Contamination Control Flashcards

1
Q

Why do microorganisms pose a problem to pharmacists?

A
  • small
  • abundant and can grow in the most unlikely situations
  • may cause disease - pathogenic
  • some form spores, which are resistant to killing by heat, chemical, radiation or drying
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2
Q

Describe bacteria.

A
  • 0.7-4mcm
  • unicellular
  • rod shaped or spherical
  • gram +/-
  • nutrients: C, H, N, O, S, P, water
  • aerobic/anaerobic
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3
Q

Describe bacterial spores.

A
  • undergo a rpofound biochemical change
  • lead to formation of spore
  • highly resistant to adverse environemtn
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4
Q

Describe viruses.

A
  • 20-250nm
  • most pass through bacteria proof filters
  • destruction by heat
  • most inactivated at 60°C for 30 mins
  • all killed by boiling water
  • most chemical disinfectants have minimal virucidal activity
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5
Q

Describe fungi.

A
  • single or multicellular
  • single - 5-10mcm in diameter
  • commonly form spores
  • yeasts, moulds and mushrooms
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6
Q

Describe the air supply in aseptic areas.

A

areas have to be supplied and continuously flushed with air of suitable quality and at a positive pressure

achieved through High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filters of appropriate efficiency

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7
Q

Describe the cleanroom specifications.

A
  • air wuality standards in aseptic processing areas must meet both US and European requirements

European standards:

  • Grades A, B, C and D classifications, instead of 100,1000
  • use particle and microbial limits per cubic metre, instead of cubic foot
  • require particle measurements at 5 microns in addition to 0.5 microns in grade A and B areas
  • differentiate area cleanliness dynamically “in operation” and ‘at rest’

*

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8
Q

How can you measure aerial contamination?

A
  • settle plates
  • Slit Samplers
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9
Q

Describe the use of settle plates.

A
  • nutrient plates which collects aerial contamination >100mcm which settle by gravity
  • important hazard in aseptic work
  • small particles not represented
  • unaware of volume of air introduced
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10
Q

Describe the use of Slit Samplers.

A
  • air drawn through a slit or number of small holes
  • beneath which rotates a “nutrient” agar plate
  • deposition of particles depends on the rate of air flow, slit width, or dimensions of holes and distance between slit/holes and plate
  • 99% efficiency of particle - 1mcm
  • can count number of organisms associated with particles in a known volume of air drawn through the device
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11
Q

What needs to be monitored in aseptic areas?

A
  • particulate contamination
  • temp & humidity
  • air velocity and pressure
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12
Q

What is required from those who work in aspetic areas?

A
  • high standards of personal hygiene and cleanliness
  • any medical condition (colds, skin infections) should be reported
  • min. number of people should be present when work in progress
  • adequate training
  • gowning up
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13
Q

What happens when viable cells are exposed to a lethal agent?

A

constant proportion, not a constant number of organisms are killed per unit time

plotted as:

  • log number of viable cells
  • log % viable cells against time
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14
Q

Steriling conditions should produce what probability level?

A

a probability level of one in one million units being non-sterile (based on linear death kinetics)

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15
Q

What is the sterility assurance and what does it mean?

A

10-6

degree of assurance with which the process in question renders a population of items sterile

SAL 10-6 = probability of not more than one viable organism in 1 x 106 sterilised items of final product

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16
Q

What is a D value?

A

decimal reduction value

value of a parameter of sterilisation (duration or absorbed dose) required to reduce the number of viable organisms by 90% or 1 log cycle

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17
Q

What is inactivation factor and how do you calculate it?

A

reduction in the number of viable organisms produced by sterilising process

10t/D

t = exposure time

D = D value

18
Q

Describe the two approaches to sterilisation.

A
  • overkill method
    • sterilisation cycles based on inactivation of a greater N of organisms of greater resistance than the natural bioburden of the product
    • minimum SAL set for cycle
    • basis of traditional BP methods of heat sterilisation
      • with recomended combinations of time and temp
  • bioburden method
    • requires knowledge of bioburden, D value and most resistant organism
    • prior to defining the sterilising cycle
    • allows sterilisation cycles to be run with acceptable SALs and minimal product detoriation
19
Q

What is the bioburden?

A

number of viable organisms a batch contains

20
Q

What is terminally sterilised vs non terminally sterilised products?

A
  • terminally sterilised
    • products sterilised in their final container
    • method of choice whenever possible
    • manufactured in cleanroom
    • pyrogen free product
    • low microbial and particulate counts prior sterilisation
  • non-terminally sterilised
    • prepared under aseptic conditions from previously sterilised materials
    • processed in cleanrooms
    • until sterilised
    • filled into final container in aspetic areas
21
Q

What are examples of terminally sterilised vs non terminally sterilised products?

A

terminally sterilised:

  • steam sterilisation (heating in autoclave)
  • dry heat sterilisation
  • ionising radistion sterilisation

non-terminally sterilised:

  • filtration
22
Q

Describe heat sterilisation.

