Congress at Work Flashcards

1
Q
A committee that exists permanently in either the House of Representatives or the Senate is called a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
permanent committee
B.
long-term committee
C.
standing committee
D.
enduring committee
A

C.

standing committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Senator Robert Byrd from West Virginia passed away on June 28, 2010. He was still a serving Senator in West Virginia. Which of the following is a valid next step for the senatorial seat that he left empty?
A.
leave the seat empty for the remainder of his term, leaving West Virginia with only one Senate vote
B.
have the governor install an interim senator
C.
leave the seat empty for the remainder of his term, but give the remaining West Virginia senator two Senate votes
D.
have the President of the United states install an interim senator

A

B.

have the governor install an interim senator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
Congressman Allan Derulo was elected as a representative to a state’s 41st district in November of 2010. If he wishes to serve again, when must he win re-election?
A.
November 2011
B.
November 2012
C.
November 2013
D.
November 2014
A

B.

November 2012

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

On April 20, 2010, an explosion on the Deepwater Horizon oil rig caused oil to begin gushing into the Gulf of Mexico. Soon thereafter, a committee was formed to investigate. These types of temporary committees are known as __________.

A.
select committees
B.
short-term committees
C.
limited committees
D.
drafting committees
A

A.

select committees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All of the following are true of the United States Senate EXCEPT:

A.
The President of the Senate is the Vice President of the United States.
B.
Each state is represented by two individuals elected to the Senate.
C.
Senators vote on who should fill vacant seats within the Senate.
D.
You must be at least 30 years old to be eligible for election into the Senate.

A

C.

Senators vote on who should fill vacant seats within the Senate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A Congressional session is when members of congress come together to perform their legislative duties. How many Congressional sessions are there per two-year term?

A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
5
A

A.

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
As citizens, we do not vote on all legislation directly. We appoint politicians to discuss, debate, and vote on new laws for us. This type of democracy is known as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
direct democracy
B.
partial democracy
C.
classic democracy
D.
representative democracy
A

D.

representative democracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
Which of the following BEST represents the place of Congress in the three branches of government?
A.
chart A
B.
chart B
C.
chart C
D.
chart D
A

C.

chart C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
Before 1913 and the passage of the 17th Amendment, Senators were elected by state legislatures. Who has the power to elect Senators today?
A.
voters
B.
Congress
C.
the president
D.
the Senate
A

A.

voters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
Which of the following types of legislation must begin in the House of Representatives?
A.
revenue bills
B.
treaties
C.
impeachments
D.
new laws
A

A.

revenue bills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
If Congress decided to pass a law to eliminate the penny, this would be the use of a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ power.
A.
enumerated
B.
implied
C.
reserved
D.
concurrent
A

A.

enumerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
All of the following are examples of implied powers EXCEPT:
A.
creating an Air Force
B.
building and funding interstate highways
C.
regulating televisions broadcasting
D.
creating a national guard
A

D.

creating a national guard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Gibbons v. Ogden reinforced \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
the Bill of Rights
B.
the states’ authority over the federal government
C.
the federal government’s authority over states
D.
ex post facto laws
A

C.

the federal government’s authority over states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
Powers of Congress that are not specifically stated in the Constitution but are suggested by the elastic clause are known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
enumerated powers
B.
implied powers
C.
reserved powers
D.
concurrent powers
A

B.

implied powers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Congress may not suspend \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ unless a national crisis requires it.
A.
bills of attainder
B.
the Bill of Rights
C.
ex post facto laws
D.
habeas corpus
A

D.

habeas corpus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The Senate is given the responsibility of approving presidential nominations.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
Which of the following is a limitation on congressional power?
A.
granting patents and copyrights
B.
setting and collecting federal taxes
C.
regulating interstate trade
D.
taxing interstate trade
A

D.

taxing interstate trade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in the Constitution, outlines the limitations on congressional powers.
A.
Article I, Section 8
B.
Article I, Section 9
C.
Article II, Section 8
D.
Article III, Section 9
A

B.

Article I, Section 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
Which of the following responsibilities is ONLY given to the House of Representatives?
A.
making laws
B.
creating revenue bills
C.
approving treaties
D.
trying impeached officials
A

B.

creating revenue bills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ place(s) limitations on Congress when it comes to the rights of the citizens.
A.
The Bill of Rights
B.
Checks on the executive branch
C.
Checks on the judicial branch
D.
The elastic clause
A

A.

The Bill of Rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
Powers specifically outlined in the Constitution are known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
enumerated powers
B.
implied powers
C.
reserved powers
D.
concurrent powers
A

A.

enumerated powers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
All of the following are examples of enumerated powers EXCEPT:
A.
raising and supporting a military
B.
establishing a national banking system
C.
creating immigration policy
D.
regulating interstate trade
A

B.

establishing a national banking system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
Congress decides to pass a law that increases minimum wage, this is an example of using a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ power.
A.
enumerated
B.
implied
C.
reserved
D.
concurrent
A

B.

implied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
Which congressional chamber has the power to override a presidential veto?
A.
both chambers
B.
the House of Representatives
C.
the Senate
D.
neither, only the judicial branch can override a veto
A

A.

both chambers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
This power allows Congress to check on how the executive branch is administering the law.
a.
impoundment
c.
immunity
b.
legislative oversight
d.
impeachment
A

b.

legislative oversight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What was the outcome of Watkins v United States?
a.
Congress did not have to respect witness’ rights.
c.
Witnesses must testify but could not have a lawyer present.
b.
The Constitution gave witnesses minimal rights.
d.
Congress must respect witness’ rights just as a court would.

A

d.

Congress must respect witness’ rights just as a court would.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

a witness lying under oath

A

perjury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In the landmark case, Wakins v. United States, the Supreme Court ruled

a.
that Congress must respect the rights of the witness during investigations.

c.
that there would not be an appeals process for Congressional court cases.

b.
that Congress and the civilian courts do not have to follow the same witness rights procedures.

d.
that government officials did not have the same rights as a civilians.

A

a.

that Congress must respect the rights of the witness during investigations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
A legal order that a person appear in court or produce requested documents is called
a.
immunity.
c.
writ of habeas corpus.
b.
contempt.
d.
subpoena.
A

d.

subpoena.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
Through this power, Congress can check on how the executive branch is administering the law.
a.
immunity
c.
perjury
b.
legislative oversight
d.
subpoena
A

b.

legislative oversight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
This action was found unconstitutional because it violated the separation of powers.
a.
legislative veto
c.
legislative powers
b.
presidential veto
d.
legislative override
A

a.

legislative veto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
How does the Congress keep track of federal finances?
a.
The GAO
c.
The IRS
b.
The FCC
d.
The FBI
A

a.

The GAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
Legislative oversight involves Congress taking a close look at the actions of:
a.
the judicial branch
c.
the media
b.
the executive branch
d.
corporate America
A

b.

the executive branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

punishment for refusal to testify

A

being held in contempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

For what purpose does the Constitution give Congress the power to regulate bankruptcy?
a.
to finance projects that current revenues cannot cover
b.
to establish uniform procedures for dealing with insolvent debtors
c.
to coin money and regulate its value
d.
to act on matters affecting the nation’s security

A

b.

to establish uniform procedures for dealing with insolvent debtors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

a legal proceeding for distributing to creditors the assets of those unable to pay their debts

A

bankruptcy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The ____ authorizes Congress to regulate all commercial interactions between the States.

A

commerce power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
Per the Constitution, Congress is able to exercise "commerce power" when it comes to
a.
the taxing of exports.
c.
favoring ports in one state over another.
b.
regulating interstate and foreign trade
d.
requiring duties.
A

b.

regulating interstate and foreign trade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is deficit financing?
a.
The nation is making more money than it spends.
c.
The nation is making less money than it is spending requiring the government to borrow money.
b.
The nation is balanced in the budget.
d.
The nation is printing more money so they can balance the budget.

A

c.

The nation is making less money than it is spending requiring the government to borrow money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is public debt?
a.
money borrowed but paid back in partial payment
c.
money borrowed but paid back in full
b.
money borrowed but not paid back and incurring interest
d.
money borrowed but not paid back but the interest is paid in full

A

b.

money borrowed but not paid back and incurring interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
The deficit is always \_\_\_\_\_ than the public debt.
a.
larger
b.
smaller
c.
harder to calculate
d.
less subject to governmental limits
A

b.

smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
Which of the following powers could Congress use to help protect American car makers from foreign competition?
a.
the currency power
b.
the power of eminent domain
c.
the power to borrow
d.
the power to tax
A

d.

the power to tax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Some country doctors once accepted livestock as payment for medical bills, but most creditors today demand to be paid in ____.

