Occurs when individuals chosen for the sample are unwilling or unable to participate in the survey
    C. Occurs when some members of the population are inadequately represented in the sample.
    D. Occurs due to measurement error, possibly because of poor measurement process.
A
  1. Answer: C - Under coverage bias would occur when some members of the population are inadequately represented in the sample. Non response bias occurs when individuals chosen for the sample are unwilling or unable to participate in the survey. Voluntary response bias occurs when sample members are self-selected volunteers, as the resulting sample tends to over-represent individuals who have strong opinions. Response bias results from problems in the measurement process due to measurement error.
119
Q
  1. DMADV is a Six Sigma quality initiative for designing products and processes. What are the steps in the DMADV model?
    A. Determine, measure, analyze, design, and verify.
    B. Define, measure, act, design, and verify.
    C. Describe, measure, actualize, determine, and verify.
    D. Define, measure, analyze, design, and verify.
A
  1. Answer: D - DMADV, also known as DFSS, is a Six Sigma quality initiative for designing products and processes. The steps in the DMADV model are define, measure, analyze, design, and verify. It is used for defining new products and processes, as well as optimizing existing ones. It is not be confused with DMAIC, which is used to troubleshoot existing processes.
120
Q
  1. The four measurement data scales are nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio. On which measure scale would a quarter (25 cents) be classified?
    A. The nominal measurement scale.
    B. The ordinal measurement scale.
    C. The interval measurement scale.
    D. The ratio measurement scale.
A
  1. Answer: A - A quarter (25 cents) would be classified under the nominal measurement scale.
    Nominal data examines whether data are equivalent to a particular value. For example, in coins you have pennies for one cent, nickels for five cents, dimes for ten cents, and quarters for 25 cents.
    Ordinal data has ordering, but value differences are not important. An example of this is employee satisfaction on the Like rt scale ranking of 1 to 5 where 5 is satisfied and 1 is dissatisfied.
    Interval data has ordering with a constant scale but no natural zero. An example of this is changes in temperature. T the two measures of [38 degrees increasing to43 degrees] or [75 degrees increasing80 degrees] are the same.
    There is a five-degree difference. In both
    Ratio scale is ordered with a constant scale and has a natural zero. Examples of this are height, age, weight, and length. You can say that a 10 lb. turkey weighs twice as much as a 20 lb. turkey.
121
Q
  1. A process has a standard deviation of 20; values of 187, 182, 164, 190; and a mean of180. Calculate the 95% confidence limits.
    A. 142.3 < u < 192.6
    B. 144.4 < u < 199.6
    C. 158.2 < u < 198.6
    D. 150.4 < u < 190.6
A
  1. Answer: B - If a process has a standard deviation of 20; the values of
    187, 182, 164, 190; and a mean of180, the 95% confidence limits are 144.4 < u < 199.6. This is calculated by 180 - 1.96 x 10 < u < 180 + 1.96 × 10.
122
Q
  1. The Analyze phase core activities include analyzing data, determining root causes, and determining correlations, such as calculating the mean, mode, median, and variance. Calculate the mean, median, and mode of 5, 7, 9, 4, 5, and 6.
    A. Mean 4, Median 4, Mode 4.
    B. Mean 5, Median 5, Mode 5.
    C. Mean 5, Median 7, Mode 4.5.
    D. Mean 6, Median 5.5, Mode 5.
A
  1. Answer: D - The calculation of the mean, median, and mode of 5, 7, 9, 4, 5, and 6 is: Mean 6, Median 5.5, Mode 5.
123
Q
  1. Which of the following project life cycle stages includes the development of the goals, deliverables, and project charter?
    A. Termination stage of the project life cycle.
    B. Planning stage of the project life cycle.
    C. Conceptualization stage of the project life cycle.
    D. Execution stage of the project life cycle.
A
  1. Answer: C - The conceptualization stage of the project life cycle stages includes the development of the goals, deliverables, and project charter.
    Termination is the sustainability plan, transferring the product to the customer, resources reassignment, and project close out. Planning includes creating the schedule, mapping the system, and identifying the project tasks.
    Execution is the actual work of the project.
