Consciousness and Brain Activity Flashcards

1
Q

Define concsciousness.

A
  1. Medical: the state of being aware and responsive to one’s surroundings.

2. A person’s awareness or perception of something.

  • Involves perception, cognition, action.
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2
Q

What are the levels of consciousness?

A
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3
Q

How would you define disorders of consciousness, with reference to locked-in syndrome, minimally conscious state, unresponsive wakefulnes syndrome, chronic coma and brain death.

A
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4
Q

How would levels of concsiousness be identifiable in an PET scan?

A
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5
Q

What is the most serious common loss of consciousness worldwide?

A

Malaria

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6
Q

In the UK, what medical conditions can result in a loss of consciousness?

A
  • Stroke (Haemorrhage, Thrombosis, Embolus)
  • Cardiovascular
  • Diabetes
  • Drug Induced (alcohol/other poison/overdose)
  • Epilepsy
  • Head Injury
  • Raised Intracranial Pressure (tumour/abscess)
  • Dementia
  • Uraemia, Liver Disease (other metabolic disorders).
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7
Q

Summarise the glasgow coma scale.

A
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8
Q

In the glasgow coma scale, what is under the category ‘Best Eye Resonse’

A
  1. Spontaneous eye opening.
  2. Eye opening in response any speech (or shout, not necessarily request to open eyes).
  3. Opening in response to pain (to limbs).
  4. No response.
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9
Q

In the glasgow coma scale, what is subcategorised as ‘Best Verbal Response’

A
  1. Orientated: Patient know who he is, where he is and why, the year, season and month. (Infant: Smiles, orientated to sounds, follow objects, interacts).
  2. Confused conversation: Patient responds to questions in a conversational manner but some disorientation and confusion (Infant: Cries but consolable, inappropriate interactions).
  3. Inappropriate speech: Random or exclamatory articulated speech, but no conversational exchange. (Infant: Inconsistently inconsolable, moaning).
  4. Incomprehensible speech: Moaning but no words. (Infant: Inconsolable, agitated).
  5. No verbal response.
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10
Q

In the glasgow coma scale, how would you categorise: ‘Best Motor Response’

A
  1. Obeying Command: Patient does simple things you ask. (Infant: moves spontaneously and purposefully).

5. Localising response to pain: Pinch earlobe, put pressure on the patient’s finger nail bed with a pencil, supraorbital and sternal pressure. Purposeful movements towards changing painful stimuli is a ‘localising’ response. (Infant: withdraws from touch).

4. Withdraws to pain: Pulls limb away from painful stimulus. (Infant: withdraws from pain).

3. Abnormal flexor response to pain: Painful stimulus causes abnormal flexion of limbs (decorticate).

2. Extensor posturing to pain: Painful stimulus causes limb extension (adduction, internal rotation of the shoulder, pronation of forearm) (decerebrate).

1. No response to pain.

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11
Q

Summarise the glasgow coma scale.

A
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12
Q

What are the different thresholds in the glasgow coma scale?

A

E + V + M = 3 to 15

  • 90% less than or equal to 8 are in a coma.

- Greater than 9 = not in a coma.

  • 9-11 = moderate severity.
  • 12+ = minor injury.

8 is the critical score. More than 50% of those at 8 die after 6 hours.

In summary, if a patient is in a coma:

E = not opening eyes.

V = not uttering understandable words

M = not obeying commands.

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13
Q

How would you diagnose and confirm a death?

A
  • Irreversible loss of the capacity for consciousness combined with irreversible loss of the capacity to breathe.
  • The irreversible cessation fo brain stem function equates with the death of the individual.
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14
Q

Define Brain stem death.

A

NHS Definition: For a diagnosis of a brain stem death to be made:

  • A person must be unconscious and fail to respond to outside stimulation.
  • A person’s heartbeat and breathing can only be maintained using a vertilator.
  • There must be clear evidence that serious brain damage has occured and it can’t be cured.
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15
Q

What is the criteria for brain stem death?

A
  • Aetiology of irreversible brain damage.
  • Patient is deeply comatose, unresponsive, requiring artifical ventilation.
  • Not caused by depressant drugs
  • Not caused by primary hypothermia
  • Not caused by potentially reversible circulatory, metabolic and endocrine disturbances.
  • Not caused by potentially reversible causes of apnoea (dependence on the ventilator) such as muscle relaxants and cervical cord injury.
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16
Q

What brain-stem reflexes do you test for in brain death?

A
  • Pupil responses - Shine torch in eyes.
  • Corneal reflex - Gently stroke cornea (transparent outer layer of the eye) with tissue or piece of cotton wool.
  • Vestibulo-Ocular reflex (VOR) - Insert ice-cold water into each ear, which would usually cause the eyes to move.
  • Cranial nerve motor responses - Apply supraorbital pressure to elicit motor response.
  • Cough/Gag reflex - Insert catheter down treachea/stimulate posterior pharynx with spatula.
  • Respiratory effort - when ventilator is disconnected - 5 mins.
17
Q

Most of the cues that control the level of activity in the thalamus, neocortex etc. originate in the brainstem.