A

legal tender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A(n) ____ is a monetary sum first paid by one person and then passed on to another.

A

indirect tax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following would BEST fit into the category of a “revenue” bill?
A.
a new law against smoking in public
B.
a new law proposed to increase federal income taxes
C.
a new law proposed to increase the size of the military
D.
a new law requiring all states to prohibit texting while driving

A

B.

a new law proposed to increase federal income taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
Which of the following would BEST fit into the category of a “social” bill?      
A.
a new law against public smoking
B.
a new law for military spending
C.
a new law for taxing American citizens
D.
a new law for funding welfare programs
A

A.

a new law against public smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
Bills can be proposed in many areas as long as the do not violate the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
Declaration of Independence
B.
Articles of the Confederation
C.
Constitution
D.
Connecticut Compromise
A

C.

Constitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
Before a bill makes it to the floor of Congress, it must first pass through \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and smaller \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that look at the bill in detail.
A.
committees . . . subcommittees
B.
subcommittees . . . committees
C.
councils . . . committees
D.
panels . . . councils
A

A.

committees . . . subcommittees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Bills are referred by the __________ in the House of Representatives and the __________ in the Senate.
A.
president . . . vice president
B.
speaker of the House . . . presiding officer
C.
speaker of the House . . . Senate majority leader
D.
president . . . Senate majority leader

A

B.

speaker of the House . . . presiding officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

If a committee agrees to a “markup session” for a bill, this means that __________.
A.
committees are going to approve the bill and send it to the president for signing
B.
committees are going to amend the proposed bill
C.
the president is going to sign the bill in a ceremony with its sponsors
D.
a committee is sending it back down to a subcommittee for approval

A

B.

committees are going to amend the proposed bill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
When a bill is voted on in Congress, all of the following are actions that can be taken on the bill EXCEPT:
A.
approve
B.
send back to committee
C.
deny
D.
drop
A

D.

drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
A pocket-veto can be used by the president only if a bill is presented to him \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ days or less before Congress goes on recess.      
A.
ten
B.
six
C.
seven
D.
eight
A

A.

ten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
In order to stall a vote on a particular bill, a senator speaks at the Senate for a prolonged period. This political tactic is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
gerrymandering
B.
blustering
C.
filibustering
D.
distracting
A

C.

filibustering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
All new bills are given a letter and number code; following their coding, they are then \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to committees for closer inspection.
A.
passed along
B.
referred
C.
directed
D.
dropped
A

B.

referred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

a charge levied by the government, to be paid only by the person on whom it is imposed

A

direct tax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the duties of person staff members in Congress, both as an administrative and legal staff and as a staff member in the field?

A

As an administrative, legal, and field staff, one is responsible for many duties. A staff members’ biggest duty is to help read and write legislation. Representatives do not have time to read and write everything for themselves, so the staff’s job is to go through much of the material and summarize it for them. In the role of field staff, one will be in charge of running the home office of the Congress member in his/her district. The field staff is in charge of all of the staff in this office, and communicating local concerns to the representative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
Before a bill is sent to the White House for the president’s signature, it must first \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
pass both houses in the same form
B.
pass both houses with a super majority
C.
pass the House of Representatives only
D.
pass the Senate only
A

A.

pass both houses in the same form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Summarize how the Virginia Plan and New Jersey Plan resulted in the Connecticut Compromise and describe the concept of a bicameral legislature.

A

The Connecticut Compromise represents the bringing together of two plans: one presented by the representatives from New Jersey and the other from the representatives in Virginia. The Virginia Plan called for representation of Congress based on state population only. That is, the higher a state’s population, the more representatives it would get. The Virginia Plan also proposed a bicameral legislature. This means that Congress would be composed of two houses. In contrast, the New Jersey plan called for a unicameral (or one house) legislature where representation for the states is equal, regardless of population. The Compromise brought these two plans together. The legislatures of the House of Representatives and the Senate compose the United States Congress, and they both have a different style of representation. The House of Representatives representation is based on population, and the Senate has a consistent number of representatives from each state (2) regardless of size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
Congressional committees may punish people who refuse to testify by
a.
holding them in contempt.
c.
arresting them for perjury.
b.
issuing a subpoena.
d.
giving them immunity.
A

a.

holding them in contempt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

If the President of the United States were accused of accepting bribes while in office what power does Congress have to bring charges against him? What are the specific responsibilities of the House of Representatives and the Senate?

A

Both the House of Representatives and the Senate have the power to remove political officials from office, including the President of the United States. In order to do this, the House of Representatives must first bring formal charges against a politician. If these charges stand, the Senate will try the politician and carefully look at the charges and evidence. The entire process is called impeachment. Any politician can be impeached, but impeachment doesn’t necessarily mean a politician will be removed from office. Removal usually occurs, however, if the politician is found guilty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The president, Congress members, lobbies, and even private citizens can propose legislations, but they do so in different ways. Discuss the different ways that these people or groups can suggest a new bill.

A

The president can suggest new bills through political connections or in public speeches like the State of the Union Address. Lobbies are groups that meet with political figures to try to influence political decision making. Lobbies can influence the creation of legislation through simple meetings or they can form Political Action Committees and raise money for a candidate who promises to support their cause. Any private citizen can also start a campaign for a new bill, though the road is longer. For a citizen, the process starts by meeting with a Congress member, either a representative or a senator, to discuss the reasons for a new bill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Compare and contrast the two vetoes that the President of the United States can use to reject legislation.

A

The first type of veto the president can use is a traditional veto. When using this veto, the president sends the bill back to Congress while explaining the reasons he is refusing to sign the bill. The second type of veto is known as a pocket-veto. The pocket-veto is less formal, and can only be used if the president is given a bill to sign ten days or less from the Congressional recess. Since the president is given ten days to sign a bill, he can ignore or “pocket” the bill and it will be automatically vetoed. With a pocket veto, the president does not give his reasons for ignoring the bill. The advantage to the pocket-veto is that it will not be immediately sent back to Congress for an override vote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Senatorial elections are not held at the end of every six-year term. They are actually scattered over the six-year term so that not all Senators are up for re-election in the same year. How are Senatorial elections spread out?
A.
Approximately 1/6 of Senators are up for re-election every year.
B.
Approximately 1/3 of Senators are up for re-election every two years.
C.
Approximately 2/3 of Senators are up for re-election every three years.
D.
Approximately 1/2 of Senators are up for re-election every three years.

A

B.

Approximately 1/3 of Senators are up for re-election every two years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following was passed by Congress in 1978 as part of the Independent Counsel in an attempt to ensure that allegations of wrongdoings by high government officials would receive fair investigation?

a. Legislative Veto Act
b. Independent Counsel Act
c. Ethics in Government Act
d. Legislative Oversight Act

A

c. Ethics in Government Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which of the following accurately explains how Section 4 of the 25th Amendment could be applied to remove the president from office?
A.
Congress must draft a letter to the president explaining why he is being removed from office.
B.
Congress must draft a letter to the vice president explaining why the president is unfit for office.
C.
The vice president or members of the cabinet must submit a letter to Congress explaining why the president is unfit for office.
D.
The vice president must notify the president’s cabinet members and the Supreme Court that he will be assuming the office of the president.

A

C.
The vice president or members of the cabinet must submit a letter to Congress explaining why the president is unfit for office.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Explain why the 25th Amendment was needed and ultimately proved to be important.

A

The 25th Amendment was needed because before it was created, the position of vice president was left vacant 18 times because there was no procedure to name a new vice president. It ultimately proved to be important because it was used several times after it was created.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which of the following BEST summarizes Section 1 of the 25th Amendment?
A.
In the case that the president is temporarily disabled, the vice president assumes the office of the president.
B.
If the office for the vice president is for any reason left vacant, the president appoints a new vice president to be confirmed by a majority vote in Congress.
C.
If the president dies, resigns, or is removed from office by impeachment, the vice president assumes the office of president.
D.
In the case that the president is incapable of fulfilling his or her duties, the vice president and cabinet members may submit a letter to Congress, relieving the president from his or her duties.

A

C.
If the president dies, resigns, or is removed from office by impeachment, the vice president assumes the office of president.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which of the following is not true about the 25th Amendment?
A.
It outlines procedures for filling a vacancy in the office of the vice president.
B.
It provides a means of removing certain legislators from the House and the Senate.
C.
It provides a procedure for temporarily filling the office of the president in the case of disability.
D.
It outlines procedures for removing the president from office if he or she is incapable of fulfilling his or her duties.

A

B.

It provides a means of removing certain legislators from the House and the Senate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Explain the difference between the 20th and 25th Amendments.