124
Q
  1. Which part of the Deming Cycle includes carrying out a test of change on a small scale?
    A. The Act portion of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA).
    B. The Check portion of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA).
    C. The Do portion of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA).
    D. The Plan portion of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA).
A
  1. Answer: C - The Do portion of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) includes carrying out a test of change on a small scale. The steps in the Deming PDA or PDSA Cycle are: (1). Plan: Plan a change or test P, (2). Do: Carry out the change or test, preferably on a small scale, (3). Check: Observe the effects of the change or test. (4). Study it, (5) Act: Act on what was learned, (6). Repeat and continuously evaluate.
125
Q
  1. W. Edwards Deming developed a System of Profound Knowledge.
    His knowledge system consists of four interrelated parts: (1) Theory of Optimization; (2) Theory of Variation; (3) Theory of Knowledge; and (4) Theory of Psychology. Which part explained that experience alone does not establish a theory?
    A. The Theory of Optimization.
    B. The Theory of Knowledge.
    C. The Theory of Psychology.
    D. The Theory of Variation.
A
  1. Answer: B - W. Edwards Deming developed a System of Profound Knowledge. The Theory of Knowledge explained that experience alone does not establish a theory. His knowledge system consists of four interrelated parts: (1) Theory of Optimization; (2) Theory of Variation; (3) Theory of Knowledge; and (4) Theory of Psychology. In the theory of optimization, the objective of an organization is the optimization of the total system. In the theory of variation, Deming’s philosophy focuses on improving the uncertainty and variability in design and manufacturing processes. In the theory of knowledge, Deming emphasized that knowledge is not possible without theory. He says copying a best practice without understanding the theory behind it could be devastating for a company. In the theory of psychology, Deming explained that psychology helps to understand people, interactions between people and circumstances, and interactions between leaders and employees in a system of management.
126
Q
  1. Which of the following is a methodology or practice that provides tools to improve the capability of business processes, increase performance, and decrease process variation?
    A. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) statistical technique.
    B. Kaizen method for continuous improvement.
    C. Environmental management systems (EMS).
    D. Six Sigma methodology.
A
  1. Answer: D - Six Sigma methodology is a methodology that provides tools to improve the capability of business processes, increase performance, and decrease process variation. The goal is increased customer satisfaction through consistent services, products, or processes. Six Sigma and lean reduce costs and waste by determining the cost of poor quality.
127
Q
  1. In statistics, a sample statistic is one that takes a subset of individuals from within a statistical population to estimate characteristics of the whole population. In statistical analysis the mean value tells the Blank and variation tells the blank of an
    action.
    A. Expected performance, consistency.
    B. Forecasted performance, reliability.
    C. Past performance, duration.
    D. Current performance, subjectivity.
A
  1. Answer: D - In statistics, a sample statistic is one that takes a subset of individuals from within a statistical population to estimate characteristics of the whole population. In statistical analysis, the mean value tells the current performance and variation tells the subjectivity of an action.
128
Q
  1. Six Sigma green and black belts should be skilled in five areas, which include project management, leadership, analytical thinking, organizational change management, and
    A. Adult learning skills.
    B. Financial analysis skills
    C. Analytical analysis skills
    D. Statistical design modeling skills.
A
  1. Answer: A - Six Sigma green and black belts should be skilled in five areas, which include project management, leadership, analytical thinking, organizational change management, and adult learning skills.
129
Q
  1. Logistical organizations may use “lean warehousing,” which is the design of a distribution system to eliminate waste and create efficiencies. Which of the following principles would NOT be a lean tool for warehousing?
    A. Storing heavy products low.
    B. Storing products high out of reach.
    C. Using vertical storage where possible.
    D. Moving similar products together.
A
  1. Answer: B - Storing products high out of reach would not be a lean tool for warehousing. Products need to be stored within reach of employees. Lean warehousing is the design of a distribution system to eliminate waste and create efficiencies by improving access and providing standardization.
130
Q
  1. Standard deviation helps to determine the variability of some processes. Which choice explains how the standard deviation of a process would be calculated?
