Congenital Anomalies of the Central Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What maternal hormone level between 16 and 18 weeks’ gestation identifies infants at high risk for neural tube defects?

A

An elevated materna serum α-fetoprotein level.

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2
Q

What drug taken during pregnancy greatly increases the risk of neural tube defects in the infant?

A

Valproic acid

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3
Q

What maternal supplement is used to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in the infant?

A

Folic acid. 50% or more of neural tube defects are prevented with periconceptional folic acid supplementation.

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4
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

It is a congenital defect in which a portion of the neural tube does not form properly. Symptoms vary depending on the type and the location of the lesion, but can include motor and/or sensory defects in the lower body, loss of bladder and bowel control, scoliosis, hydrocephalus, learning disabilities, and deformities of the hip, leg, and/or foot.

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5
Q

What are the three types of spina bifida?

A

Spina bifida occulta (mild effects, if any; very common), meningocele (moderate severity; rare), and myelomeningocele (very severe; most common).

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6
Q

Which type of spina bifida is most common?

A

Myelomeningocele

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7
Q

What is a meningocele?

A

It is the rarest form of spina bifida involving herniation of the meninges - but not the spinal cord - through a defect in the posterior vertebral arches.

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8
Q

What might one see on physical exam in a patient with a meningocele?

A

On transillumination along the vertebral column you might find a fluctuant midline mass, typically in the lower back. Most are covered with skin and pose no urgent problem.

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9
Q

Which meningoceles require immediate surgical intervention?

A

Children with CSF leaking from the meningocele or with incomplete skin covering need immediate surgical repair to prevent meningitis.

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10
Q

What family history finding increases the risk for development of myelomeningocele?

A

Risk increases with an increased number of affected siblings.

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11
Q

Which structures are involved in myelomeningoceles?

A

Nerve roots, spinal cord, meninges, vertebral bodies, and skin.

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12
Q

Where are myelomeningoceles most likely to occur?

A

They can be located anywhere along the neuraxis but are most commonly located in the lumbosacral region.

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13
Q

What is the general rule for estimating extent and degree of neurologic deficit based on the location of the myelomeningocele?

A

As a general rule, the lower the lesion is along the spine, the less severe the neurologic defects. The exception is the cervical and upper thoracic regions which, if affected, actually cause minimal neurologic manifestations.

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14
Q

What other neurological abnormality commonly accompanies myelomeningoceles?

A

Myelomeningoceles cause a downward displacement of the brain stem and cerebellar tonsils down into the spinal column, known as Chiari II malformation. This, in turn, causes an obstruction to normal CSF flow, with a resulting hydrocephalus occuring 85% of the time.

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15
Q

How is myelomeningocele usually treated?

A

Treatment involves a multidisciplinary team, with surgical repair usually occurring within the first few days of life. After repair, many infants require a VP shunt for ongoing management of hydrocephalus.

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16
Q

What GU abnormality should providers be on the lookout for in patients with myelomeningocele?

A

Pay special attention to the GU system and bladder catheterization because neurogenic bladder is common and easy to miss.

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17
Q

Describe spina bifida occulta.

A

Spina bifida occulta consists of a midline defect of the spinous processes without protrusion of the spinal cord or meninges. The defect is usually covered with skin and not obvious on external physical exam. The defect is relatively common and rarely causes any problems.

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18
Q

What can a patch of hair located at the lower back indicate?

A

Cutaneous markers such as a patch of hair, lipoma, skin-color changes, or a dermal sinus in the midline of the lower back may be the only indication of underlying spina bifida occulta and occur due to the abnormal neuroectodermal differentiation in that area.

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19
Q

What is the usual therapy for spina bifida occulta?

A

For symptomatic patients, surgical treatment is often warranted. Asymptomatic patients need close monitoring to evaluate for development of neurological or urological problems.

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20
Q

What is a dermoid sinus and what might its presence indicate?

A

A dermoid sinus presents as a small skin opening leading into a narrow duct below the skin. It sometimes has protruding hairs, a hairy patch, or a vascular nevus on the surface. It often occurs in association with spina bifida occulta. In the lumbar region, it can indicate the presence of a meningocele. In the occipital region, it can indicate the presence of an encephalocele.

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21
Q

What anatomic abnormality might one suspect in a patient with recurrent bacterial meningitis?

A

Occasionally, a dermoid sinus will pass through the dura and result in recurrent infections such as recurrent bacterial meningitis.

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22
Q

What is an encephalocele?

A

An encephalocele is a herniation of the brain, its coverings, or both through a skull defect.

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23
Q

Where do encephaloceles most commonly occur?

A

75% of the time, encephaloceles occur in the occipital region.

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24
Q

What finding correlates with neurological outcome in patients with encephalocele?

A

Significant brain tissue involvement correlates with poor neurological outcome, while the presence of only meninges is correlated with few, if any, neurological defects.

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25
Q

What is the treatment for encephalocele?

A

Prompt surgical removal of the sac and closure of the defect.

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26
Q

What is anencephaly?