A

The 20th Amendment states that the vice president-elect is to replace the president-elect in the event that he or she is incapable of assuming the office. The 25th Amendment, on the other hand, explicitly outlines what is to occur in the event the presidency or vice presidency is vacant. The difference, clearly, is that the 20th Amendment is narrowly tailored to replace a president-elect prior to assuming office.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In which of the following scenarios would Section 4 of the 25th Amendment most likely be utilized?
A.
President Z will be disabled for three days due to a surgical procedure.
B.
President Y was recently caught in a money laundering scandal and was forced to resign from office.
C.
Vice President Q was forced into resignation after withholding evidence from a Congressional investigation into his tax history.
D.
Having been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease after the election, President X is rapidly losing his memory and suffering from paranoia, making it difficult to perform his duties.

A

D.
Having been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease after the election, President X is rapidly losing his memory and suffering from paranoia, making it difficult to perform his duties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Hypothetical: President Obama is diagnosed with schizophrenia, a debilitating mental disorder that disrupts the process of thinking and perception of reality. Vice President Biden and the President’s cabinet are in unanimous agreement that President Obama is unfit for duty as the President of the United States. Describe the process by which the Vice President and cabinet may remove the President from office.

A

Firstly, VP Biden and the cabinet will submit a letter to Congress explaining why they believe that President Obama is incapable of performing his duties as president. After submitting the letter, VP Biden will immediately assume the duties of President.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Describe circumstances under which the 25th Amendment was twice enacted during the Nixon Administration.

A

Section 2 of the 25th Amendment was used by President Nixon when his VP, Spiro Agnew resigned and President Nixon nominated Gerald Ford. Ford became VP after the confirmation with Congress. Section 1 of the 25th Amendment was used when President Nixon resigned and VP Ford assumes the duties of president.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Explain why the roles and responsibilities of the vice president may change from administration to administration.

A

The roles and responsibilities of vice president may change from administration to administration because the power of the vice president comes from the president. Each president works in a different way, hence, the responsibilities of their respective VPs will also be different.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Prior to the passage of the 25th Amendment, if a vice president left office, __________.
A.
the president would appoint someone to the office
B.
Congress would vote on a cabinet member to the office
C.
the office would remain vacant until the next presidential election
D.
there would be a public vote to decide who would assume the office

A

C.

the office would remain vacant until the next presidential election

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Per Section 2 of the 25th Amendment, what condition must be met prior to the confirmation of a new vice president?
A.
The Supreme Court must confirm the nominee.
B.
Congress must approve of the nominee with a two-thirds vote.
C.
Congress must interview and approve the nominee with a majority vote.
D.
The president must present the vice president to the general public in an official announcement.

A

C.

Congress must interview and approve the nominee with a majority vote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
The vice president \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which means that no senator addresses the Senate floor without formal recognition from the vice president (or president pro tempore). He also enforces and often interprets the rules and procedures of the Senate.
A.
presides over the Senate
B.
always leads debate in the Senate
C.
endorses one side of the Senate debate
D.
decides the winners and losers in Senate debates
A

A.

presides over the Senate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Vice President Dick Cheney was called upon to temporarily assume the office of president when __________.
A.
President Bush was on vacation at Camp David
B.
he was sent on diplomatic missions in the Middle East
C.
President Bush attended his impeachment hearings in joint sessions of Congress
D.
President Bush, on two occasions, had to undergo surgical procedures

A

D.

President Bush, on two occasions, had to undergo surgical procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
The office of the vice president was left vacant 18 times because there were no formal \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for naming someone to assume the office.
A.
charters
B.
formulas
C.
contracts
D.
procedures
A

D.

procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Under which of the following scenarios would it be appropriate for the vice president to assume the office of the president?
A.
President Obama travels to Nova Scotia to vacation with his family.
B.
President Obama must resign amid charges of fraud and tax evasion.
C.
President Obama falls ill to chronic pneumonia and must cancel his diplomatic trip to Turkey, sending Vice President Biden instead.
D.
President Obama must attend to his reelection campaign trail, requiring him to give speeches across the country, leaving Vice President Biden to attend to the President’s duties.

A

B.

President Obama must resign amid charges of fraud and tax evasion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following BEST explains why the 25th Amendment was first used?
A.
It was used to fill the vacant office of the president after the death of President William Henry Harrison.
B.
It was used to fill the vacancy left after the resignation of Vice President Agnew during the Nixon Administration.
C.
After the resignation of President Nixon, the 25th Amendment was used to place Vice President Gerald Ford in the office of the president.
D.
After President Kennedy was assassinated, the 25th Amendment was used to place Vice President Lyndon Johnson in the office of the president.

A

B.

It was used to fill the vacancy left after the resignation of Vice President Agnew during the Nixon Administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of the role of the vice president as the president of the Senate?
A.
The vice president casts his vote only on important legislation.
B.
The vice president will occasionally preside over important Senate meetings.
C.
The vice president’s role as the president of the Senate is not specifially stated in the Constitution.
D.
The vice president is taken to a secret hideout during the president’s State of the Union Address.

A

B.

The vice president will occasionally preside over important Senate meetings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which of the following BEST explains why President Lyndon Johnson, subsequent to President Kennedy’s assassination, did not have the support of a vice president?
A.
His vice president proved to be too inexperienced to perform his duties.
B.
His vice president had to resign immediately due to allegations of tax evasion.
C.
The office remained vacant because there were no procedures for naming a new vice president.
D.
While the 25th Amendment allowed President Johnson to appoint a vice president, his nominee was tied up in Congressional hearings and interviews for most of Johnson’s first term.

A

C.

The office remained vacant because there were no procedures for naming a new vice president.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

After Vice President Spiro Agnew resigned from his office, Gerald Ford became the new vice president because of Section 2 of the 25th Amendment. This section allows the president to __________.
A.
nominate a new vice president to be approved by Congress
B.
call for a new presidential election
C.
choose a new vice president without Congressional approval
D.
approve Congress’ nomination for a new vice president

A

A.

nominate a new vice president to be approved by Congress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Led by the Secretary of State, the Department of State is charged with __________.

A.
protecting citizens against foreign and domestic terror threats
B.
maintaining military equipment and facilities for US military bases all over the world
C.
managing our country’s finances and overseeing the credit and recovery industry
D.
fostering positive relationships with other countries while promoting American ideals

A

D.

fostering positive relationships with other countries while promoting American ideals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the origin of the presidential Cabinet?
A.
The Cabinet was created by Article I, Section 3 of the Constitution and was first used by President George Washington.
B.
The Cabinet was created by the Constitution and was first used by President John Quincy Adams.
C.
The Cabinet was created by Article II, Section 2 of the Constitution and was first used by President George Washington.
D.
The Cabinet was created by the 12th Amendment and was first used by President George Washington.

A

C.

The Cabinet was created by Article II, Section 2 of the Constitution and was first used by President George Washington.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The following question refers to a hypothetical situation.
President Obama has a Cabinet meeting scheduled next week in which the federal budget will be the principal topic of discussion. Whom might the president request to attend, in addition to the vice president and the department secretaries?

A.
his wife, the First Lady
B.
the secretary of agriculture
C.
the department manager of the Office of Labor
D.
the director of the Office of Management and Budget
A

D.

the director of the Office of Management and Budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The __________ is responsible for monitoring and maintaining the interstate highway system.

A.
Office of Planes, Trains, and Automobiles
B.
Department of Labor
C.
Department of Transportation
D.
Office of Budget and Management
A

C.

Department of Transportation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which of the following BEST summarizes the duties and responsibilities of the Department of the Interior?

A.
to protect our natural resources, administer the national parks system, and enforce federal tribal laws through the Bureau of Indian Affairs
B.
in charge of food safety, meat and plant production for human consumption, and developing and exploring new technologies in farming, pesticides, ranching and agricultural production
C.
to manage our country’s finances, help in setting the interest rates on loans, help enforce identity protection laws, and oversee the credit industry
D.
to foster positive relationships with other countries while promoting the ideals of freedom, democracy, and personal choice

A

A.
to protect our natural resources, administer the national parks system, and enforce federal tribal laws through the Bureau of Indian Affairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which of the following executive departments administers federal tribal laws?

A.
Department of Homeland Security
B.
Department of the Interior
C.
Department of State
D.
Department of Native American Affairs
A

B.

Department of the Interior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

President of the United States has scheduled a Cabinet meeting today to discuss energy policy with specific focus on pollution and global warming. Given what you know of the executive branch, which group of attendees would the president most likely expect to provide up-to-date information and expert insight during this meeting?