A
  • most reliable, versatile and readily available and economic method of sterilisation
  • materials must be stable
    • heat decomposition of drug, interaction between drug and additives, modification of pharmacological activity of drug
    • stability of containers and closures
  • safer compared to chemical sterilisation

net result depends on balance between

  1. heat increasing rate of chemical reactions within bacteria cells = increased growth rate
  2. destructive effect on more heat sensitive components of cell
23
Q

What is bacteriostasis?

A

point at which organisms die at the same rate they reproduce

24
Q

What is a further increase in temp past bacteriostasis point called?

A

destructive bactericidal effect

death rate increased and time to sterilise decreased

25
Q

What is one bad thing about vegetative bacteria?

A

relatively heat sensitive

killed rapidly in hot water at 60-100deg

spores usually require temp greater than 100deg

26
Q

What can be used as a biological indicator to test the efficiency of sterilisation processes and why?

A

bacillus stearothermophilus

very heat resistant

27
Q

Describe the mechanism of destruction of moist heat.

A
  • hot air with water vapour
  • unfolding protein = protein denaturation = uncoiling DNA = enzyme inactivation
  • changes to cell membrane = leakage of cell contents = death
  • relatively lower temp than dry heat
28
Q

Describe the mechanism of destruction of dry heat.

A
  • absence of water
  • proteins much more stable - more enrgy required for unfolding
  • death occurs by
    • oxidation of cell components
    • requiring high temp
29
Q

What sterilisation process is preferred in BP?

A

saturated steam under pressure

saturated steam: water vapour at a temp corresponding to the boiling point of water appropriate to its pressure

30
Q

What temp and time is required for steam sterilisation?

A

for aqueous preparations: a minimum of 121 deg for 15 mins

31
Q

Define sensible heat.

A

heat required to raise the temp of water to its boiling point

32
Q

Define latent heat.

A

additional heat, absorbed when boiling water is converted to steam at the same temp

33
Q

What are advantages vs disadvantages of moist heat?

A

+

  • terminal sterilisation
  • any dose volume
  • good safety margin
  • virsuses killed
  • relatively short progress
  • suitable for dressings, rubber and some plastics
  • suitable for solutions, suspensions, surgical materials

-

  • unsuitable for themrolabile materials, anhydrous materials (oils and powders)
  • organisms killed but not removed
  • skilled operators required
  • may damage glass and metal
  • batch process
34
Q

Describe dry heat sterilisation.

A
  • terminally sterilised
  • temp 160-180 for 30 mins-2 hours
  • used for thermostable items - sensitive to moisture or impermeable to steam
  • very high temp (250deg) used to sterilise and depyrogenate glassware
  • anhydrous materials
  • glass and metal materials
  • powders
  • some rubbers
35
Q

Why is terminal sterilisation preferred?

A

provides a SAL that is possible to calculate, validate and control

incorporates a saftey margin

36
Q

What are advantages vs disadvantages of dry heat?

A

+

  • terminal sterilisation
  • any dose volume
  • viruses killed
  • used for anyhdrous material
  • sutiable for suspensions and solutions
  • less damage to glass and metal than moist heat

-

  • drastic heat treatment
  • organisms killed but not removed
  • unsuitable for dressings, rubber and plastics
  • suspensions may give different crystal form on cooling
37
Q

What is sterilisation by filtration?

A
  • API and preparations not sufficiently heat stable to allow autoclaving (thermolabile)
  • passage through a sterile membrane filter of normal pore size0.22mcm or less
  • organisms removed, instead of killed
  • doesnt sterilise: suspensions, medicaments highly adsorbed by filters, readily oxidised solutions, products unstable in solution
38
Q

What are advantages vs disadvantages of filtration?

A

+

  • no thermal effects
  • remove dead and viable organisms

-

  • difficult technique
  • require sterility testing prior to release = delay
  • will not remove or inactivate viruses
  • defects in filters not visible
  • possibility of adsorption of medicament, liberation of particles or alteration of pH by the filter
  • unsuitable for suspensions
39
Q

What is ionising radiation sterilisation?

A
  • terminal sterilisation
  • minimum adsorbed dose of 25 kGy
  • gamma radiation - very penetrating
  • beta radiation (high speed electron) - poor penetration
  • physical and biochemical effects in microorganisms (DNA)
  • used for: heat sensiitve materials (disposables, dressings, organic compounds (antibitoics, hormones))
40
Q

What are advantages vs disadvantages of ionising radiation sterilisation?

A

+

  • operates at ambient temp
  • terminal sterilisation
  • concinuous process
  • reliable and accurately controlled
  • treatment time short - few seconds

-

  • expensive
  • damaging effect on some materials (glass, plastic, PVC)
  • protective precautions
41
Q

What gas can be used for sterilisation?

A

ethylene oxide

42
Q

What are the principles of good manufacturing practise?

A
  • qualified personell
  • adequate premises
  • suitable production equipment, designed for easy cleaning and sterilisation
  • validated procedures for all critical production steps
  • environmental monitoring and in process testing procedures
  • precautions to minimise pre sterilisation bioburden