A

In anencephaly, both cerebral hemispheres and large parts of the cranium are absent, with associated malformations of the face and eyes commonly occuring as well. It is a uniformly lethal condition.

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27
Q

What is the embryologic abnormality which leads to the development of anencephaly?

A

Anencephaly occurs due to failure of closure of the anterior neural tube (neuropore), which normally closes by 24 days postconception.

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28
Q

What dose of folic acid is recommended for women of childbearing age to prevent neural tube defects in their offspring?

A

The recommended dose is 0.4 to 0.8 mg of folic acid daily.

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29
Q

What folic acid dose should be used in women who are on anticonvulsant therapy or who have had a previous child affected with spina bifida?

A

These women should take 4mg/day of folic acid starting 1 month before attempting conception and continuing through the 1st trimester.

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30
Q

What is hydromyelia?

A

Hydromyelia is a symmetric dilation of the central canal of the spinal cord by CSF and typically communicates with the 4th ventricle.

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31
Q

With what (3) conditions does hydromyelia commonly co-occur?

A

Communicating hydrocephalus, Chiari malformation, and aqueductal stenosis.

32
Q

What are the typical symptoms and management of hydromyelia?

A

The hydromyelia itself doesn’t usually cause problems, and does not require treatment. However, the conditions it occurs alongside may cause symptoms or require treatment.

33
Q

What is syringomyelia?

A

It is a paracentral cavity (syrinx) in the spinal cord. It can be localized or involve multiple segments, especially in the cervical spine.

34
Q

With what two other CNS abnormalities is syringomyelia commonly associated?

A

Chiari I malformation and lumbar myelomeningocele.

35
Q

What symptoms would one expect to be caused by syringomyelia?

A

Symptoms depend on the location of the syrinx. Wasting of the small muscles of the hand, sensory deficits of the arms, or absence of deep tendon reflexes in the upper extremities are commonly seen with cervical syrinx.

36
Q

What is a Chiari malformation?

A

It is a hindbrain abnormality in which there is downward displacement of the brainstem and cerebellum.

37
Q

How is syringomyelia typically treated?

A

Isolated clinically significant syringomyelia is treated with shunting.

38
Q

Describe the anatomic abnormalities which make up the Chiari I malformation.

A

The cerebellar tonsils or vermis are pushed down below the level of the foramen magnum. Generally, > 0.5 cm displacement is considered significant. ***Include Image 12-2

39
Q

What other CNS abnormality is commonly found in patients with Chiari I malformation?

A

Chiari I has a strong association with syringomyelia.

40
Q

What are the common symptoms of Chiari I malformation?

A

Most lesions are asymptomatic and discovered incidentally. Those that cause symptoms are associated with: dysphagia, vertigo, sleep apnea, ataxia, headache, and neck pain, which occur due to dysfunction of the lower cranial nerves, brainstem, and/or spinal cord.

41
Q

Which type of Chiari malformation is most commonly diagnosed at birth?

A

Chiari II

42
Q

Describe the anatomic abnormalities which make up the Chiari II malformation.

A

Chiari II occurs when the 4th ventricle and lower medulla are pushed down below the level of the foramen magnum (more than with Chiari I). It blocks the outflow of CSF and 85% of patients have hydrocephalus.

43
Q

What other CNS abnormality is almost always found when myelomeningocele is present?

A

Chiari II malformation

44
Q

What is the anatomical abnormality that characterizes a Chiari III malformation?

A

Herniation of the cerebellum occurs through a cervical spina bifida defect. This is an extremely rare phenomenon.

45
Q

What is the treatment for asymptomatic Chiari I malformation?

A

No treatment is necessary.

46
Q

What is the treatment for symptomatic Chiari I, and all cases of Chiari II or Chiari III malformation?

A

Surgery, including suboccipital decompression with or without cervical laminectomies.

47
Q

What is Klippel-Feil syndrome triad?

A

It is characterized by the congenital fusion of various vertebral segments. Clinically, it is characterized by a triad of short neck, low posterior hairline, and limited range of neck motion.

48
Q

Define lissencephaly.

A

Lissencephaly is caused by defective neuronal migration during embryonic development, causing a smooth cerebral surface with thickened cortical mantle and a lack of cerebral folds (gyri) and grooves (sulci). ***Image 12-3

49
Q

What symptoms are commonly seen in patients with lissencephaly?

A

FTT, developmental delay, and severe epilepsy. Some are also blind.

50
Q

How is lissencephaly usually managed?

A

Treatment consists of anticonvulsants to manage the seizures and supportive care for feeding difficulties and impaired motor functioning.

51
Q

What syndrome is associated with lissencephaly?

A

~15% of cases of lissencephaly occur in association with Miller-Dieker syndrome.

52
Q

What is Miller-Dieker syndrome?

A

It is caused by a partial deletion of chromosome 17. Patients have prominent forehead, bitemporal “hollowing”, anteverted nostrils, prominent upper lip, micrognathia, and lissencephaly. These patients die early, rarely reaching 10 years of age.

53
Q

Define schizencephaly.

A

“Split brain” - it is characterized by the occurrence of unilateral or bilateral clefts within the cerebral hemispheres.