A.
the secretary of state, the director of Environmental Protection Agency, and the White House chief of staff
B.
the director of the Environmental Protection Agency, the chairperson of the Council on Environmental Quality, and the secretary of energy
C.
the chairperson of the Council on Environmental Quality, the secretary of defense, and the Department of Homeland Security
D.
the director of the Environmental Protection Agency, the secretary of energy, and the chairperson of the National Security Council

A

B.
the director of the Environmental Protection Agency, the chairperson of the Council on Environmental Quality, and the secretary of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The Executive Office of the President consists of __________.

A.
two advisory councils, three offices, and White House and Residence staff
B.
three advisory councils, six offices, and White House and Residence staff
C.
eight offices and a White House staff
D.
six advisory councils, three offices, and White House and Residence staff

A

B.

three advisory councils, six offices, and White House and Residence staff

92
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the Executive office of the President?

A.
Office of the First Lady
B.
Office of the Vice President
C.
Department of the Interior
D.
Council of Economic Advisors
A

D.

Council of Economic Advisors

93
Q

Polls show that the country overwhelmingly agrees that we need a high-speed rail system to connect the east and west coasts and everything in between. The president schedules a Cabinet meeting to discuss whether or not the project can be included in the federal budget. Given this information, which non-permanent Cabinet member would most likely be asked to attend the meeting?

A.
secretary of transportation
B.
secretary of the interior
C.
chairperson of the Council of Economic Advisors
D.
director of the Office of Budget and Management
A

D.

director of the Office of Budget and Management

94
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the purposes of the 14 executive departments?
A.
to create and enforce the laws in their given areas, implement those new laws, and report their progress to the president
B.
to provide the president with information, administer programs, and carry out the laws instituted by Congress in their particular area
C.
to interpret the laws in their particular areas and change the laws as needed in order to keep up with the needs of society
D.
to write laws for their particular areas of focus and ensure that the president duly enforces the laws

A

B.
to provide the president with information, administer programs, and carry out the laws instituted by Congress in their particular area

95
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the shared responsibilities between the Departments of Justice and Homeland Security?

A.
Both departments are charged with ensuring that federal laws are enforced.
B.
Both departments are charged with representing the federal government in federal court.
C.
Both departments share responsibility in protecting citizens from terrorist threats.
D.
Both departments share the responsibility of representing the US in foreign countries.

A

C.

Both departments share responsibility in protecting citizens from terrorist threats.

96
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered an “as-needed” Cabinet member?
A.
administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency
B.
director of the Office of Budget and Management
C.
White House chief of staff
D.
attorney general of the United States

A

D.

attorney general of the United States

97
Q
Whom might the president request to attend a Cabinet meeting to discuss trade regulations and opportunities in Southeast Asia?
A.
secretary of defense
B.
director of the Council on Environmental Quality
C.
US Trade Representative ambassador
D.
secretary of labor
A

C.

US Trade Representative ambassador

98
Q

The __________ is in charge of food safety, meat and plant production for human consumption, and developing and exploring new technologies in farming and ranching.

A.
Department of Agriculture
B.
Council on Environmental Quality
C.
Department of Homeland Security
D.
Department of the Interior
A

A.

Department of Agriculture

99
Q
Which regulatory commission is responsible for investigating work-related safety concerns?
A.
Merit Systems Protection Board
B.
Federal Communications Commission
C.
Consumer Product Safety Commission
D.
Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission
A

D.

Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission

100
Q
The Commodities Futures Trade Commission is in charge of regulating the trade of commodities. What are commodities?
A.
live animals and exotic wildlife
B.
any stone used for making jewelry
C.
barrels of oil used to make gasoline
D.
a raw material or agricultural product that can be bought and sold
A

D.

a raw material or agricultural product that can be bought and sold

101
Q

Which of the following are agencies concerned with preserving and promoting the development of American culture?
i. National Aeronautics and Space Association
ii. National Endowment for the Arts
iii. National Archives and Records Administration
iv. National Endowment for the Humanities
A.
i and iv only
B.
i, ii, and iv only
C.
i, ii, and iii only
D.
ii, iii, and iv only

A

D.

ii, iii, and iv only

102
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the Merit Systems Protection Board?
A.
to determine salaries for all government officials
B.
to coordinate local, state, and national police forces
C.
to connect all networked computers into government mainframes
D.
to make sure hiring and promotion of employees is handled fairly and responsibly

A

D.

to make sure hiring and promotion of employees is handled fairly and responsibly

103
Q
Dr. Albert Weinstein received a call to inform him that he and his university will be awarded a grant for his work on cancer research. Which independent agency is known for awarding grants to colleges and universities for scientific pursuits?
A.
NASA
B.
National Science Foundation
C.
Environmental Protection Agency
D.
Advisory Council on Historic Preservation
A

B.

National Science Foundation

104
Q

The structure of the federal bureaucracy is well-known as being large and complex. Which of the following is NOT part of the federal bureaucracy?
A.
the Senate
B.
United States Postal Service (USPS)
C.
the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
D.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)

A

A.

the Senate

105
Q
The administrators of regulatory commissions are always appointed by whom?
A.
attorney general
B.
US secretary of state
C.
President of the United States
D.
vice president of the United States
A

C.

President of the United States

106
Q
Which commission is responsible for regulating banks and setting interest rates for loans?
A.
Federal Reserve Board
B.
Securities and Exchange Commission
C.
Federal Communications Commission
D.
Commodities Futures Trading Commission
A

A.

Federal Reserve Board

107
Q
Which of the following is NOT a commission concerned with regulating investments?
A.
Federal Reserve Board
B.
Securities and Exchange Commission
C.
Federal Communications Commission
D.
Commodities Futures Trading Commission
A

C.

Federal Communications Commission

108
Q
Although they are created by Congress, an independent agency is defined as independent because it does not operate within the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ structure.
A.
federal
B.
Cabinet
C.
national
D.
government
A

B.

Cabinet

109
Q

The Office of Management and Budget __________.

A.
ensures that state governments do not spend outside of their budget
B.
checks the power of the president by limiting the money he/she can spend on programs
C.
oversees the preparation of the federal budget
D.
is part of the legislative branch of the federal government

A

C.

oversees the preparation of the federal budget

110
Q

Which of the following BEST explains the difference between the executive departments and the Executive Office of the President?
A.
The Executive Office of the President mainly advises and supports the president’s decision making, while the executive departments are charged with administering programs and enforcing laws instituted by Congress.
B.
The Executive Office of the President is charged with enforcing the laws instituted by Congress, while the executive departments are responsible for providing current information to the president.
C.
The Executive Office of the President is responsible for drafting bills to send to Congress, while the executive departments are charged with enforcing the laws once Congress passes them.
D.
The Executive Office of the President advises the president in his decision making, while the executive departments write laws and send them to the president to sign.

A

A.
The Executive Office of the President mainly advises and supports the president’s decision making, while the executive departments are charged with administering programs and enforcing laws instituted by Congress.

111
Q

The __________ is responsible for monitoring and maintaining the interstate highway system.

A.
Office of Planes, Trains, and Automobiles
B.
Department of Labor
C.
Department of Transportation
D.
Office of Budget and Management
A

C.

Department of Transportation

112
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the Executive office of the President?

A.
Office of the First Lady
B.
Office of the Vice President
C.
Department of the Interior
D.
Council of Economic Advisors
A

C.

Department of the Interior

113
Q

Should there be a(n) __________ leaving the president, vice president, speaker of the House, and president pro tempore unable to assume the duties of the president, the Cabinet represents __________.
A.
catastrophe . . . the presidential order of succession
B.
security threat . . . the body that appoints a new president to office
C.
catastrophe . . . the office of the president until a new president is elected
D.
security threat . . . the supreme authority in government until the threat is eliminated

A

A.

catastrophe . . . the presidential order of succession

114
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the origin of the presidential Cabinet?
A.
The Cabinet was created by Article I, Section 3 of the Constitution and was first used by President George Washington.
B.
The Cabinet was created by the Constitution and was first used by President John Quincy Adams.
C.
The Cabinet was created by Article II, Section 2 of the Constitution and was first used by President George Washington.
D.
The Cabinet was created by the 12th Amendment and was first used by President George Washington.

A

C.

The Cabinet was created by Article II, Section 2 of the Constitution and was first used by President George Washington.

115
Q
Today, the highest-ranking member of the president’s Cabinet is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
secretary of state
B.
vice president
C.
White House chief of staff
D.
Council of Economic Advisors chairperson
A

B.

vice president

116
Q
Any president has the power to modify current laws. In order to do this, he/she must issue a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ order.
A.
judicial
B.
executive
C.
imperative
D.
legislative
A

B.

executive

117
Q
When the president delivers the State of the Union address, he/she has two primary audiences. They are the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
vice president . . . Congress
B.
Senate . . . House of Representatives
C.
United States government . . . citizens
D.
foreign governments . . . vice president
A

C.

