Conditions List Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes of Stroke?

A

-Vessel occlusion or thrombosis in situ
-Cardiac emboli (AF, endocarditis)
-Atherothromboembolism (eg from carotids)
-CNS bleeds (HTN, trauma, aneurysm rupture, anticoagulation, thrombolysis)

-Sudden BP drop
-Carotid artery dissection
-Vasculitis
-SAH
-Venous sinus thrombosis
-Antiphospholipid syndrome
-Thrombophilia
-Fabry disease

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for developing a stroke?

A

-HTN
-Smoking
-DM
-CV disease (valvular, IHD, AF)
-Increased clotting
-Increased homocysteine
-Syphilis

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3
Q

How do you manage an acute stroke?

A
  1. Protect the airway
  2. Maintain homeostasis: blood glucose (check signs are not due to hypoglycaemia), BP (only treat if hypertensive emergency such as encephalopathy or aortic dissection because lowering BP may affect cerebral perfusion
  3. CT/MRI immediately: diffusion-weighted MRI is gold standard, CT helps to rule out primary intracerebral haemorrhage

ONLY IF HAEMORRHAGE IS EXCLUDED:
4. Antiplatelet - give aspirin 300mg stat and continue for 2 weeks
5. Thrombolysis - If onset of symptoms was <4.5 hours ago, give alteplase (tissue plasminogen activator) with close monitoring (incl repeated CT 24 hours post lysis to check for bleeds)
6. Thrombectomy - if the area of infarction is confirmed and depending on the location of the infarct and the time since stroke (not used >24 hours after event). For those with large artery occlusion in the proximal anterior circulation

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4
Q

What are the contraindications to thrombolysis treatment of acute stroke?

A

-Major infarct or haemorrhage on CT
-Mild/non-disabling deficit
-Recent surgery, trauma, or artery or vein puncture at uncompressible site
-Previous CNS bleed
-AVM/aneurysm
-Severe liver disease, varices or portal hypertension
-Seizures at presentation
-Very low or very high blood glucose
-Stroke or serious head injury in last 3 months
-GI or urinary tract haemorrhage in last 21 days
-Known clotting disorder
-On anticoagulants or INR>1.7
-Low platelets
-History of intracranial neoplasm
-Rapidly improving symptoms
-BP> 180/105

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5
Q

What secondary preventative measures should be started after the acute management of a stroke?

A

-Control risk factors: eg lowering BP, most patients should be started on atorvastatin 80mg
-Start Antiplatelets: After 2 weeks of 300mg aspirin, switch patients to clopidogrel 75mg monotherapy. If this is CI or not tolerated, give low dose aspirin and slow release dipyridamole

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6
Q

What tests should be carried out following a stroke (post-acute phase)?

A
  • Check BP: look for retinopathy, nephropathy or cardiomegaly on CXR
  • Cardiac sources of emboli: 24hr ECG to check for AF. CXR may show large left atrium. Echo may show mural thrombosis due to AF or hypokinetic segment of cardiac muscle post-MI, valvular lesions in infective endocarditis or rheumatic heart disease. TOE more sensitive than TTO
  • Carotid artery stenosis: Do carotid doppler ultrasound +/- CT?MRI angiography. (Carotid endarterectomy may be indicated)
  • Check for hyper/hypoglycaemia, dyslipidaemia or hyperhomocysteinaemia
    -Vasculitis: increased ESR, ANCA, check for active untreated syphilis
    -Prothrombotic states: thrombophilia, antiphospholipid syndrome
    -Hyperviscosity: polycythaemia, sickle-cell disease
    -Thrombocytopaenia and other bleeding disorders
    -Genetic tests eg CADASIL and Fabry disease
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7
Q

What treatment should be given to a stroke patient found to have AF?

A

Anticoagulation with a DOAC or Warfarin from 2 weeks (or from 7-10 days if clinically and radiologically small embolus).

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?

A

Inhibits cox-1, suppressing prostaglandin and thromboxane synthesis

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel?

A

A thienopyridine that inhibits platelet aggregation by modifying platelet adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptors

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dipyridamole?

A

Increases cAMP and decreases thromboxane A2

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11
Q

What is vertigo?

A

Vertigo is a descriptive term for a sensation that there is movement between the patient and their environment. They may feel they are moving or that the room is moving. Often this is a horizontal spinning sensation, similar to how you feel after turning in circles then stopping abruptly.

Vertigo is often associated with nausea, vomiting, sweating and feeling generally unwell. There may be decreased balance, hearing loss, tinnitus and nystagmus.

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12
Q

What is the pathophysiology of vertigo?

A

The sensory inputs that are responsible for maintaining balance and posture are:
1. Vision
2. Proprioception
3. Signals from the vestibular system
Vertigo is caused by a mismatch between these sensory inputs.

The vestibular system is the most important sensory system to understand when learning about vertigo. The vestibular apparatus is located in the inner ear. It consists of three loops called the semicircular canals that are filled with a fluid called endolymph. These semicircular canals are oriented in different directions to detect various movements of the head. As the head turns, the fluid shifts inside the canals. This fluid shift is detected by tiny hairs called stereocilia found in a section of the canal called the ampulla. This sensory input of shifting fluid is transmitted to the brain by the vestibular nerve and lets the brain know that the head is moving in a particular direction.

The vestibular nerve carries signals from the vestibular apparatus to the vestibular nucleus in the brainstem and the cerebellum. The vestibular nucleus then sends signals to the oculomotor, trochlear and abducens nuclei that control eye movements and the thalamus, spinal cord and cerebellum. The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating movement throughout the body. Therefore, the vestibular signals help the central nervous system coordinate eye movements and other movements throughout the body.

Vertigo can be caused by either a:
-Peripheral problem, usually affecting the vestibular system
-Central problem, usually involving the brainstem or the cerebellum

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13
Q

What are the four common types of peripheral (vestibular) vertigo? What other causes may be possible?