    A. The square root of the most frequent observation occurrence in a data set.
    B. The square root of the arithmetic mean value of the data set.
    C. The square root of the sum of squared standard deviations about a population mean divided by the number of observations in a population.
    D. The square root of the difference between the largest data range value and the smallest data value.
A
  1. Answer: C - The standard deviation of a process would be calculated by taking the square root of the sum of squared standard deviations about a population mean divided by the number of observations in a population.
131
Q
  1. In the development of a lean team and a project charter, which stakeholder determines the project’s strategic objectives?
    A. The product or service customer.
    B. The project sponsor.
    C. The organization’s senior management.
    D. The project manager.
A
  1. Answer: C - The organization’s senior management is the stakeholder who determines the project’s strategic objectives. The charter is built with input from all stakeholders. The organization’s management is ultimately responsible for producing the product or service and determining the strategic objectives of the organization.
132
Q
  1. Which choice below would NOT be included in the ground rules for team functioning that shows respect to others?
    A. Discussion of team member responsibilities.
    B. Reminder of the importance of punctuality.
    C. Discussion of team member etiquette.
    D. Team members document personal agendas.
A
  1. Answer: D - Documentation of personal agendas would not occur in the ground rules for team functioning. The team leader ensures personal agendas are not the focus for projects and the team is committed to meeting the deliverable requirements in the project charter. The ground rules for team functioning will include discussion of punctuality, member responsibilities, and meeting etiquette.
133
Q
  1. Which lean tool would be best suited for improving the physical layout of a workspace?
    A. SIPOC.
    B. Spaghetti diagram.
    C. A swim lane diagram.
    D. A process map.
A
  1. Answer: B - A spaghetti diagram would be best suited for improving the physical layout of a workspace. It helps determine the number of steps and wasted moves for an operation in a physical environment. SIPOC stands for Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, and Customers. A swim lane is used in process flow diagrams or flowcharts to show responsibilities for sub-processes. A process map shows the activities in a process and their sequence.
134
Q
  1. The objectives of a value-added and non-value-added analysis include all of the following EXCEPT?
    A. To reduce capacity.
    B. To reduce the complexity of a process.
    C. To identify hidden costs.
    D. To reduce lead time.
A
  1. Answer: A - The objectives of a value-added and non-value-added analysis include identifying hidden costs, reducing process complexity, and reducing lead time. Reducing capacity is not correct because you actually want to improve or increase capacity through value-added and non-value-added analysis.
135
Q
  1. Which of the following hypothesis tests is used to test the difference of a sample mean x-bar with a known population mean and known population sigma?
    A. One sample t-test.
    B. Two sample test.
    C. Paired t-test.
    D. One sample z-test.
A
  1. Answer: D - The one sample z-test is used to test the difference of a sample mean x-bar with a known population mean and known population sigma. The t-test is used to test the mean of a small sample with a normal distribution against a specified value. The paired t-test is used when the test units can be paired. The two sample tests are used for small samples of 30 or less to determine if numbers come from the same population.
136
Q
  1. Which data analysis technique is used for determining if a measurement process has gone out of statistical control and is sensitive to changes in the number of defective items?
    A. The c chart.
    B. The u chart.
    C. The np chart.
    D. The p chart.
A
  1. Answer: A - The c chart is the data analysis technique used for determining if a measurement process has gone out of statistical control and is sensitive to changes in the number of defective items. U charts plot the number of nonconformities per unit. P charts are used to plot units that do not conform when the samples are not of equal size. Np charts are used to plot units that do not conform when samples of equal size are taken from a process.
137
Q
  1. All of the following tools can be used to determine the scope of a lean project EXCEPT?
    A. A product analysis.
    B. An alternatives identification.
    C. A data collection plan.
    D. A stakeholder analysis.
A
  1. Answer: C - A product analysis, alternatives identification, and a stakeholder analysis can all be used to determine the scope of a lean project.
    A data collection plan is not a tool used in determining the project scope. The data collection plan houses information relative to the process or service which needs to be measured to improve.