United States government . . . citizens

118
Q

The president must do which of the following in order to exercise the standard veto?
A.
veto only the parts of the bill that he/she does not like
B.
write an official note to Congress stating his objections
C.
call a special joint session of Congress to discuss his objections
D.
ignore the bill until Congress dismisses from their current session

A

B.

write an official note to Congress stating his objections

119
Q
The State of the Union address is given to a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ session of Congress.
A.
joint
B.
special
C.
conjoined
D.
connected
A

A.

joint

120
Q

The case of Warner Bros. Entertainment Inc. and J.K. Rowling v. RDR Books and Does 1-10 is NOT an example of civil case because it is not one individual suing another individual.

A

false

121
Q
Gina Brown injures herself on a saw left on the sidewalk of a neighbor's house.  She sues the neighbor, James Blue, for negligence. The title of this \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ lawsuit would be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A.
civil, James Blue v. Gina Brown
B.
criminal, Gina Brown v. James Blue
C.
civil, Gina Brown v. James Blue
D.
criminal, James Blue v. Gina Brown
A

C.

civil, Gina Brown v. James Blue

122
Q
Despite his many violent criminal activities, The United States of America v. Alphonso Capone eventually ended in Capone’s conviction for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
murder
B.
aggravated assault
C.
tax evasion
D.
negligence
A

C.

tax evasion

123
Q
Which of the following is not considered a “victimless” crime against society?
A.
illegal downloads of copyrighted material
B.
prostitution
C.
illegal gambling
D.
substance abuse and public intoxication
A

A.

illegal downloads of copyrighted material

124
Q
The illegal download of copyrighted materials (movies, music, books) by an individual is an example of what kind of criminal activity?
A.
white-collar crime
B.
cybercrime
C.
organized crime
D.
cyber-vandalism
A

B.

cybercrime

125
Q

Differentiate between a misdemeanor and a felony offense.

A

A misdemeanor is a minor violation such as a monetary fine and less than a year imprisonment. A felony is a serious felony and it is an imprisonment for more than a year and possibly the death penalty.

126
Q

Compare and contrast civil lawsuit and a criminal case.

A

In a civil lawsuit, a plaintiff files a lawsuit whereas in a criminal case, a criminal case is taken on by society. In a civil lawsuit, the person being sued is the defendant whereas in a criminal case, the alleged criminal is the defendant.

127
Q

Define “violent crime” and “property crime” and give an example of each.

A

Violent crimes are acts of harm or death to another person such as aggravated assault, forcible rape, hate crimes, or homicide. A property crime causes someone to lose something of value and the most common are larceny, burglary, motor vehicle theft, and vandalism.

128
Q

Describe the difference in the purpose and naming process of a criminal case and a civil case.

A

The purpose of a criminal case is punishment whereas the purpose of a civil case is compensation for injuries or damages.

129
Q

Explain the four types of legal wrongs in civil law and give an example of each.

A

The four types of legal wrongs in civil law are torts, warranties, contract, and family matters. Torts is when one person violates a legal duty causing injury to another person. Warranty is when a producer does not live up to their end of a deal in regards to the quality of their products/services. Contract is when an agreement between two or more parties are broken. Family matters are issues that cannot be fixed in homes and end up in the courtroom.

130
Q

Which of the following is an example of organized crime?
A.
When two people conspire to break into the house of a wealthy neighbor.
B.
A group of individuals who obtain money from local businesses by using intimidation.
C.
One man creates a software program that steals money from his companies business transactions.
D.
A group of teenagers assaults a man in an alley and steals his wallet.

A

B.
A group of individuals who obtain money from local businesses by using intimidation.

probably

131
Q

Which of the following newspaper headlines is an example of white collar crime?
A.
“Man charged with aggravated assault and burglary”
B.
“Businessman charged with embezzling funds from corporate accounts”
C.
“Wealthy executive charged with child abuse”
D.
“Local Mob Boss charged with extortion, homicide, and grand larceny”

A

B.

“Businessman charged with embezzling funds from corporate accounts”

132
Q

A police officer is dispatched to Union St. When he arrives to the home, it is reported to him by neighbors that a husband was abusing his wife. The wife confirms the story, and the husband is arrested shortly thereafter. Which of the following is TRUE about the case that would follow?
A.
When the husband is charged, the case would be a criminal case.
B.
The wife gets charged, and the case would be a civil case.
C.
When the husband is charged, the charge would be homicide.
D.
When the husband is charged, he would likely be charged under tort laws for negligence

A

A.

When the husband is charged, the case would be a criminal case.

133
Q

Which of the following is not a true statement about criminal cases?
A.
In a criminal case, the victim must pay for their own attorney.
B.
The objective of a criminal case is punishment.
C.
A criminal can be charged with the following two types of offenses: misdemeanors or felonies.
D.
In naming a criminal case, it is always Society v. Defendant.

A

A.

In a criminal case, the victim must pay for their own attorney.

134
Q
In a civil lawsuit, the objective of the plaintiff is to acquire \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
compensation, damages
B.
minor jail time, damages
C.
major jail time, felony conviction
D.
compensation, criminal offense
A

A.

compensation, damages

135
Q
Landry, a twenty-five year old man, notices that a woman left her wallet at a table in a coffee shop. He steals the wallet and all of the money inside. Of which crime is Landry guilty?
A.
larceny
B.
assault
C.
burglary
D.
vandalism
A

A.

larceny

136
Q

Which of the following is an example of an act of vandalism?
A.
Two kids bully and injure another student.
B.
A bank robbery.
C.
A gang spray painting its gang symbol on public and private property.
D.
A man stealing and sharing corporate secrets with a rival company.

A

C.

A gang spray painting its gang symbol on public and private property.

137
Q
In a criminal case, Josephine Lawler was the victim of an aggravated assault on an Arizona highway by John Doe. Which of the following would be the most probable name of the court case?
A.
Josephine Lawler v. John Doe
B.
John Doe v. Josephine Lawler
C.
The State of Arizona v. Josephine Lawler
D.
The State of Arizona v. John Doe
A

B.

John Doe v. Josephine Lawler

138
Q

Although crimes can be committed against individuals, a crime is always considered a crime against society.

A

true

139
Q

Which of the following best defines the underlined word in the following sentence:

“Unsatisfied with their explanation, Technic Inc. sued Androchon Ltd. for breach of contract.”
A.
the act of failing to observe an agreement
B.
the act of following the terms of a contract
C.
the act of rewording a contract before it is signed by concerned parties
D.
the act of two parties agreeing to destroy a contract

A

A.

the act of failing to observe an agreement

140
Q

Which of the following BEST explains the difference between majority and concurring opinions?

A.
A majority opinion is the collective opinion of the majority, while the concurring opinion is the collective opinion of the minority or the losing side of a vote.
B.
A majority opinion reflects the opinion of the dissenters, while the concurring decision agrees with the dissenters, but for different reasons than the majority opinion.
C.
A majority opinion is the collective opinion of the winning side, while a concurring opinion agrees with the majority vote, but for different reasons than the majority opinion.
D.
A majority opinion reflects the opinion of the majority of Americans, while a concurring opinion reflects the opinion of the majority vote in a Supreme Court ruling.

A

C.
A majority opinion is the collective opinion of the winning side, while a concurring opinion agrees with the majority vote, but for different reasons than the majority opinion.

141
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about judicial review?

A.
It was established in the late 20th century.
B.
Judicial review is outlined in Article III of the Constitution.
C.
It provides the president a means of checking the power of the Supreme Court.
D.
The principle of judicial review is not in the Constitution.

A

D.

The principle of judicial review is not in the Constitution.

142
Q

Which of the following is a power of the president to check the Supreme Court?

A.
the power to strike down decisions of the Court if they are unconstitutional
B.
the power to appoint federal judges
C.
the power to confirm Supreme Court nominees
D.
the power to amend the Constitution
A

B.

the power to appoint federal judges

143
Q

Which of the following cases would the Court most likely grant a writ of certiorari?

A.
A case from the 13th circuit court in which the lower appellate court misapplied a maritime law.
B.
A case from an international tribunal in which the defendant, who was accused of terrorism in Malaysia, is of both American and Canadian citizenship.
C.
A case sent directly up from a district court in which the defendant, who was accused of murder, charges that the district court judge did not properly instruct the jury.
D.
A case involving an Indiana politician who violated Indiana law while in office.