A
  1. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
  2. Ménière’s disease
  3. Vestibular neuronitis
  4. Labyrinthitis

There are several other peripheral causes of vertigo. These are:
-Trauma to the vestibular nerve
-Vestibular nerve tumours (acoustic neuromas)
-Otosclerosis
-Hyperviscosity syndromes
-Varicella zoster infection (often with facial nerve weakness and vesicles around the ear – Ramsay Hunt syndrome)

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14
Q

What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is caused by crystals of calcium carbonate called otoconia that become displaced into the semicircular canals. They may be displaced by a viral infection, head trauma, ageing or without a clear cause. The crystals disrupt the normal flow through the canals and therefore disrupt the function of the system. The symptoms are usually positional, because movement is required to confuse the system. Therefore, attacks of vertigo are triggered by movement and can last around a minute before the symptoms settle. Often symptoms occur over several weeks and then resolve, then can reoccur weeks or months later. A special test called the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre can be used to diagnose BPPV.

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15
Q

What is Meniere’s disease?

A

Ménière’s disease is caused by an excessive buildup of endolymph in the semicircular canals, causing a higher pressure than normal, disrupting the sensory signals. It causes attacks of hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo and a sensation of fullness in the ear. These attacks typically last several hours before settling. It most often occurs in middle-aged adults and is not associated with movement. The symptoms are not positional. Patients will have spontaneous nystagmus during attacks (nystagmus is discussed in more detail later). Over time, the patient’s hearing will gradually deteriorate.

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16
Q

What is acute vestibular neuronitis?

A

Acute vestibular neuronitis describes inflammation of the vestibular nerve. This is usually attributed to a viral infection. Typically, the history is of acute onset of vertigo that improves within a few weeks.

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17
Q

What is Labrynthitis?

A

Labyrinthitis describes inflammation of the structures of the inner ear. This is usually attributed to a viral infection. Usually the history is of acute onset of vertigo that improves within a few weeks. Labyrinthitis can cause hearing loss, which distinguishes it from vestibular neuronitis.

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18
Q

What are the common causes of central vertigo?

A

Pathology that affects the cerebellum or the brainstem disrupt the signals from the vestibular system and cause vertigo. The most common pathology that results in a central cause of vertigo are:

  1. Posterior circulation infarction (stroke): will have a sudden onset and may be associated with other symptoms, such as ataxia, diplopia, cranial nerve defects or limb symptoms.
  2. Tumour: in the cerebellum or brainstem will have a gradual onset with associated symptoms of cerebellar or brainstem dysfunction.
  3. Multiple sclerosis: may cause relapsing and remitting symptoms, with other associated features of multiple sclerosis, such as optic neuritis or transverse myelitis.
  4. Vestibular migraine: will cause symptoms lasting minutes to hours, often associated with visual aura and headache. Attacks may be triggered by stress, bright lights, strong smells, certain foods (e.g. chocolate, cheese and caffeine), dehydration, menstruation, abnormal sleep patterns

All the central causes of vertigo will cause sustained, non-positional vertigo.

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19
Q

What key features in a history might point to the cause of vertigo?

A

When a patient presents with “dizziness’, it is important to first distinguish between vertigo and light-headedness. Ask whether the “room is moving” (vertigo) or whether they feel more of a light-headedness.

Ask about symptoms that will help you differentiate between central and peripheral vertigo:
1. Onset: Sudden onset (P), Gradual onset (C - except stroke)
2. Duration: Short (seconds or minutes -P), Persistent (C)
3. Hearing loss or tinnitus: Often present (P - except BPPV), Usually not (C)
4. Coordination: Intact (P), Impaired (C)
5. Nausea: More severe (P), Mild (C)

Key features that may point to a specific cause are:
-Recent viral illness (labyrinthitis or vestibular neuronitis)
-Headache (vestibular migraine, cerebrovascular accident or brain tumour)
-Typical triggers (vestibular migraine)
-Ear symptoms, such as pain or discharge (infection)
-Acute onset neurological symptoms (stroke)

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20
Q

What are the 4 things to examine when assessing a patient presenting with vertigo?

A
  1. Ear examination to look for signs of infection or other pathology
  2. Neurological examination to assess for central causes of vertigo (e.g., stroke or multiple sclerosis).

Cerebellar examination is an important part of a full neurological examination in patients with vertigo. The components can be remembered with the DANISH mnemonic:
D – Dysdiadochokinesia
A – Ataxic gait (ask the patient to walk heel-to-toe)
N – Nystagmus (see below for more detail)
I – Intention tremor
S – Speech (slurred)
H – Heel-shin test

  1. Cardiovascular examination to assess for cardiovascular causes of dizziness (e.g., arrhythmias or valve disease)
  2. Special tests
    -Romberg’s test (screens for problems with proprioception or vestibular function)
    -Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre (to diagnose BPPV)
    -HINTS examination (to distinguish between central and peripheral vertigo). It stands for:

HI – Head Impulse
N – Nystagmus
TS – Test of Skew

Head Impulse Test
The head impulse test involves the patient sitting upright and fixing their gaze on the examiner’s nose. The examiner holds the patient’s head and rapidly jerks it 10-20 degrees in one direction while the patient continues looking at the examiner’s nose. The head is moved slowly back to the centre before repeating in the opposite direction. Ensure they have no neck pain or pathology before performing the test.
A patient with a normally functioning vestibular system will keep their eyes fixed on the examiner’s nose.
In a patient with an abnormally functioning vestibular system (e.g., vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis), the eyes will saccade (rapidly move back and forth) as they eventually fix back on the examiner.
The head impulse test helps diagnose a peripheral cause of vertigo but will be normal if the patient has no current symptoms or a central cause of vertigo.

Nystagmus
Nystagmus can be demonstrated by having the patient look left and right. The eyes rapidly saccade or oscillate, meaning they shake side to side as they try to settle into place. A few beats can be normal. Unilateral horizontal nystagmus is more likely to be a peripheral cause. Bilateral or vertical nystagmus suggests a central cause.

Test of Skew
The test of skew (also called the alternate cover test) involves the patient sitting upright and fixing their gaze on the examiner’s nose. The examiner covers one eye at a time, alternating between covering either eye. The eyes should remain fixed on the examiner’s nose with no deviation. If there is a vertical correction when an eye is uncovered (the eye has drifted up or down and needs to move vertically to fix on the nose when uncovered), this indicates a central cause of vertigo.

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21
Q

How is vertigo due to peripheral causes managed?

A

For peripheral vertigo, short-term options for managing symptoms include:

-Prochlorperazine/Buccastem (A vestibular suppressant)
-Antihistamines (e.g., cyclizine, cinnarizine and promethazine)

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22
Q

What can be used as prophylaxis in Meniere’s disease?

