Consolidation Flashcards

1
Q

You should check kidney function before which cytotoxic drug?

A

Methotrexate

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2
Q

Which cytotoxic drug is cardiotoxic?

A

Doxorubicin

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3
Q

Which cytotoxic drug is neurotoxic? What does this cause?

A

Vincristine
• Neuropathic pain
• Foot drop
• Severe constipation

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4
Q

Which cytotoxic drug can cause liver and kidney toxicity, alongside a skin rash?

A

Methotrexate (forms crystals)

-kidney function should be tested

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5
Q

Which ADR is characterised by epidermal necrosis causing blisters over 3-30% of the body?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome
• NSAIDS
• Penicillin
• Lamotrigine

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6
Q

Which class of antiviral can cross the blood-brain barrier?

A

Integrase inhibitors

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7
Q

Which antiviral drug is excreted though the small intestine as well as metabolised by CYP-P450?

A

Protease inhibitors:
• Darunavir
• Ritanovir

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8
Q

Class I, II and III denote side effect profiles for which classes of drugs? Recall them

A
Phenothiazines 
Thioxanthenes
I)  
II) Antimuscarinic
III) Extrapyrimidal side effects
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9
Q

Agranulocytosis is a side effect of which antipsychotic?

A

Clozapine

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10
Q

Weight gain and insulin-resistant diabetes are side effects of which antipsychotics?

A

Olanzapine

Risperidone

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11
Q
Which class of drugs have the followings affinities:
H2: Low
H3: High
H4: High
5-HT2A: High
A

2nd Generation Antipsychotics

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12
Q

Which nucleus is stimulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus and goes on to stimulate the arousal pathways?

A

Dorsomedial hypothalamic nucleus

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13
Q

What is the tuberomammillary nucleus?

A

Histaminergic nucleus

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14
Q

What does the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus do?

A

Releases GABA and galanine to inhibit the arousal pathways

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15
Q

For which cytotoxic drug should you inject intrathecal doses to prevent meningeal leukaemia?

A

Methotrexate

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16
Q

Which drug class is unique to chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Protein kinase inhibitors

17
Q

What is the precursor amino acid for 5-HT

A

Tryptophan

18
Q

Which CPTP drugs are cardiotoxic?

A

TCAs:
• Amitriptiline
• Trazodone

Anthracyclines:
• Doxorubicin

19
Q

Galactorrhoea and gynecomastia is caused by what?

A

Inhibition of the tuberoinfundibular pathway D2 transmission (which acts as prolactin release inhibiting factor) (PRIF)

20
Q

Which component of the cephalosporin structure makes it mare resistant to beta-lactamases than the penicillins?

A

The Dihydrothiazine ring

21
Q

Which type of antibiotic can be used topically for burns victims?

A

Sulphonamides

• Co-trimoxazole

22
Q

What drug is typically used for UTIs, RTIs and immunocompromised patients?

A

Sulphonamides including trimethoprim

23
Q

Which bacteriocidal drug should never be used on pregnant women or neonates?

A

Sulphonamides

Penicillins for neonates due to poor removal

24
Q

Which drugs are malabsorbed with PPI use?

A

Protease inhibitors

25
Q

Which drug is malabsorbed with calcium, magnesium and aluminium salts?

A

Doxycycline

26
Q

Clarithromycin is particularly effective against?

A
  • H. influenzae

* H. pylori

27
Q

What are the long-acting NSAIDs?

A

Celecoxib and Naproxen

28
Q

Which NSAID can cross the BBB?

A

Celecoxib

29
Q

Which NSAID causes CVD?

A

Celecoxib

30
Q

Which NSAID does not cause GI side effects?

A

Celecoxib (as it is COX-2 selective)

31
Q

Which NSAID is COX-2 selective

A

Celecoxib

32
Q

Which NSAID inhibits leukocytes?

A

Naproxen

33
Q

Sedation and weight gain is due to what side effect of TCAs?

A

Anti-H1

34
Q

Which drugs are used in the treatment of opioid adictions?

A

Naloxone - Used after some time has passed to reverse the lasting effects of addiction

Methodone - 24hour agonist to stop the effects of withdrawl in cold turkey

Alpha-2 agonists - Many of the cold turkey symptoms are mediated by locus coeruleus overactivity