A

A.

A case from the 13th circuit court in which the lower appellate court misapplied a maritime law.

144
Q

Which of the following is not TRUE about the Supreme Court?

A.
There is only one chief justice on the Court.
B.
There are eight associate justices on the Court.
C.
The chief justice is always the justice who has served the most years on the Court.
D.
The Supreme Court is the highest court in the land.

A

C.

The chief justice is always the justice who has served the most years on the Court.

145
Q

Which of the following BEST illustrates the process of the Supreme Court’s review of a case?
A.
a writ of certiorari is granted&raquo_space; lawyers on both sides prepare briefs and present oral arguments&raquo_space; justices hold a conference to form a majority vote&raquo_space; opinions are written
B.
lawyers on both sides prepare briefs and present oral arguments&raquo_space; a writ of certiorari is granted&raquo_space; justices hold a conference to form a majority vote&raquo_space; opinions are written
C.
opinions are written&raquo_space; a writ of certiorari is granted&raquo_space; lawyers on both sides prepare briefs and present oral arguments&raquo_space; justices hold a conference to form a majority vote
D.
a writ of certiorari is granted&raquo_space; lawyers on both sides prepare briefs and present oral arguments&raquo_space; opinions are written&raquo_space; justices hold a conference to form a majority vote

A

A.
a writ of certiorari is granted&raquo_space; lawyers on both sides prepare briefs and present oral arguments&raquo_space; justices hold a conference to form a majority vote&raquo_space; opinions are written

146
Q

Which of the following BEST explains the importance of Marbury v. Madison?

A.
It created the Supreme Court for the purpose of balancing the powers of the executive and legislative branches of government.
B.
It restricted the power of the Supreme Court from becoming too large.
C.
It gave more power to the federal courts of appeals so that they can now hear many more types of cases.
D.
It established the precedent of judicial review, which balances the powers of the executive and legislative branches of government.

A

D.
It established the precedent of judicial review, which balances the powers of the executive and legislative branches of government.

147
Q

Which of the following cases would the Supreme Court most likely hear?
A.
a criminal case in which a politician who was convicted of money laundering in a district court appeals to the Supreme Court for consideration
B.
an international case in which a French author plagiarized an American author, making a large fortune from book sales in France
C.
a civil suit between a divorced couple in which each is attempting to claim custody of their two children
D.
a federal case involving national security and the Constitutional powers of the president during times of emergency

A

D.

a federal case involving national security and the Constitutional powers of the president during times of emergency

148
Q

Most of the cases the Supreme Court chooses to review come from the __________.

A.
US Congress
B.
international tribunals
C.
lower courts
D.
state supreme courts
A

C.

lower courts

149
Q

Where does the Supreme Court derive its power and authority?

A.
Article II, Section 4 of the United States Constitution
B.
Article III of the United States Constitution
C.
the president of the United States
D.
the US House of Representatives
A

B.

Article III of the United States Constitution

150
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about the chief justice of the Supreme Court?
A.
He/she is the only justice who is allowed to write majority decisions.
B.
The chief justice administers the Presidential Oath of Office.
C.
He/she must always side with the majority in a Supreme Court decision.
D.
The chief justice has more power than the associate justices.

A

B.

The chief justice administers the Presidential Oath of Office.

151
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about a dissenting opinion?

A.
They usually form the majority opinion.
B.
They reflect an agreement with the majority vote, but they highlight the different reasons for reaching the same conclusion.
C.
More often than not, they are binding decisions.
D.
They are recorded in the Court’s formal records.

A

D.

They are recorded in the Court’s formal records.

152
Q

The Supreme Court may choose to remand a case, which means that __________.
A.
it sends the case back to the trial court or lower appellate court for further action
B.
it dismisses the case and the lower court decision stands
C.
it grants a writ of certiorari
D.
it cannot reach a majority vote on the case

A

A.

it sends the case back to the trial court or lower appellate court for further action

153
Q

Which of the following BEST describes what happens if the Supreme Court refuses to review a case?
A.
The decision must be sent to Congress to determine whether the defendant may receive a retrial.
B.
The defendant may be granted a retrial in a district court.
C.
The defendant may appeal to another circuit court for review.
D.
The decision of the lower appellate court stands.

A

D.

The decision of the lower appellate court stands.

154
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about Supreme Court justices?

A.
They are the country’s foremost authorities on state constitutions.
B.
Justices throw cases away if, after reviewing them, they cannot reach a majority.
C.
They are the country’s foremost authorities on the Constitution.
D.
There are eight permanent members of the Court and one temporary chief justice

A

C.

They are the country’s foremost authorities on the Constitution.

155
Q

Which of the following is not TRUE about the conferences held by the Supreme Court?

A.
Transcripts of conferences are made available to the public after the opinions have been released.
B.
They are completely private conferences.
C.
The chief justice presides over the conference.
D.
When the chief justice is part of the majority, he/she chooses who writes the majority opinion.

A

A.

Transcripts of conferences are made available to the public after the opinions have been released.

156
Q

Most of the cases the Supreme Court chooses to review come from the __________.

A.
US Congress
B.
international tribunals
C.
lower courts
D.
state supreme courts
A

C.

lower courts

157
Q
Which of the following Supreme Court justices served as the chief justice of the Court?
A.
Justice Steven Breyer
B.
Justice Antonin Scalia
C.
Justice John Roberts
D.
Justice Sonya Sotomayor
A

C.

Justice John Roberts

158
Q

The Supreme Court may choose to remand a case, which means that __________.
A.
it sends the case back to the trial court or lower appellate court for further action
B.
it dismisses the case and the lower court decision stands
C.
it grants a writ of certiorari
D.
it cannot reach a majority vote on the case

A

A.

it sends the case back to the trial court or lower appellate court for further action

159
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the structure of the Supreme Court?
A.
nine associate justices
B.
four junior justices, three associate justices, and the chief justice
C.
eight associate justices and one chief justice
D.
eight chief justices and one associate justice

A

C.

eight associate justices and one chief justice

160
Q

Explain how judicial review has increased the power of the Supreme Court.

A

Judicial review has given the Supreme Court the power to determine whether a legislation or executive act violates the Constitutional.

161
Q

Describe the difference between dissenting and concurring opinions.

A

A dissenting opinion is an opinion that goes against the majority. A concurring opinion is an opinion that agrees with the majority but for different reasons.

162
Q

Describe the 1803 case of Marbury v. Madison. What was the outcome?

A

Marbury v. Madison was the case that formed judicial review for the Supreme Court, or the power to determine if legislation or executive acts are unconstitutional.

163
Q

The 2010 Supreme Court case, Wagner v. Tritch, involves the illegal distribution of copyrighted material to foreign consumers via the Internet, which is a new area of law. The 9-0, unanimous vote on the Court is set to overturn the lower appellate court decision that Augustus Tritch was liable for millions of dollars to the plaintiff, Frederick Von Wagner, for illegally distributing his book to overseas customers. Now that the court has voted on the case, explain what must happen next? Describe the different types of opinions that could come from the Court.

A

Augustus Tritch will be held liable in millions of dollars to Frederick Von Wagner and will have to work to pay off the debt.

164
Q

Explain how the legislature may check the power of the Supreme Court.

A

The Legislative branch can create legislature and make amendments to the Constitution to limit the power of the Supreme Court.

165
Q

In the context of courts, jurisdiction refers to the __________.
A.
body of law or territory in which laws are addressed
B.
power of the Supreme Court
C.
area in which law enforcement may arrest an individual
D.
geographical area in which courts may exert their authority

A

A.

body of law or territory in which laws are addressed

166
Q
A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is issued when the Supreme Court agrees to review a case.      
A.
circuit
B.
writ of habeas corpus
C.
writ of certiorari
D.
award
A

C.

writ of certiorari

167
Q

Which of the following is not TRUE of district courts?
A.
Most federal cases are adjudicated, or handled, in district courts.
B.
Trials and lawsuits begin in district courts.
C.
If cases are appealed in state supreme courts, they may be addressed in district courts.
D.
The US has 94 district courts.

A

C.

If cases are appealed in state supreme courts, they may be addressed in district courts.

168
Q

Most federal court cases are heard by __________.

A.
appellate courts
B.
district courts
C.
state supreme courts
D.
magistrate courts
A

B.

district courts

169
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the criterion used by the United States Supreme Court to decide which cases to review?
A.
A case must be sent from a state supreme court.
B.
A case must be sent directly from federal district courts.
C.
A case must involve an important legal question that will help other judges decide future cases.
D.
An appellate court must not have addressed the case prior to arriving to the Supreme Court.

A

C.