A

Betahistine

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23
Q

Vestibular suppressants do not stop the vertigo in BPPV. How can this condition be managed?

A
  • Epley manoeuvre
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24
Q

How is vestibular migraine managed?

A

Usually managed by avoiding triggers and lifestyle changes (e.g., getting enough sleep and staying hydrated).
Medical management is similar to migraines, with triptans for the acute symptoms and propranolol, topiramate or amitriptyline to prevent attacks.

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25
Q

What is polypharmacy?

A

The concurrent use of multiple medications in an individual

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26
Q

What are 7 helpful steps to appropriate polypharmacy?

A

1: What matters to the patient
- Patient understanding objectives of drug therapy, management of existing health conditions and prevention of future health problems

2: Identify essential drug therapy
- Drugs that have essential replacement functions (eg levothyroxine) and drugs to prevent rapid symptomatic decline (eg drugs for Parkinson’s disease, heart failure)

3: Does the patient take unnecessary drug therapy?
- Review drugs with temporary indications, higher than usual maintenance doses and those with limited benefit
- For remaining drugs verify that each has a function that matters to the patient, review preventative treatment to ensure the pt is able to continue taking the medication for the required time to benefit, see if any lifestyle changes can replace unnecessary drug therapy

4: Are therapeutic objectives being achieved?
- Symptom control, biochemical/clinical targets, preventing disease/ exacerbation
- Check adherence

5: Are there ADRs?
- Check interactions, correct monitoring and dosage
- Check side effects and lab markers, cumulative adverse drug effects and drugs that may be used to treat ADRs from other drugs

  1. Is the drug therapy cost-effective
    - Consider more cost effective alternatives

7: is the patient willing and able to take the drug therapy as intended?
- Correct form, dosing schedule, assistance if needed

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27
Q

What is appropriate polypharmacy?

A

Prescribing for an individual for complex conditions or for multiple conditions in circumstances where medicines use has been optimised and where the medicines are prescribed according to best evidence

It is present when:
(a) all drugs are prescribed for the purpose of achieving specific therapeutic objectives that have been agreed with the patient;
(b) therapeutic objectives are actually being achieved or there is a reasonable chance they will be achieved in the future;
(c) drug therapy has been optimized to minimize the risk of ADRs and
(d) the patient is motivated and able to take all medicines as intended.

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28
Q

What is inappropriate polypharmacy?

A

Present, when one or more drugs are prescribed that are not or no longer needed, either because:
(a) there is no evidence based indication, the indication has expired or the dose is unnecessarily high;
(b) one or more medicines fail to achieve the therapeutic objectives they are intended to achieve;
(c) one, or the combination of several drugs cause inacceptable adverse drug reactions (ADRs), or put the patient at an unacceptably high risk of such ADRs, or because
(d) the patient is not willing or able to take one or more medicines as intended.

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29
Q

What is frailty?

A

Frailty is well defined as a ‘reduced ability to withstand illness without loss of function’. The Gold Standards Framework defines this further as:

  1. Multiple co-morbidities with signs of impairment in day to day functioning
  2. Combination of at least three of:
    - Weakness
    - Slow walking speed
    - Low physical activity
    - Weight loss
    - Self-reported exhaustion
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30
Q

What is the Number needed to treat?

A

The number needed to treat (NNT) is a measure used in assessing the effectiveness of a particular intervention. The NNT is the average number of patients who require to be treated for one to benefit compared with a control in a clinical trial. It can be expressed as the reciprocal of the absolute risk reduction.

The ideal NNT is 1, where everyone improves with treatment: the higher the NNT, the less effective is the treatment in terms of the trial outcome and timescale.

So if treatment with a medicine reduces the death rate over 5 years from 5% to 1% (very effective), the absolute risk reduction is 4% (5 minus 1), and the NNT is 100/4, (25).

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31
Q

What is multimorbidity?

A

Be aware that multimorbidity refers to the presence of 2 or more long-term health conditions, which can include:
- defined physical and mental health conditions such as diabetes or schizophrenia
- ongoing conditions such as learning disability
- symptom complexes such as frailty or chronic pain
- sensory impairment such as sight or hearing loss
- alcohol and substance misuse.

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32
Q

How should frailty be assessed in the community and in hospital outpatient settings?

A
  • Consider assessing frailty in people with multimorbidity.
  • Be cautious about assessing frailty in a person who is acutely unwell.
  • Do not use a physical performance tool to assess frailty in a person who is acutely unwell.

Primary care and community care settings
When assessing frailty in primary and community care settings, consider using 1 of the following:
- an informal assessment of gait speed (for example, time taken to answer the door, time taken to walk from the waiting room)
- self-reported health status (that is, ‘how would you rate your health status on a scale from 0 to 10?’, with scores of 6 or less indicating frailty)
- a formal assessment of gait speed, with more than 5 seconds to walk 4 metres indicating frailty
- the PRISMA-7 questionnaire, with scores of 3 and above indicating frailty.

Hospital outpatient settings
When assessing frailty in hospital outpatient settings, consider using 1 of the following:
0 self-reported health status (that is, ‘how would you rate your health status on a scale from 0 to 10?’, with scores of 6 or less indicating frailty)
- the ‘Timed Up and Go’ test, with times of more than 12 seconds indicating frailty
- a formal assessment of gait speed, with more than 5 seconds to walk 4 metres indicating frailty
- the PRISMA‑7 questionnaire, with scores of 3 and above indicating frailty
- self-reported physical activity, with frailty indicated by scores of 56 or less for men and 59 or less for women using the Physical Activity Scale for the Elderly.

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33
Q

What are the complications of multimorbidity?

A
  • Decreased quality of life and life expectancy
  • Increased treatment burden: Difficulties in understanding and self-managing condition as well as adherence to lifestyle changes
  • Mental health issues: Those with cognitive impairment are particularly vulnerable
  • Polypharmacy: Adverse drug events increase in prevalence as the number of chronic conditions increases
  • Negative impact on carers welfare
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34
Q

How should multimorbidity be assessed?