  • This is called the reticular activating system (RAS).

Give more facts about how this system controls concsiousness.

A
  • Made up of complex system of nuclei and tracts - trying to work out what each bit does & how it interacts with it’s neighbours is hard.
  • There is also the reticuluar formation - A collection of nuclei found throughout the midbrain and extends into the hindbrain (pons & medulla) and the spinal cord.
  • Diffuse area, no clear anatomical boundaries, not easily seen on brainstem sections.
  • Also called the diffuse modulatory system.
18
Q

Give the location of the four nuclei of the reticular activating system (RAS).

A
19
Q

Give some facts about the locus coeruleus (blue spot)

A
  • Located in pons.
  • Sends information to nearly all the CNS.
  • Active during arousal, novel stimuli, mediates sympathetic effects of stress.
  • Disorders: anxiety, panic, PTSD.
  • Hypoactivity associated with depression
  • Neurotransmitter: Noradrenaline NA
20
Q

Explain the Raphe Nuclei of the Reticular Activating System.

A
  • Collection of nuclei in midline in midbrain, pons & medulla.
  • Project to large areas of the CNS.
  • Cells in rostral parts active during waking state.
  • Projections help regulate circadian rhythm, enkephalin release (pain inhibition).
  • Disorders: Depression, OCD.

Neurotransmitter: Serotonin (5-HT).

21
Q

Explain the role of the Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA) or the reticular activating system (RAS).

A
  • Ventral region of midbrain.
  • Project mainly to frontal cortex and limbic system.
  • Involved in reward circuity of the brain - reinforces pleasurable sensations, motivation & intense emotions.
  • Disorders: drug addiction, schizophrenia, Parkinson’s disease, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
  • Neurotransmitter: Dopamine (DA).
22
Q

Explain the role of the Cholinergic nuelci in the reticular activating system.

A

Basal Forebrain Nuclei (purple)

- Projections to all cortical areas, especially frontal.

Dorsolateral Pontine Nuclei (green).

- Project to basal ganglia, thalamus, hypothalamus, brainstem, cerebellum.

  • Active during states of arousal, induce wakefulness and REM sleep.
  • Contribute to synaptic plasticity and involved in learning and memory.
  • Disorders: Alzheimer’s disease, amnesia, dementia.

Neurotransmitter: Acetylcholine.

23
Q

What is associated with damage to the anterior hypothalamus - ventrolateral preoptic nucleus)?

A
  • GABA mediated
  • Associated with insomnia (shorter sleep)
  • Damage to the anterior hypthalamus is not the major cause of insomnia).
24
Q

What is associated with damage to the posterior hypothalamus? (tuberomammilary nucleus)

A
  • Associated with sleeping sickness (longer sleep)
  • Stimulation of this area releases Histamine
  • Histamine is an arousing neuromodulator.
25
Q

Give an overview of the role of neurotransmitters in the brain in relation to the RAS function.

A
26
Q

How are the reward and wakefulness pathways interlinked?

A
27
Q

What receptors are involved in cortical arousal?

A
28
Q

Explain the role of the ascending reticular activating system

A

Awake: cholinergic fibres increase firing.

Alseep: cholinergic fibres decrease firing.

29
Q

Explain the differences in the sleep-wake cycle.

A
30
Q

How are Sleep and EEG oscillations generated?

A

They are generated by the interaction between three types of neurons.

  • Thalamocortical (in thalamus).
  • Reticular (in reticular nucleus).
  • Corticothalamic (in cerebral cortex).
31
Q

What are the sleep stages and characteristics of each stage?

A
32
Q

What are the two main types of sleep?

A

1. Synchronised or NREM (Non-REM) sleep.

  • EEG waves are slow and synchronised.
  • Dominated by low frequency activity (e.g delta waves <4Hz)

2. Desynchronised or REM sleep

  • REM = rapid eye movement.
  • Every 90-120 minutes.
  • High frequency activity in EEG (like waking state).
  • Also called paradoxical sleep.
  • Abolition of muscle tone
  • Associated with dreams.
33
Q

What are the common/rare disorders of sleep?

A

Common Disorders:

- Psychiatric conditions including anxiety

  • Indicators of other conditions:
  • Orthopnea (shortness of breath)
  • Enuresis (bladder control)
  • Epilepsy (neuronal siezures).

Rare Disorders:

- Narcolepsy - spontaneous transition from wakefulness to REM sleep, caused by mutation of orexin receptor gene.

34
Q

What are the consequences of sleep[ deprivation?

A

Short Term:

- Slower reflexes

  • Memory disorders
  • Muscle fatigue
  • Mood Swings
  • Aggressive Behaviour
  • Disorientation
  • Hallucinations

Long Term (chronic)

  • Obesity
  • Diabetes
  • High Blood Pressure
35
Q

Summarise the circadian rhythm.

A
  • Neurons in the retina project to the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus.
  • SCN inntervates multiple nearby structures setting up a ‘biological clock’
  • SCN secretes neuropteptides vasopressin (to local brain areas only)
  • Indirectly modules the pineal gland which secretes melatonin, a sleep promoting neurohormone.