A case must involve an important legal question that will help other judges decide future cases.

170
Q
Federal judges have the power to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
interpret the law
B.
write the law
C.
change the law
D.
enforce the law
A

A.

interpret the law

171
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about federal judges?
A.
The United States Senate must confirm all appointed federal judges.
B.
In order to prevent corruption, federal judges run for election only once.
C.
Federal judges serve ten-year appointments before being removed from the bench.
D.
Federal judges typically hear cases involving both state and federal laws.

A

A.

The United States Senate must confirm all appointed federal judges.

172
Q

Which of the following is a mechanism used to help ensure that federal judges are not punished for their decisions?

A.
The secret service provides security services to federal judges.
B.
Congress is not allowed to discuss court decisions publicly.
C.
Federal judges’ salaries are determined by local politicians.
D.
Federal judges have fixed salaries.

A

D.

Federal judges have fixed salaries.

173
Q
If any state tribunal decides a federal question and the litigant has no further remedy within the state court system, from which of the following remedies could the litigant possibly benefit?
A.
a hearing by a US district court
B.
a hearing by a federal court of appeals
C.
a hearing by the US Supreme Court
D.
a Congressional vote
A

B.

a hearing by a federal court of appeals

174
Q
While state courts will address violations of state laws, they are not equipped to handle cases in which \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. These cases are in the domain of the federal court system.
A.
there is a conflict between two or more states
B.
decisions are appealed
C.
state judges cannot reach a decision
D.
citizens sue the state government
A

A.

there is a conflict between two or more states

175
Q

a crime is any action that is against the law and causes harm to others.

A

true

176
Q

Hanley Inc. includes a one-year guarantee on each one of its blenders that states that any defects that occur within the first year will result in a replacement of the product. Josh calls the company to say that his blender has broken two months into owning the product, but Hanley Inc. refuses to replace the blender.

Which of the following is the best next step for Josh?
A.
file a civil lawsuit against Hanley Inc. for not honoring their warranty
B.
file a criminal lawsuit against Hanley Inc. for not honoring their warranty
C.
file a civil lawsuit against Hanley inc. for breach of contract
D.
file a criminal lawsuit against Haley Inc. for breach of contract

A

C.

file a civil lawsuit against Hanley inc. for breach of contract

177
Q

Breach of contract lawsuits can occur ONLY when the problem exists between two parties, but no more.

A

false

178
Q
Allen finds himself addicted to an illegal drug. Though he considers his crime harmless, his offense is considered a crime against \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
himself
B.
society
C.
drugs
D.
family
A

B.

society

179
Q

A police officer is dispatched to Union St. When he arrives to the home, it is reported to him by neighbors that a husband was abusing his wife. The wife confirms the story, and the husband is arrested shortly thereafter. Which of the following is TRUE about the case that would follow?
A.
When the husband is charged, the case would be a criminal case.
B.
The wife gets charged, and the case would be a civil case.
C.
When the husband is charged, the charge would be homicide.
D.
When the husband is charged, he would likely be charged under tort laws for negligence.

A

A.

When the husband is charged, the case would be a criminal case.

180
Q
Landry, a twenty-five year old man, notices that a woman left her wallet at a table in a coffee shop. He steals the wallet and all of the money inside. Of which crime is Landry guilty?
A.
larceny
B.
assault
C.
burglary
D.
vandalism
A

A.

larceny

181
Q

Which of the following newspaper headlines is an example of white collar crime?
A.
“Man charged with aggravated assault and burglary”
B.
“Businessman charged with embezzling funds from corporate accounts”
C.
“Wealthy executive charged with child abuse”
D.
“Local Mob Boss charged with extortion, homicide, and grand larceny”

A

B.

“Businessman charged with embezzling funds from corporate accounts”

182
Q
George is assaulted late at night by a group of men. George survives and tells the police officer that he can remember the men shouting racial slurs at him during the assault. The latter is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ crime.
A.
civil
B.
hate
C.
damage
D.
homicide
A

B.

hate

183
Q

Which of the following is an example of organized crime?
A.
When two people conspire to break into the house of a wealthy neighbor.
B.
A group of individuals who obtain money from local businesses by using intimidation.
C.
One man creates a software program that steals money from his companies business transactions.
D.
A group of teenagers assaults a man in an alley and steals his wallet.

A

B.

A group of individuals who obtain money from local businesses by using intimidation.

184
Q

Which of the following newspaper headlines is an example of white collar crime?
A.
“Man charged with aggravated assault and burglary”
B.
“Businessman charged with embezzling funds from corporate accounts”
C.
“Wealthy executive charged with child abuse”
D.
“Local Mob Boss charged with extortion, homicide, and grand larceny”

A

B.

“Businessman charged with embezzling funds from corporate accounts”

185
Q

A police officer is dispatched to Union St. When he arrives to the home, it is reported to him by neighbors that a husband was abusing his wife. The wife confirms the story, and the husband is arrested shortly thereafter. Which of the following is TRUE about the case that would follow?
A.
When the husband is charged, the case would be a criminal case.
B.
The wife gets charged, and the case would be a civil case.
C.
When the husband is charged, the charge would be homicide.
D.
When the husband is charged, he would likely be charged under tort laws for negligence.

A

A.

When the husband is charged, the case would be a criminal case.

186
Q

Which of the following is not a true statement about criminal cases?
A.
In a criminal case, the victim must pay for their own attorney.
B.
The objective of a criminal case is punishment.
C.
A criminal can be charged with the following two types of offenses: misdemeanors or felonies.
D.
In naming a criminal case, it is always Society v. Defendant.

A

A.

In a criminal case, the victim must pay for their own attorney.

187
Q
In a civil lawsuit, the objective of the plaintiff is to acquire \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
compensation, damages
B.
minor jail time, damages
C.
major jail time, felony conviction
D.
compensation, criminal offense
A

A.

compensation, damages

188
Q

Which of the following is an example of an act of vandalism?
A.
Two kids bully and injure another student.
B.
A bank robbery.
C.
A gang spray painting its gang symbol on public and private property.
D.
A man stealing and sharing corporate secrets with a rival company.

A

C.

A gang spray painting its gang symbol on public and private property.

189
Q
In a criminal case, Josephine Lawler was the victim of an aggravated assault on an Arizona highway by John Doe. Which of the following would be the most probable name of the court case?
A.
Josephine Lawler v. John Doe
B.
John Doe v. Josephine Lawler
C.
The State of Arizona v. Josephine Lawler
D.
The State of Arizona v. John Doe
A

D.

The State of Arizona v. John Doe

190
Q

Although crimes can be committed against individuals, a crime is always considered a crime against society.

A

true

191
Q

Differentiate between a misdemeanor and a felony offense.

A

A misdemeanor is a minor violation such as a monetary fine and less than a year imprisonment. A felony is a serious felony and it is an imprisonment for more than a year and possibly the death penalty.

192
Q

The case of Warner Bros. Entertainment Inc. and J.K. Rowling v. RDR Books and Does 1-10 is NOT an example of civil case because it is not one individual suing another individual.

A

true

193
Q
Gina Brown injures herself on a saw left on the sidewalk of a neighbor's house.  She sues the neighbor, James Blue, for negligence. The title of this \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ lawsuit would be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A.
civil, James Blue v. Gina Brown
B.
criminal, Gina Brown v. James Blue
C.
civil, Gina Brown v. James Blue
D.
criminal, James Blue v. Gina Brown
A

C.

civil, Gina Brown v. James Blue

194
Q
Despite his many violent criminal activities, The United States of America v. Alphonso Capone eventually ended in Capone’s conviction for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
murder
B.
aggravated assault
C.
tax evasion
D.
negligence
A

C.

tax evasion

195
Q
Which of the following is not considered a “victimless” crime against society?
A.
illegal downloads of copyrighted material
B.
prostitution
C.
illegal gambling
D.
substance abuse and public intoxication
A

A.

illegal downloads of copyrighted material

196
Q
The illegal download of copyrighted materials (movies, music, books) by an individual is an example of what kind of criminal activity?
A.
white-collar crime
B.
cybercrime
C.
organized crime
D.
cyber-vandalism
A

B.

cybercrime

197
Q

Compare and contrast civil lawsuit and a criminal case.

A

In a civil lawsuit, a plaintiff files a lawsuit whereas in a criminal case, a criminal case is taken on by society. In a civil lawsuit, the person being sued is the defendant whereas in a criminal case, the alleged criminal is the defendant.

198
Q

Define “violent crime” and “property crime” and give an example of each.

A

Violent crimes are acts of harm or death to another person such as aggravated assault, forcible rape, hate crimes, or homicide. A property crime causes someone to lose something of value and the most common are larceny, burglary, motor vehicle theft, and vandalism.