A
  • Identify those who may benefit from the recognition of multimorbidity, opportunistically in routine care or through healthcare records
  • Patients may require a multimorbidity approach if they: Have difficulties with daily activities, are frail, are prescribed over 10 medications, or frequently seek emergency care services
  • Establish the extent of disease burden: Discuss mental health issues, wellbeing and the interaction between their health and quality of life
  • Investigate how their treatment burden affects their daily activities
  • Ask about social circumstances and assess their health literacy
  • Assess the adequacy of pain management particularly in chronic pain conditions
  • Frailty should be specifically assessed through the evaluation of gait speed, self-reported health status, or the PRISMA-7 questionnaire: The PRISMA-7 involves questions considering the age, sex, health problems, assistance required and walking aid use of the patient
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35
Q

What are some strategies to manage multimorbidity?

A
  • Reducing treatment burden and optimising care is the goal in managing comorbidity
  • Maximise the benefits of existing treatments
  • Offer alternative follow-up arrangements if they are struggling to meet them
  • Reduce the number of high risk medications being prescribed and consider the use of non-pharmacological treatments
  • Consider a ‘bisphosphonate holiday’ in those taking bisphosphonates for longer than three years as there is no consistent evidence of continued benefits after this point. Discuss stopping bisphosphonates after 3 years and include patient choice, fracture risk and life expectancy in the discussion.
  • Consider the use of screening tools such as STOPP/ START in older people to recognise medicine safety concerns: STOPP identifies medications where the risk outweighs the therapeutic benefits in certain conditions and START suggests medications that may provide additional benefits ie proton pump inhibitors for gastroprotection in patients on medications increasing bleeding risk
  • Especially consider stopping the use of medications such as NSAIDS, warfarin and aspirin in patients with peptic ulcer disease, and pay particular attention to the prescription of reno-toxic or renally cleared drugs in reduced renal function
  • Ask patients about the benefits and harms of their individual treatments, considering the overall prognostic benefit
  • Promote self-management through education and engagement strategies
  • Support carers and families of patients
  • Use the action plan to follow up with the patient at agreed points: NHS England recommends a yearly review of all medications for people aged over 65, however, medications should be reviewed periodically to ensure that patients are being informed, given adequate laboratory tests and that treatments are optimised
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36
Q

What are the risk factors for multimorbidity?

A

Increasing age
Female sex
Low socioeconomic status
Tobacco and alcohol usage
Lack of physical activity
Poor nutrition and obesity

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37
Q

What are the parts to the PRISMA-7 questionnaire?

A

1 - Are you older than 85 years?
2 - Are you male?
3 - In general, do you have any health problems that require you to limit your activities?
4 - Do you need someone to help you regularly?
5 - In general, do you have any health problems that require you to stay at home?
6 - If you need help, can you count on someone close to you?
7 - Do you regularly use a cane, a walker or a wheelchair to move about?

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38
Q

What factors might precipitate delirium?

A
  • infection: particularly urinary tract infections
  • metabolic: e.g. hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, hyperglycaemia, dehydration
  • change of environment
  • any significant cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological or endocrine condition
  • severe pain
  • alcohol withdrawal
  • constipation
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39
Q

What are the features of delirium?

A
  • memory disturbances (loss of short term > long term)
  • may be very agitated or withdrawn
  • disorientation
  • mood change
  • visual hallucinations
  • disturbed sleep cycle
  • poor attention
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40
Q

How is delirium managed?

A
  • treatment of the underlying cause
  • modification of the environment
  • haloperidol 0.5 mg as the first-line sedative
  • management can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can often worsen Parkinsonian symptoms
    *careful reduction of the Parkinson medication may be helpful
    *if symptoms require urgent treatment then the atypical antipsychotics quetiapine and clozapine are preferred
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41
Q

How is alzheimer’s disease managed?

A
  1. Non-pharmacological management
    NICE recommend offering ‘a range of activities to promote wellbeing that are tailored to the person’s preference’
    NICE recommend offering group cognitive stimulation therapy for patients with mild and moderate dementia
    other options to consider include group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation
  2. Pharmacological management
    - the three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine and rivastigmine) as options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease
    - memantine (an NMDA receptor antagonist) is in simple terms the ‘second-line’ treatment for Alzheimer’s, NICE recommend it is used in the following situation reserved for patients with
    *moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of, or have a contraindication to, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
    *as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s
    *monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s
  3. Managing non-cognitive symptoms
    - NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia
    - antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others, or when the agitation, hallucinations or delusions are causing them severe distress
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42
Q

When is donepezil contraindicated?

A

is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia
adverse effects include insomnia

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43
Q

What are the risk factors for alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • increasing age
  • family history of Alzheimer’s disease
    5% of cases are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
    mutations in the amyloid precursor protein (chromosome 21), presenilin 1 (chromosome 14) and presenilin 2 (chromosome 1) genes are thought to cause the inherited form
  • apoprotein E allele E4 - encodes a cholesterol transport protein
  • Caucasian ethnicity
  • Down’s syndrome
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44
Q

What are the pathological changes in alzheimer’s disease?

A

Pathological changes
1. macroscopic:
- widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly involving the cortex and hippocampus
2. microscopic:
- cortical plaques due to deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein
- hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to AD
3. biochemical
- there is a deficit of acetylcholine from damage to an ascending forebrain projection

Neurofibrillary tangles
- paired helical filaments are partly made from a protein called tau
tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules
- in AD are tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing its function

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45
Q

What is needed for a normal gait and how can impairment lead to falls?

A

Normal gait involves:
- The neurological system - basal ganglia and cortical basal ganglia loop.
- The musculoskeletal system (which must have appropriate tone and strength).
- Effective processing of the senses such as sight, sound, and sensation (fine touch and proprioception).

As individuals get older they are more likely to experience medical problems affecting these systems, which leads to gait abnormalities and increases the risk of falls.

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46
Q

What are the risk factors for falling?

A

Falls often occur due to a range of factors and individuals who have fallen previously are at a significantly higher risk of falling again. Other risk factors include:
- Lower limb muscle weakness
- Vision problems
- Balance/gait disturbances (diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis and parkinson’s disease etc)
- Polypharmacy (4+ medications)
- Incontinence
- >65
- Have a fear of falling
- Depression
- Postural hypotension
- Arthritis in lower limbs
- Psychoactive drugs
- Cognitive impairment

Some studies have shown that individuals with 4 or more risk factors have up to a 78% chance of falling It is not possible to remove all risk factors but it is important to limit these where possible.

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47
Q

What risk assessment should be made following a fall?