138
Q
  1. Talichi Ohno studied waste and its impact on quality. Under his teachings, there are how many forms of waste?
    A. Six forms of waste.
    B. Seven forms of waste.
    C. Eight forms of waste.
    D. Five forms of waste.
A
  1. Answer: C - Under Talichi Ohno, there are eight forms of waste. The eight forms of waste are: 1. overproduction ahead of demand, 2. waiting for the next process, 3. unnecessary transport of materials, 4. over-processing of parts, 5. inventories more than the minimum, 6. unnecessary movement by employees, 7. production of defective parts, and 8. under-utilization of employees’ talent.
139
Q
  1. Lean practitioners are responsible for application of quality management standards within the organization. Which set of International Standards Organization (ISO) standards covers quality management and quality assurance?
    A. ISO 1423.
    B. ISO 14001.
    C. ISO 9001.
    D. ISO 6000.
A
  1. Answer: C - ISO 9001Quality Management Standard (QMS) is the set of standards from the International Standards Organization (ISO) that covers quality management and quality assurance. It applies to processes to prescribe control of activities to ensure that the needs of customers are met.
140
Q
  1. The method of minimizing the variation of a process and keeping a process within boundaries is called the
    A. Process control.
    B. Process capability.
    C. Probability of the process
    D. Randomness of design.
A
  1. Answer: A - The method of minimizing the variation of a process and keeping a process within boundaries is called process control. Process control is typically displayed in process control charts and monitors the output of a process to provide timely warning of special causes by monitoring the process mean.
141
Q
  1. Which of the following would NOT be considered one of the four factors which causes variation?
    A. Special causes.
    B. Environmental variation.
    C. Common causes.
    D. Tampering to compensate for the range of variability.
A
  1. Answer: B - Environmental variation would NOT be considered one of the four factors which causes variation. Variation is a change in data, characteristic, or function caused by one of the four factors which cause variation. These factors are special causes, tampering, common causes, and structural variation.
142
Q
  1. A storage designer has developed acrylic prototypes of a new product. They are developing corresponding data for the process capability index. What does the process capability index do?
    A. Estimates the costs of production.
    B. Determines the process critical path.
    C. Shows if the process can meet the requirements of a customer.
    D. Determines the probability of errors.
A
  1. Answer: C - The process capability index shows if the process can meet the requirements of a customer. The process capability index can do this with a single number. Shown as Cp and pk, the data shows the normal distribution of the process.
143
Q
  1. Which of the following descriptors is correct for confidence intervals of a sample size?
    A. The width of the confidence interval increases as the population size decreases.
    B. The width of the confidence interval increases as the population sample size increases.
    C. A 90% confidence level will be wider than a 95% confidence interval.
    D. The width of the confidence interval decreases as the sample size increases.
A
  1. Answer: D - The width of the confidence interval decreases as the sample size increases is the correct descriptor for confidence intervals of a sample size. It provides the confidence level, as well as the margin of error.
144
Q
  1. The strength and direction of a correlation are defined and measured by the correlation coefficient (r). Which of the following choices is NOT included in the possible values for correlation?
    A. O indicates absolute correlation.
    B. 1 indicates a perfect positive correlation.
    C. -1 indicates a perfect negative correlation.
    D. O indicates no correlation.
A
  1. Answer: A - The strength and direction of a correlation are defined and measured by the correlation coefficient (r). With the given choices, “O indicates absolute correlation” is NOT included in the possible values for correlation. Zero does not indicate absolute correlation. The possible values for correlation include 0 indicates no correlation, 1 indicates a perfect positive correlation, and -1 indicates a perfect negative correlation. The value of r will always fall between -1 and 1.
145
Q
  1. Which level of sigma results in 6,210 defective parts per million:
    A. The 3rd sigma level.
    B. The 4th sigma level.
    C. The 2nd sigma level.
    D. The 6th sigma level.
A
  1. Answer: B - The 4th sigma level results in 6,210 defective parts per million. At the 6thsigma level, a business process produces only 3.4 defects per million opportunities. At the 5th sigma level, 233 defective parts per million occur. At the 4th sigma level, 6,210 defective parts per million occur.
    At the 3rd sigma level, 66,807 defective parts per million occur. At the 2nd sigma level, 308,538 defective parts per million occur.
