Confined Spaces Flashcards

1
Q

How do you define a confined space?

A

Any space that is enclosed or partially enclosed with a reasonably foreseeable, specified risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the risk classifications?

A
  • NC1: Low risk (shallow, simple entry, self rescue possible)
  • NC2: Medium (vertical, direct, unobstructed access, self rescue not possible)
  • NC3: Medium (team entry moving away from entry point, self rescue not possible)
  • NC4: High (non-standard, complex entry, specialist rescue arrangements required)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What must the entry team consider when entering a confined space?

A
  • A dynamic risk assessment
  • All staff are SQEP
  • Communications/briefing prior to entry
  • All equipment is fit for purpose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the laws and regulations for confined spaces?

A
  • Health and safety at work act 1974
  • Confined space regulations 1997
  • Management of health and safety at work regulations
  • PPE
  • Provision and use of work equipment regulations
  • Working at height regulations
  • Lifting operations and lifting equipment regulations
  • Reporting incidents, diseases and dangerous occurrences
  • First aid at work regulations
  • COSHH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What specified risks are there in confined spaces?

A
  • Fire and explosion
  • Excessive temperature
  • Toxic gases, fumes, and vapours
  • Oxygen deficiency and enrichment
  • Flooding
  • Entrapment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What gases are lighter than air?

A
  • Ammonia
  • Methane
  • Carbon monoxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 5 key elements to a risk assessment?

A
  • Identify hazards
  • Identify person’s at risk
  • Implement control measures to mitigate against the risk
  • Record findings
  • Review findings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define risk

A

Likelihood of a hazard occuring and the severity of the hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define hazard

A

Something with the potential to cause harm of damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define mitigation

A

Controls implemented to reduce risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define risk rating

A

Likelihood x severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why should near misses be reported?

A
  • Prevents accident/injury
  • Prevents reoccurrence
  • Protects personnel
  • Protects equipment
  • Protects environment
  • Identifies hidden risks
  • Identifies inadequate PPE
  • Ensures lessons are learnt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What other processes besides risk assessments can reduce risk?

A
  • Trained and competent staff
  • Method statements
  • Safe systems of work
  • Suitable equipment
  • Comprehensive briefs
  • System isolations
  • Clear communications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why should personnel be briefed on their specific roles in an emergency situation?

A
  • Correct procedures followed
  • Reduce risk of injury
  • Avoid confusion
  • Avoid duplication of tasks
  • Avoid escalation of emergency
  • Enable timely resoltion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why do we dispose of contaminated clothing/equipment?

A
  • Reduce risk of bacterial/viral infection
  • Reduce risk of contaminating family
  • Reduce risk to environment
  • Prevent cross contamination
  • Prevent contaminating equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List 6 effective decontamination procedures?

A
  • Drench showers
  • Bagging/dispose of contaminated clothing
  • Cleaning/disinfecting tools/equipment
  • Quarantine equipment until ready for decontamination
  • Correct waste disposal
  • Reporting of personnel details
17
Q

What gases can be found in the atmosphere and what are the LTEL/STEL?

A
  • Ammonia (NH3): 25ppm/35ppm
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2): 5000ppm/15000ppm
  • Carbon monoxide (CO): 20ppm/100ppm
  • Chlorine (CL2): NA/0.5ppm
  • Fluorine (F2): NA/1ppm
  • Hydrogen sulphide (H2S): 5ppm/10ppm
  • Nitric acid (HN03): 2ppm/1ppm
  • Ozone (O3): NA/0.2ppm
  • Sulphur dioxide (SO2): 1ppm/0.5ppm
18
Q

What does WELS, TWA, STEL, LTEL stand for?

A
  • Workplace exposure limits
  • Time weighted average
  • Short term exposure limits
  • Long term exposure limits
19
Q

How long is STEL/LTEL measured over?

A
  • STEL: 15mins
  • LTEL: 8 hours
20
Q

When should gas monitors not be used?

A
  • Immersion in water
  • Filters blocked on sensors
  • Sensors not suitable
  • Contaminated sensors
  • Damage to gas monitor
21
Q

What are the physical limitations of fixed gas detection systems?

A
  • Range of gases detected not flexible
  • Fixed locations
  • Gases not monitored in proximity of rescue teams
  • May not be at correct height
  • Rescue teams not able to immediately check gas levels
  • Rescue teams reliant on relayed info
22
Q

Why is is important to follow manufacturer’s instructions?

A
  • Statutory duty
  • Complying with training
  • Following procedure
  • Avoid damage
  • Avoid harm/injury
  • Preventing emergencies
23
Q

What are functional issues with lighting?

A
  • Heavy
  • Trip hazards
  • Limited battery life
  • Electrocution risk
24
Q

What team members make up a confined spaces team?

A
  • Rescue team member
  • Link person
  • Manager
  • Topman
25
Q

List 5 factors that could impact breathing apparatus safety

A
  • Operator misuse
  • Lack of training
  • Contamination
  • Cylinder below minimum level
  • Firing pin not connected
26
Q

What are the responsibilities of the wearer for breathing apparatus?

A
  • Carry out checks
  • Regular comms with Topman
  • Inform team of movements
  • Monitor air
  • Dynamic risk assessments
  • Vigilance to hazards and risks
27
Q

What is a rescue plan?

A

A logical sequence performed in a safe manner. It is properly planned and organized with a means of communications.

28
Q

What should be included in a good rescue plan?

A
  • Risk and control measures identified
  • Rescue/resuscitation equipment t
  • Rescue personnel required
  • Resources to be used
  • Safeguarding of rescuers
  • Sequence of events
29
Q

What documented procedures should the rescue team be aware of?

A
  • Method statements
  • Safe working procedures
  • Company policies and procedures
  • Isolations
  • Emergency plan
  • PTW
  • SOP’s
  • Roles and responsibilities
30
Q

What is DRSABC?

A

Dangers
Response
Catastrophic bleeds
Airways
Breathing
Circulation

31
Q

What are the responsibilities of the first aider?

A
  • Medical equipment is available
  • Assessment of injuries
  • Providing medical treatment
  • Promote recovery
  • Medical supervision
32
Q

List 4 stretchers

A
  • Neil Robertson
  • Rescue sced
  • Scoop
  • Pole stretcher
33
Q

What are some limitations of stretcher designs?

A
  • Casualty may fall out
  • Stretcher failure
  • Attachment point fails
  • Casualty’s injuries worsen
34
Q

What alternative methods of casualty evacuation are there?

A
  • Lead to safety
  • Evacuation chair
  • Slide sced
  • Assisted carry
  • Pull lines
  • Vertical lists with winch