A

It is important to establish the following from the history:
- Where was the patient when they fell?
- When did they fall?
- Did anyone else see the patient fall? (collateral history)
- What happened? Were there any associated features before/during/after
- Why do they think they fell?
- Have they fallen before?
- Systems review
- Past medical history (especially issues related to balance/sight/gait)
- Social history

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48
Q

Which medications can cause postural hypotension?

A

Nitrates
Diuretics
Anticholinergic medications
Antidepressants
Beta-blockers
L-Dopa
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors - (ACE) inhibitors

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49
Q

Which medications are associated with falls (other than those causing postural hypotension)?

A

Benzodiazepines
Antipsychotics
Opiates
Anticonvulsants
Codeine
Digoxin
Other sedative agents

50
Q

How should falls be investigated?

A

Investigations to consider
Bedside tests - Basic observations, blood pressure, blood glucose, urine dip and ECG
Bloods - Full Blood Count, Urea and Electrolytes, Liver function tests and bone profile
Imaging - X-ray of chest/injured limbs, CT head and cardiac echo

51
Q

What is the Turn 180 test?

A

Turn180 is a clinically useful test of dynamic postural stability suitable for assessing frail elderly people. Previous research indicates that people who take more than four steps to complete a 180° turn have an increased risk of falling compared with people who take four steps or less.

52
Q

What is the timed up and go test?

A

It uses the time that a person takes to rise from a chair, walk three meters, turn around 180 degrees, walk back to the chair, and sit down while turning 180 degrees. During the test, the person is expected to wear their regular footwear and use any mobility aids that they would normally require. The TUG is used frequently in the elderly population, as it is easy to administer and can generally be completed by most older adults.

One source suggests that scores of ten seconds or less indicate normal mobility, 11–20 seconds are within normal limits for frail elderly and disabled patients, and greater than 20 seconds means the person needs assistance outside and indicates further examination and intervention. A score of 30 seconds or more suggests that the person may be prone to falls.

53
Q

What is frailty and what is the frailty phenotype?

A

Frailty = A syndrome characterized by diminished strength, endurance and physiological function which increases the individual’s vulnerability to dependency and death.

Frailty correlates with increasing age, disease and disability.

Frailty Phenotype
The Fried model defines frailty as the presence of three or more of:
- Unintentional weight loss
- Weakness evidenced by poor grip strength
- Self reported exhaustionSlow walking speed
- Low level of physical activity

Individuals with one or two characteristics = pre-frail
Phenotypic frailty is predictive of a higher risk of falls, hospitalization, disability and death

54
Q

What is the frailty index?

A

The frailty index is a count of health deficits i.e. the more deficits the frailer the person and the greater the risk of deterioration and death.
- Best known index is Rockwood Frailty Index
- Deficits comprise of symptoms, signs, diseases, disabilities and investigation findings – each one carries same weighting Ratio is calculated by:

Number of deficits / Total number of deficits considered

  • Higher scores on the index have an increased risk of deterioration in health, institutionalization and death *Very fit = <0.09 – robust, active, energetic, motivated
    *Well – no active disease and exercise occasionally
    *Managing well – medical problems are well controlled but not regularly active beyond walking
    *Vulnerable – symptoms limit activities, tired during day
  • Mildly frail = 0.27 – need help for high order ADLs e.g. finance
  • Moderately frail – need help with house keeping and bathing
    *Severely frail = 0.42 – completely dependent for personal care, not at high risk of dying
    *Very seriously frail – completely dependent, approaching end of life
    *Terminally ill – life expectancy <6 months but may not be evidently frail

Limitation is that detailed measurements and collation of patient data is needed.

55
Q

What are the physiological markers of frailty?

A

Individuals who are frail have:
- Increased inflammation – e.g. CRP, IL6, factor VIII and fibrinogen
- Elevated insulin and glucose levels in fasting state
- Low albumin
- Raised D dimer and alpha anti-trypsin - Low vitamin D levels

56
Q

What interventions are available for frailty?

A
  1. Physical activity - Exercises focusing on strength and balance
  2. Protein-calorie supplementation
  3. Vitamin D supplements
  4. Minimization of polypharmacy as this predisposes to frailty
57
Q

How are pharmacokinetics different in the elderly?

A

Distribution
With ageing, total body fat increases, therefore increasing the volume of distribution for fat soluble drugs
Total body water decreases, decreasing the volume of distribution of water soluble drugs
Serum albumin decreases which increases the effects of albumin bound drugs as the levels of unbound drugs increases

Metabolism
Reduced liver volume and enzyme activity in older people leads to reduced hepatic metabolism
To prevent toxic accumulation, doses should be reduced or the dosing interval increased

Elimination
Changes in GFR can decrease the excretion of drugs from the kidneys
To prevent toxic accumulation, doses should be reduced or the dosing interval increased

58
Q

What are the risk factors for pressure ulcers?

A

Pressure ulcers develop in patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis or advancing age. They typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. The following factors predispose to the development of pressure ulcers:
- malnourishment
- incontinence
- lack of mobility
- pain (leads to a reduction in mobility)

59
Q

Which score can be used for pressure ulcers?

A

The Waterlow score is widely used to screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas. It includes a number of factors including body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility and continence.

60
Q

How are pressure ulcers graded?

A

Grading of pressure ulcers - the following is taken from the European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system.

Grade 1 - Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. Discolouration of the skin, warmth, oedema, induration or hardness may also be used as indicators, particularly on individuals with darker skin
Grade 2 - Partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis or dermis, or both. The ulcer is superficial and presents clinically as an abrasion or blister
Grade 3 - Full thickness skin loss involving damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia.
Grade 4 - Extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss

61
Q

How are pressure sores managed?

A
  • a moist wound environment encourages ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help facilitate this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound
  • wound swabs should not be done routinely as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonised with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis (e.g. Evidence of surrounding cellulitis)
  • consider referral to the tissue viability nurse
  • surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds
62
Q

In which types of dementia should acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine not be used?

A

Frontotemporal dementia

Only consider for vascular dementia if there is suspected comorbid Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease dementia or dementia with Lewy bodies.

63
Q

What is the aetiology and causes of a fractured neck of femur?

A

The hip joint is stabilised by a capsule, which is formed of three ligaments: the iliofemoral, ischiofemoral and pubofemoral ligaments.