54
Q

What clinical manifestations are associated with the presence of schizencephaly?

A

Patients with bilateral clefts typically have severe epilepsy, microcephaly, severe intellectual disability, and spastic quadriparesis. Those with unilateral clefts often have focal epilepsy and hemiplegic cerebral palsy.

55
Q

How is schizencephaly treated?

A

Anticonvulsants and physical therapy.

56
Q

Define porencephaly.

A

Porencephaly refers to the presence of cysts or cavities within the brain.

57
Q

Differentiate between lissencephaly, schizencephaly, and porencephaly.

A

Lissencephaly = absence of gyri and sulci (smooth brain). Schizencephaly = clefts within the cerebral hemispheres, unilateral or bilateral (split brain). Porencephaly = cysts or cavities within the brain, can be congenital or acquired (holey brain).

58
Q

What is holoprosencephaly?

A

It is a disorder in the development of the brain due to defective cleavage of the prosencephalon. There are 3 main types (alobar, semilobar, and lobar), but all have lack of forebrain and ventricular division into two distinct hemispheres. Associated facial anomalies are common.

59
Q

Which chromosomal abnormality is most commonly associated with holoprosencephaly?

A

Holoprosencephaly is most often seen with Trisomy 13, but can also be caused by many other genetic mutations and teratogens.

60
Q

How can agenesis of the corpus callosum be inherited?

A

It can be inherited as an X-linked dominant, X-linked recessive, or autosomal dominant trait.

61
Q

What is Aicardi syndrome?

A

It is an X-linked dominant disorder characterized by the triad of agenesis of the corpus callosum, infantile spasms, and retinal abnormalities.

62
Q

Use of what illicit drug by pregnant women has been noted to increase the risk of agenesis of the corpus callosum?

A

Cocaine use

63
Q

Define hydrocephalus.

A

An excessive volume of intracranial CSF with ventricular dilatation caused by either impairment of CSF circulation and absorption or increased CSF production.

64
Q

Starting with the paired lateral ventricles, trace the normal flow of CSF through the CNS: Paired lateral ventricles > ** > ** > ** > ** > ** > ** > ** > **.

A

Paired lateral ventricles > paired foramina of Monro > single midline 3rd ventricle > aqueduct of Sylvius > midline 4th ventricle > 3 exit openings: paired lateral foramina of Luschka and a midline foramen of Magendie > spinal subarachnoid space > intracranial subarachnoid space over the cerebral convexities > absorbed into the venous sinuses via the arachnoid granulations.

65
Q

What is the difference between a noncommunicating and a communicating hydrocephalus?

A

A noncommunicating (AKA obstructive) hydrocephalus is due to a blockage of CSF flow somewhere in the ventricular system, typically in the foramina of Monro, the aqueduct of Sylvius, or the 4th ventricle and its outlets. A communicating hydrocephalus is due to impaired CSF absorption, most commonly caused by impaired absorption at the arachnoid granulations, often as sequelae of arachnoiditis caused by blood or pus.

66
Q

How might one differentiate between communicating and noncommunicating hydrocephalus based on the imaging?

A

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus will reveal enlargement of the ventricular system proximal to the blockage, whereas communicating hydrocephalus will reveal universal dilation of the ventricular system.

67
Q

What are the two most common causes of communicating hydrocephalus?

A

Meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

68
Q

What is the Dandy-Walker malformation?

A

It consists of a posterior fossa cyst which is continuous with the 4th ventricle, partial or complete absence of the cerebellar vermis, and hydrocephalus.

69
Q

In older children, what is the most common, nonspecific symptom of hydrocephalus?

A

Headaches. Hydrocephalus often presents with early-morning headaches along with nausea and vomiting.

70
Q

What is the characteristic physical exam finding in infants with hydrocephalus?

A

Excessive head growth.

71
Q

If increased intracranial pressure occurs due to hydrocephalus, which cranial nerves are likely affected?

A

Increased ICP can result in papilledema and extraocular muscle palsies, especially involving cranial nerves 3 and 6.

72
Q

What is the Cushing triad?

A

It is a sign of increased intracranial pressure and is characterized by bradycardia, systemic hypertension, and altered respiratory rates.

73
Q

What is the setting-sun sign?

A

It occurs when upward gaze is impaired because of pressure on the midbrain from increased ICP, and the sclera above the iris becomes visible.

74
Q

What are the appropriate studies to diagnose hydrocephalus in newborns, older infants, and children?

A

In newborns, US is used to confirm diagnosis. In older infants and children, CT or MRI is used to make the diagnosis.

75
Q

What is the typical treatment for hydrocephalus?

A

It depends on the etiology, but usually involves surgical management, which is often ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement.

76
Q

What is the most common organism responsible for VP shunt malfunction due to an infectious cause?

A

Staph epidermidis accounts for > 50% of occurences and usually responds only to vancomycin.

77
Q

List five common organisms responsible for infectious VP shunt malfunction.

A

Staph epidermidis > S. aureus > E. coli and other gram negatives > diphtheroids (propionibacterium acnes and corynebacterium jeikeium) > strep species