146
Q
  1. Which would be the best choice of picture, chart, or diagram to show if the improvements implemented in a project are improving from the baseline or benchmarks?
    A. Scatter diagrams of data.
    B. Pie chart representation.
    C. Trend analyses.
    D. Pareto diagrams.
A
  1. Answer: C - A trend analysis would be the best choice of picture, chart, or diagram to show if the improvements implemented in a project are improving from the baseline or benchmarks. Scatter diagrams are used to show groupings or relativity of data. Pie charts are used to show a proportionate size. Pareto diagrams rank related measures in decreasing order of occurrence.
147
Q
  1. What characteristics are commonly displayed in the Norming stage of team development?
    A. Team members getting to know one another and setting the foundation for the project and team ground rules.
    B. Team members begin to display their hidden agendas and bias.
    C. Team members actively work and accomplish goals.
    D. Team members agree on operations and begin to work together effectively.
A
  1. Answer: D - The characteristics commonly displayed in the Norming stage of team development are that the team members agree on operations and begin to work together effectively. The Forming stage is characterized by members getting to know one another and setting the foundation for the project and team ground rules. The Storming stage is characterized by conflict, as the team members begin to display their hidden agendas and bias.
    The Performing stage is characterized by active work and accomplishment of goals. The Adjourning stage is characterized by the disbanding of the team members through completion of the project.
148
Q
  1. What technique would be used to generate creative ideas or solutions in a short period of time?
    A. Mind mapping potential solutions.
    B. Brainstorming as a team.
    C. A stakeholder analysis.
    D. A Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA).
A
  1. Answer: B - A technique used to generate creative ideas or solutions in a short period of time would be brainstorming as a team. Brainstorming is used during the define phase to determine what customers consider critical to quality.
149
Q
  1. Which lean tool would a project team utilize to determine all possible failures in a design, product, or process?
    A. Root cause analysis.
    B. Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA).
    C. Design of Experiments (DOE).
    D. Relations diagram checklist.
A
  1. Answer: B - A project team would utilize a Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA) to determine all possible failures in a design, product, or process. An FMEA is a systematized group of activities to evaluate a potential failure of a product or process and eliminate potential failure in the process.
150
Q
  1. A lean process initiative has a production time for plastic extrusion with a baseline of 17 minutes. They do a pilot test time of 6.1 minutes and 5.4 minutes in the control phase. Calculate the percentage of improvement from the baseline.
    A. The percentage of improvement is 40%.
    B. The percentage of improvement is 68%.
    C. The percentage of improvement is 54%.
    D. The percentage of improvement is 32%.
A
  1. Answer: B - If a lean process initiative has a production time for plastic extrusion with a baseline of 17 minutes and they do a pilot test time of 6.1 minutes and 5.4 minutes calculated in the control phase, the percentage of improvement from the baseline is 68%.
151
Q
  1. Which of the following would NOT be an issue encountered when collecting data for a lean project?
    A. No data is available.
    B. Data does not measure what was intended to be measured.
    C. Only a limited number of employees have access to the data.
    D. The data has never been collected in the past.
A
  1. Answer: A - When collecting data for a lean project, one may encounter issues such as the fact that the data does not measure what was intended to be measured, or that only a limited number of employees have access to the data, or that the data has never been collected in the past. The lack of availability of data would inherently not be a reason, as there must have been an initial indication there was a performance issue.
152
Q
  1. The Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) is a statistical technique used to compare samples from populations to determine if they have the same mean. Which of the following cannot be done with ANOVA?
    A. Comparing two samples drawn from populations that have the same mean.
    B. Determining the process conforms to a normal distribution.
    C. Calculating the amount of common cause variation.
    D. Control process variance.
A
  1. Answer: D - Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) is statistical technique used to compare samples from populations to determine if they have the same mean. ANOVA cannot control a process; it is used to compare population means. It can determine if the process conforms to a normal distribution and calculate the amount of common cause variation.
153
Q
  1. The Ishikawa diagram determines the causes which affect output
    y = f(x). Which of the following is NOT explained by the equation y
    f (x)?