The femoral head receives blood supply from three arterial sources:
- Nutrient arteries inside the bone
- Ligamentum teres
- The femoral circumflex arteries: encircle the femoral neck on top of the capsule

Causes of neck of femur fractures:
The majority of neck of femur fractures occur in older patients because of low-energy trauma (e.g. a fall from standing height).

Other causes of neck of femur fractures include:
- High energy trauma: may cause neck of femur fractures in younger patients
- Pathological fractures: a fracture in a diseased bone (due to a tumour or infection)
- Reduced bone mineral density: osteopenia and osteoporosis. May be seen in younger patients due to long-term corticosteroid use, alcohol consumption or malnutrition.
- Stress fractures: less common

64
Q

How are Neck of Femur fractures classified?

A

The classification of neck of femur fractures is used to guide management. Fractures can be classified by anatomical location or by the degree of displacement or angulation.

  1. Anatomical location
    - A neck of femur fracture occurring proximal to the intertrochanteric line is intracapsular and involves damage to the joint capsule. As a result, the blood supply from the femoral circumflex arteries and nutrient arteries inside the bone are disrupted. The only intact artery supplying the femoral head in this situation is the artery within the ligamentum teres which is not enough to keep the femoral head viable. This can ultimately lead to avascular necrosis.
    As a result, intracapsular fractures have a high risk of avascular necrosis of the femoral head and non-union of the fracture.
  • Extracapsular fractures are below the intertrochanteric line. These typically include intertrochanteric and subtrochanteric fractures, where the joint capsule is not damaged and the blood supply to the fracture site is sufficient, leading to better fracture healing and an improved prognosis.
  • Pathological fractures tend to be in the subtrochanteric region, which is subject to the most stress.
  1. Garden classification
    The Garden classification classifies fractures according to the degree of displacement as seen on an AP radiograph:

Stage I: incomplete fracture line or impacted fracture
Stage II: complete fracture line, non-displaced
Stage III: complete fracture line, partial displacement
Stage IV: complete fracture line, complete displacement

  1. Pauwels classification
    The Pauwels classification classifies fractures according to the angle of the fracture line from horizontal:

Type I: between 0 and 30 degrees
Type II: between 30 and 50 degrees
Type III: more than 50 degrees

65
Q

What are the risk factors for a fractured NOF?

A
  • Age (≥65 years in women and ≥75 years in men)
  • History and risk factors of osteoporosis including menopause, amenorrhoea, smoking, excessive alcohol or caffeine intake, physical inactivity, long-term or high-dose corticosteroid use
  • Previous fragility fracture
  • History of falls
  • Poor nutrition
  • Low body mass index (<18.5kg/m2)
  • Dementia
  • Visual impairment: which increases the risk of falls and subsequently fractures
  • History of tumours (primary or secondary bone tumours, breast, bowel, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid tumours)
66
Q

What are the clinical features of a fractured NOF?

A

Typical symptoms of neck of femur fractures include:
- Pain: in the hip, groin or knee
- Unable to weight-bear
- Decreased or painful mobility of the affected hip

Other important areas to cover in the history include:
Past medical history: previous history of cancer, bone tumours, fragility fractures, cognitive impairment, and other co-morbidities
Drug history: medications may cause osteoporosis (e.g. corticosteroids) or have contributed to the fall (e.g. sedatives/hypnotics, antidepressants, diuretics, beta-blockers)
Social history: lifestyle habits, home situation, living environment, activities of daily living
Frailty scoring: using the Clinical Frailty Scale, according to the patient’s pre-morbid function

Clinical examination
Where a neck of femur fracture is suspected, an examination of the hip is necessary. However, excessive movement of the hip should be avoided as this can further displace the fracture.

Typical clinical findings in neck of femur fracture include:
- The affected leg is shortened, externally rotated and abducted
- Palpation of the hip produces pain
- The patient is unable to perform a straight leg raise (useful for discerning occult hip fractures)
- Pain on gentle internal and external rotation of the affected leg (log roll test)
- Soft tissue symptoms: bruising and swelling in and around the hip area

67
Q

How should fractured NOFs be investigated?

A

Investigations are performed to confirm a fracture, investigate the underlying cause, and assess for complications.

  1. Bedside investigations
    - ECG: look for arrhythmias and coronary events that may have precipitated a fall.
  2. Laboratory investigations
    - Baseline blood tests: FBC, U&E, coagulation screen
    - Creatinine kinase: to look for rhabdomyolysis (if the patient had been on the floor for a long time)
    - Urinalysis: to assess for urinary tract infection or hyperglycaemia
    - Group and save: blood loss from a neck of femur can be significant and a blood transfusion may be required
  3. Imaging
    - X-rays: AP pelvis and lateral hip are the first-line imaging investigation. In patients with a history of malignancy, it’s recommended to obtain a full-length femoral X-ray looking for metastases and pathological fractures.
    - MRI: the gold standard investigation to exclude a hip fracture. MRI is especially useful for detecting fractures not seen on plain X-ray.
    - CT: If MRI is not available, a CT hip can be performed. CT is recommended in patients with greater trochanteric fractures (as 20% of greater trochanteric fractures extend into the femoral neck).
  4. Other investigations
    In the case of a suspected pathological fracture caused by bony metastases, the femoral head is surgically removed during surgery and sent to pathology to ascertain the histological origins and to help identify the primary tumour.
68
Q

How are fractured NOFs managed?

A
  1. Initial management
    - Analgesia: paracetamol, opioids and iliofascial/femoral nerve blocks. NSAIDs should not be used.
    - Intravenous access: for fluid resuscitation, blood transfusion and the administration of medications.
    - Assess and manage complications to prevent delays in surgical management (e.g. correct anaemia, anticoagulation, volume depletion and infection).
    - Elderly patients must also be under joint care with an orthogeriatrician.
  2. Surgical management
    - The principles of surgical management are urgent reduction and internal fixation followed by early mobilisation.
    - Patients should have surgery within 36 hours of admission. Benefits of early surgery include higher rates of independent living, lower rates of non-union, shorter hospital admission, reduced pain scores, lower rates of complications and reduced 30-day and 1-year mortality rates.
    - Early mobilisation helps to prevent post-operative complications including venous thromboembolism, pressure ulcers, bronchopneumonia and other problems arising from prolonged immobility.