199
Q

Describe the difference in the purpose and naming process of a criminal case and a civil case.

A

The purpose of a criminal case is punishment whereas the purpose of a civil case is compensation for injuries or damages.

200
Q

Explain the four types of legal wrongs in civil law and give an example of each.

A

The four types of legal wrongs in civil law are torts, warranties, contract, and family matters. Torts is when one person violates a legal duty causing injury to another person. Warranty is when a producer does not live up to their end of a deal in regards to the quality of their products/services. Contract is when an agreement between two or more parties are broken. Family matters are issues that cannot be fixed in homes and end up in the courtroom.

201
Q

The American legal system is based on common law. What do judges consider most important when making a ruling under this system?
A.
Rulings made by other judges in similar cases
B.
The language in the law as it is written
C.
How the law is likely to change in the future
D.
What the majority of the population would prefer a ruling to be

A

A.

Rulings made by other judges in similar cases

202
Q
Canon law preserved Roman laws and has its origins in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
the Anglican Church
B.
the Catholic Church
C.
Napoleonic France
D.
English Common Law
A

B.

the Catholic Church

203
Q
Which of the following best defines the word “jurisprudence”?
A.
a lawyer
B.
the study of law
C.
a set of Roman laws
D.
equal rights
A

B.

the study of law

204
Q
Which of the following are laws NOT associated with ancient Rome?  
A.
the Laws of Draco
B.
the Twelve Tables
C.
Juris civile
D.
Jus gentium
A

A.

the Laws of Draco

205
Q
Use the charts above. Which of the following matches the people with the set of laws they created?
A.
Chart A
B.
Chart B
C.
Chart C
D.
Chart D
A

A.

Chart A

206
Q
Which Greek leader was responsible for eventually loosening the harsh and uncompromising laws of leaders such as Draco?      
A.
Socrates
B.
Solon
C.
Themistocles
D.
Pericles
A

B.

Solon

207
Q

Which of the following lists the sets of law codes in chronological order?
A.
Napoleonic (Civil) Code; Corpus Juris Civile; Hammurabi’s Code; The Constitution of the United States
B.
Hammurabi’s Code; Corpus Juris Civile; Napoleonic (Civil) Code; The Constitution of the United States
C.
Corpus Juris Civile; Hammurabi’s Code; Napoleonic (Civil) Code; The Constitution of the United States
D.
Hammurabi’s Code; Corpus Juris Civile; The Constitution of the United States; Napoleonic (Civil) Code

A

D.

Hammurabi’s Code; Corpus Juris Civile; The Constitution of the United States; Napoleonic (Civil) Code

208
Q
Laws created by the legislature are known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ laws.  
A.
administrative
B.
constitutional
C.
international
D.
statutory
A

D.

statutory

209
Q
Sha’rom comes from a time when people believed that laws were sent directly from the gods. Sha'rom most likely comes from which time period and location?
A.
Ancient Babylon
B.
Ancient Rome
C.
Modern America
D.
Napoleonic France
A

A.

Ancient Babylon

210
Q

The Romans believed every human being deserved rights, even slaves.

A

true

211
Q
A judge cites precedent when delivering a ruling in a case. In doing this, he is harkening back to a practice begun in which set of laws?
A.
constitutional law
B.
Mosaic codes
C.
common law
D.
international law
A

C.

common law

212
Q
Over hundreds of years, Roman law became complicated, so Emperor \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ condensed the laws into one accessible code of law known as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A.
Justinian, Corpus Juris Civilis
B.
Justinian, Juris Civile
C.
Caesar, Corpus Juris Civilis
D.
Caesar, Juris Civile
A

A.

Justinian, Corpus Juris Civilis

213
Q
Statutory laws are created by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ at the local, state, and national levels.
A.
elected representatives
B.
appointed representatives
C.
councils of citizens
D.
average citizens
A

A.

elected representatives

214
Q

Which of the following are NOT included in Constitutional laws?
A.
laws governing the division of powers in the federal government
B.
laws outlining how new laws are to be formed
C.
laws establishing equal rights for citizens
D.
laws controlling international trade agreements

A

D.

laws controlling international trade agreements

215
Q

Using complete sentences, explain the purpose and administration of international law

A

The purpose of international law is to define and guide relationships between nations. It is administered through customs and treaties such as trade agreements, communication, and boundary lines. However, it is difficult to enforce ruling because the law relies on the nations agreeing to the terms.

216
Q

Which of the following best defines the underlined word in the following sentence?

“In ancient times, rulers would announce edicts to the people.”

A.
a public law
B.
a military order
C.
a set of marriage laws
D.
a harsh code of conduct
A

A.

a public law

217
Q

The primary purpose of administrative laws are:
A.
to protect citizens’ rights
B.
to define structure and power of government agencies
C.
to ensure basic human rights in international treaties
D.
to maintain order and protect citizens

A

B.

to define structure and power of government agencies

218
Q
The Ten Commandments are perhaps the most famous set of laws ever created and are part of a larger set of laws known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A.
Juris Civile
B.
Hammurabi’s code
C.
the Mosaic code
D.
common law
A

C.

the Mosaic code

219
Q

Using complete sentences, discuss the most important features of features of Common law.

A

Common Law looked at rulings from previous court cases and applied them to new cases. It set a precedent.

220
Q

In four sentences or more, analyze the influence of the Ancient Greeks and Romans on modern law

A

In American laws, we’ve gotten our system from several sources including Ancient Greeks, Romans, and English laws. From the Greeks, we got the democratic system and citizen participation in lawmaking. From the Romans, we got what is called “natural rights.” These are equal rights or basic human rights.

221
Q
All of the following are important elements of common law EXCEPT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A.
setting precedents
B.
looking at previous court cases
C.
 limiting the ability of the government
D.
creating codes that cover a large variety of laws and penalties
A

C.

limiting the ability of the government

222
Q

Using complete sentences, outline the function of Constitutional law in American society.

A

Constitutional laws outline the three branches of government and how the federal government shares power with state governments. It also establishes rights for the citizens such as the freedom of speech or religion in the First Amendment.

223
Q

Using complete sentences, compare and contrast prehistoric law and current laws today.

A

Prehistoric laws were often passed down orally from generation to generation, which made it easy for the ruler to make up new laws and no one could object. There were no written references. Often times, the consequences for breaking these laws were very extreme. Current laws are more complicated and much more detailed. The consequences are less extreme and it focuses on reserving the natural rights of citizens.

224
Q

Which of the following cases might the Supreme Court grant a writ of certiorari?
A.
an appeal from a circuit court that claims that the law was misinterpreted in both the district and appellate courts
B.
an appeal from a district court that claims that the law was misinterpreted by the district court judge
C.
an appeal from an international tribunal arguing that international law was misinterpreted
D.
an appeal from a district court arguing that the circuit court is too busy to hear its appeal, thus it must be heard by the Supreme Court

A

A.

an appeal from a circuit court that claims that the law was misinterpreted in both the district and appellate courts

225
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the process of appointing a federal judge?

A.
The president appoints a nominee to a judgeship, and then both houses of Congress must confirm the nominee with a majority vote.
B.
Federal judges run in primary elections in their districts, and the president selects nominees to be confirmed by the Senate from the primary election winners.
C.
The president appoints a nominee to a judgeship, and then the Senate confirms the nominee.
D.
The president appoints federal judges to the bench, where they remain until he has them removed for making unpopular decisions in sensitive court cases.

A

C.

The president appoints a nominee to a judgeship, and then the Senate confirms the nominee.

226
Q

In the case of Korematsu v. United States (1944) the Supreme Court ruled that the government did not violate the Constitution by ordering the forced relocation of Japanese Americans to internment camps. According to the Court, this is because the order __________.
A.
applied only to Japanese Americans living on the West Coast
B.
lasted for a limited amount of time
C.
was issued during wartime
D.
provided relocated individuals with a large income while they lived in the camps

A

C.

was issued during wartime

227
Q

In Worcester v. Georgia (1832), the state of Georgia wanted to remove Cherokees from within its borders and began to annex Cherokee land. How did the Court rule?
A.
Only the federal government had the authority to deal with the Cherokees and the Georgia laws dealing with them were unconstitutional.
B.
The Georgia laws in the case were upheld as constitutional.
C.
The federal government and the state of Georgia both had the authority to deal with the Cherokees.
D.
The state of Georgia did not have the authority to deal with the Cherokees; the true authority belonged to the state of Alabama.

A

A.
Only the federal government had the authority to deal with the Cherokees and the Georgia laws dealing with them were unconstitutional.