    A. The process sigma level.
    B. Causes for failures in the process.
    C. The inputs × which result in the output y.
    D. The combined effects of problems.
A
  1. Answer: A - The Ishikawa diagram allows lean practitioners to
    determine the causes which affect output y = f(x). The equation y = f(x)
    allows them to determine causes for failures in the processes, the inputs x which result in the output y, and the combined effects of problems. This equation is not used to determine the corresponding sigma level.
154
Q
  1. The project charter helps develop the project team. Under the project charter, which of the following choices is the function of the project sponsor?
    A. Coordinates the project and team members.
    B. Anyone actively involved in the project that has interest in the completion of the project.
    C. Provide strategic objectives and alignment.
    D. Transfer project budget authority.
A
  1. Answer: D - Under the project charter, the project sponsor transfers project budget authority. Stakeholders are anyone actively involved in the project that has interest in the performance or completion of the project.
    Management provides the strategic objectives and alignment for the project.
    The project manager coordinates the project and team members and implements the project plan and charter.
155
Q
  1. Which of the following choices would an organization use under the define phase to develop metrics for processes?
    A. A CTQ flow down.
    B. A stakeholder analysis.
    C. Historical process data.
    D. A project charter.
A
  1. Answer: A - An organization would use CTQ flow down under the define phase to develop metrics for processes. Stakeholder analysis, historical data, and project charter are all included in the design phase but the CTQ flow down is a method of converting the voice of the customer into specific features which can be measured.
156
Q
  1. Which lean tool below is a 5 step tool for making processes more efficient and eliminating waste?
    A. Technical benchmarking with a house of quality.
    B. A3 based on the plan-do-check-act cycle.
    C. Value stream mapping.
    D. 5S: sort, straighten, shine, standardize, and sustain.
A
  1. Answer: D - The lean tool for making processes more efficient and eliminating waste which uses five steps is 5S, which includes the steps of sort, straighten, shine, standardize, and sustain. The steps organize, separate, straighten, clean, and standardize processes.
157
Q
  1. All of the following are situations in which you would use an affinity diagram EXCEPT:
    A. Disagreement between team members on evaluation of ideas.
    B. A large number of ideas which require grouping.
    C. The team has limited ideas.
    D. When multiple ideas are freely flowing.
A
  1. Answer: D - You would use an affinity diagram if there were disagreement between team members on evaluation of ideas, a large group of ideas requires grouping, or the team has limited ideas. You would not use it when multiple ideas are freely flowing, as affinity diagrams are used when there is a shortage of ideas.
158
Q
  1. Which of the following would lead a project team to determine a process was out of control?
    A. Zero single points are outside the upper control limits.
    B. At the fourth point, when two out of three successive points are on the same side of the centerline and farther than 2 o from it.
    C. Six out of the last eight points plot on the same side of the center line.
    D. A run of four in a row are on the same side of the centerline.
A
  1. Answer: B - A project team would determine a process was out of control at the fourth point when two out of three successive points are on the same side of the centerline and farther than 2 o from it. Sigma levels 1, 2, and 3 are used to determine unstable conditions. An unstable process is out of statistical control and shows variation due to special cause variation. An unstable, out of control condition can be a point, set of points, or trend in the data.
159
Q
  1. Which of the following choices is NOT a scenario where a lean practitioner would use a tree diagram?
    A. When a problem cause is known and the team wants to document specific details.
    B. When determining the root cause of a problem.
    C. When developing the process flow.
    D. When evaluating potential solutions.
A
  1. Answer: C -A lean practitioner would NOT use a tree diagram when developing a process flow. They may use a tree diagram when specifics are known about the problem and they want to determine the root cause or evaluate solutions.
160
Q
  1. Which lean tool is considered the baseline for Kaizen events?
    A. Determination of the sequence of operator tasks.
    B. Standardization of work in the environment.
    C. Calculation of Takt time.
    D. Building an inventory of equipment needed for processes.
A
  1. Answer: B - Standardization of work in the environment is considered the baseline for Kaizen events. Standardized work forms the baseline for Kaizen, or continuous improvement. Standardized work is developed through the components of calculation of Takt time, the sequence of operator tasks, and an inventory of equipment needed to keep the process operating smoothly.