*Intracapsular fractures
In younger (<65-years-old), or physiologically fit patients, the femoral head should be rescued. Cannulated screws or a dynamic hip screw can be inserted.
Cannulated screws involve a set of screws being driven into the femoral head across the fracture which stabilises the fracture. A DHS is a dynamic plate screwed across the fracture line into the femoral head.
A DHS permits organised collapse of the fracture when the patient weight-bears. This improves fracture healing and union.
In older patients, a total or hemi hip arthroplasty is recommended. This involves the removal of the femoral head and insertion of a prosthetic replacement. The acetabulum can also be reinforced with a socket in the context of significant osteoarthritic disease.

*Extracapsular fractures
For extracapsular fractures, internal fixation is favourable with DHS or trochanteric femoral intramedullary nailing with screws entering the femoral head. Multi-fragmentary fractures require more complex fixation due to instability.34

  1. Non-operative management
    Although surgical management is the first-line management option, some patients may not be suitable for surgical intervention.

Indications for non-operative management include:
- Patients that are too unwell to undergo surgery
- Short life expectancy
- Delayed presentation or diagnosis of fracture with signs of healing
- Immobile patients
- Patients who decline surgery
These patients can be managed conservatively through casts, splints and traction. Periodic X-rays of the affected hip are necessary to guide management.

  1. Post-operative management
    The aims of post-operative management are to enhance recovery, promote early mobilisation and prevent future fractures and complications.
  • Analgesia
  • Rehabilitation
  • Falls risk assessment
  • Dietetic assessment
  • Early mobilisation
  • Axial bone densitometry: Assess for osteoporosis and offer anti-resorptive therapy to reduce risk of future fragility fractures.
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis: To prevent surgical site infections a significant cause of mortality.
  • Thromboembolism prophylaxis

In the United Kingdom, if a hip replacement has been performed the details must be registered with the National Joint Registry. In addition, patients should be referred for assessment and management of osteoporosis if they have suffered a fragility fracture from low-energy trauma.

69
Q

How should falls be managed?

A

Once transient loss of consciousness has been ruled out, it is important to complete a full falls risk assessment. This is indicated in order to identify any causative features especially as older people are likely to have multiple co-existing risk factors. Although priority should be to treat any underlying medical cause (e.g. pacemaker if complete heart block), all causes should be addressed where possible. Due to the complex aetiology, it is important to continue to search for possible risk factors and causes of falls even when one has been found.

  1. Gait - Physiotherapy
  2. Visual problems - Eye test and ensure wears glasses
  3. Hearing difficulties - Remove earwax, Hearing assessment
  4. Medications review - Reduce unnecessary medication
  5. Alcohol intake - Alcohol cessation advice, Alcohol service referral
  6. Cognitive impairment - Referral to a psychiatric team
  7. Postural hypotension - Review medication, Improve hydration
  8. Continence - Treat or rule out infections, Continence assessment
  9. Footwear - Ensure good fitting footwear
  10. Environmental hazards - Turn on lights, Take up rugs
70
Q

What is the aetiology/pathogenesis of osteoarthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis is the result of active, sometimes inflammatory but potentially reparative processes, rather than the inevitable result of trauma and aging. It is characterised by:
-Progressive destruction and loss of articular cartilage with an accompanying periarticular bone response
-The exposed subchondral bone becomes sclerotic, with increased vascularity and cyst formation
-Attempts at repair produce cartilagenous growth at the margins of the joints, which later become calcified (osteophytes)
-Several mechanisms have been suggested for the pathogenesis:
1. Metalloproteinases eg Stromalycin and collagenase, secreted by chrondrocytes degrade collagen and proteoglycans
2. IL-1 and TNF-alpha stimulate metaloproteinase production and inhibit collagen production
3. Deficiency of growth factors such as insulin-like growth factor and transforming growth factor impairs the matrix repair
4. Genetic susceptibility (35-65% influence) from multiple genes rather than a single gene defect, mutations for the gene for type 2 collagen have been associated with early polyarticular osetoarthritis
Most osteoarthritis is primary with no obvious predisposing factor
Secondary osteoarthritis occurs in joints that have been damaged in some way or are congenitally abnormal

71
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of osteoarthritis?

A

KEY: Joint pain, relieved by movement and made worse by rest. Morning stiffness is less than 30 minutes

SYMPTOMS:
-Gradual onset usually beginning with one or a couple of joints.
-Earliest symptom is pain, usually described as aching and is usually worsened by weight-bearing and relieved by rest
-Stiffness follows awakening or inactivity but lasts less than 30 minutes and lessens with movement
-Tenderness, crepitus and grating sensation
-Can get locking and catching as a result of intra-articular loose bodies or abnormal menisci
-Stiffness occurs after rest (gelling)

SIGNS:
-As osteoarthritis progresses, joint motion becomes restricted
-Joint swelling, Joint enlargement ultimately occurs due to proliferation of cartilage, bone, ligament, tendon, capsules and synovium along with varying amounts of joint effusion
-Synovitis which can present as effusion, warmth and synovial thickening
-Periarticular tenderness
-Bouchard’s (PIP) and Heberden’s (DIP) nodes
-Joints most commonly affected: DIPs and PIPs, 1st CMCJ,1st MTPJ cervical and lumbar spine, hip, knee
-Joint instability
-Muscle weakness or wasting around the affected joint

72
Q

How is osteoarthritis investigated?

A

GOLD STANDARD/ DIAGNOSTIC:
-Usually diagnosed from the history if a person is over 45 AND has activity-related joint pain AND has either no morning joint related stiffness or morning stiffness that lasts no longer than 30 minutes
-Plain Xray: Diagnostic features are
1. Osteophytes
2. Joint space narrowing
3. Bone cysts
4. Subarticular sclerosis

OTHERS:
-MRI: may be useful to distinguish other causes of joint pain
-Blood tests: normal in osteoarthritis but should be checked for abnormalities which may indicate other diagnoses (do before starting patients on long term NSAIDs)
-Joint aspiration to exclude septic arthritis and gout

73
Q

How is osteoarthritis managed?

A

1st LINE:
Medication:
1. Paracetamol is the initial drug of choice for pain relief. Then go up the analgesic ladder: weak opioid in addition to paracetamol (usually codeine). NSAIDs can be used either orally or topically but they should be in short courses rather than continuously.
2. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections which produce short-term improvement when there is painful joint effusion. Systemic corticosteroids are not used
3. Topical capsaicin has been recommended as a treatment option

Surgery:
1. Joint replacement: particularly total hip and knee replacement. Have transformed the management of severe, symptomatic OA. Yields reduced pain and stiffness with an associated increase in function and mobility
ADJUVANT THERAPY:
Physical measures:
-Physiotherapy
-Heat or ice packs
-Bracing devices, joint supports and insoles
-Walking stick
-Acupuncture has been shown to help knee arthritis

74
Q

What T-scores relate to osteopenia and osteoporosis?

A

The World Health Organization (WHO) provide definitions based on the T-score of the femoral neck, measured on a DEXA scan. The T-score is the number of standard deviations the patient is from an average healthy young adult. A T-score of -1 means the bone mineral density is 1 standard deviation below the average for healthy young adults.

Normal: More than -1

Osteopenia: -1 to -2.5

Osteoporosis: Less than -2.5

Severe Osteoporosis: Less than -2.5 plus a fracture

75
Q

How is bone mineral density assessed?

A

Bone mineral density (BMD) is measured using a DEXA scan (dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry). DEXA scans are a type of x-ray that measures how much radiation is absorbed by the bones, indicating how dense the bone is. The bone mineral density can be measured anywhere on the skeleton, but the femoral neck reading is most important.

Bone density can be represented as a Z-score or T-score. The Z-score is the number of standard deviations the patient is from the average for their age, sex and ethnicity. The T-score is the number of standard deviations the patient is from an average healthy young adult. The T-score is used to make the diagnosis.

76
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  • Older age
  • Post-menopausal women (Oestrogen is protective against osteoporosis but drops significantly after menopause. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is protective against osteoporosis.)
  • Reduced mobility and activity
  • Low BMI (under 19 kg/m2)
  • Low calcium or vitamin D intake
  • Alcohol and smoking
  • Personal or family history of fractures
  • Chronic diseases (e.g., chronic kidney disease, hyperthyroidism and rheumatoid arthritis)
  • Long-term corticosteroids (e.g., 7.5mg or more of prednisolone daily for longer than 3 months)
  • Certain medications (e.g., SSRIs, PPIs, anti-epileptics and anti-oestrogens [Tamoxifen is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to treat breast cancer. It blocks oestrogen receptors in breast tissue but stimulates oestrogen receptors in the uterus and bones. It helps prevent osteoporosis but increases the risk of endometrial cancer. Raloxifene is a SERM used to treat osteoporosis (but not breast cancer in the UK)])
77
Q

Who should be assessed for osteoporosis and how?

A

The NICE clinical knowledge summaries (April 2023) recommend assessing:
- Anyone on long-term oral corticosteroids or with a previous fragility fracture
- Anyone 50 and over with risk factors
- All women 65 and over
- All men 75 and over

The 10-year risk of a major osteoporotic fracture and a hip fracture can be calculated using either:

  • QFracture tool (preferred by NICE)
  • FRAX tool (NICE say this may underestimate the risk in some patients)

Patients are categorised as low, intermediate or high risk based on the risk calculator. For QFracture, this is based on the percentage, and patients above 10% are considered for a DEXA scan. For FRAX, this is based on the NOGG guideline chart (linked to on the online FRAX tool), which advises whether to arrange a DEXA scan or start treatment.

These suggestions do not apply to specific groups. For example, NICE CKS (April 2023) suggest:
A DEXA may be arranged without calculating the risk in patients over 50 with a fragility fracture
Treatment may be started without a DEXA in patients with a vertebral fracture

78
Q

How is osteoporosis managed?

A
  1. The first step is to address reversible risk factors. For example, increase physical activity, maintain a healthy weight, stop smoking and reduce alcohol consumption.
  2. The second step is to address insufficient intake of calcium (less than 700mg per day) and inadequate vitamin D (e.g., limited sun exposure) with additional:
    - Calcium (at least 1000mg)
    - Vitamin D (400-800 IU)
  3. Bisphosphonates are the first-line treatment for osteoporosis. They are recommended for patients with osteoporosis based on a DEXA scan. They are considered in patients on long-term steroids. They work by interfering with the way osteoclasts attach to bone, reducing their activity and the reabsorption of bone.

Bisphosphonates have some important side effects:
- Reflux and oesophageal erosions
- Atypical fractures (e.g., atypical femoral fractures)
- Osteonecrosis of the jaw (regular dental checkups are recommended before and during treatment)
- Osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal

Oral bisphosphonates are taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water. Afterwards, the patient should sit upright for 30 minutes before moving or eating to reduce the risk of reflux and oesophageal erosions.

Examples of bisphosphonates are:
- Alendronate 70 mg once weekly (oral)
- Risedronate 35 mg once weekly (oral)
- Zoledronic acid 5 mg once yearly (intravenous)

The NICE CKS (2023) recommend reassessing treatment with bisphosphonates after 3-5 years. They suggest a repeat DEXA scan and stopping treatment if the T-score is more than -2.5. Treatment is continued in high-risk patients.

  1. Other specialist options for treating osteoporosis (where bisphosphonates are not suitable) include:
    - Denosumab (a monoclonal antibody that targets osteoclasts)
    - Romosozumab (a monoclonal antibody that targets sclerostin – a protein in osteocytes that inhibits bone formation)
    - Teriparatide (acts as parathyroid hormone)
    - Hormone replacement therapy (particularly in women with early menopause)
    - Raloxifene (a selective oestrogen receptor modulator): Raloxifene stimulates oestrogen receptors in the bone but not in the uterus or breast. It increases the risk of venous thromboembolism.
    - Strontium ranelate (a similar element to calcium that stimulates osteoblasts and blocks osteoclasts): Strontium ranelate increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and myocardial infarction.
79
Q

What is acute left ventricular heart failure?

A

Acute left ventricular failure occurs when an acute event results in the left ventricle being unable to move blood efficiently through the left side of the heart and into the systemic circulation.

Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected by the heart per minute. Stroke volume is the volume of blood ejected during each beat. Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume x heart rate.

When blood cannot flow efficiently through the left side of the heart, there is a backlog of blood waiting in the left atrium, pulmonary veins and lungs. As these areas experience an increased volume and pressure of blood, they start to leak fluid and cannot reabsorb excess fluid from the surrounding tissues, resulting in pulmonary oedema.

Pulmonary oedema is where the lung tissue and alveoli are filled with interstitial fluid. This interferes with normal gas exchange in the lungs, causing shortness of breath and reduced oxygen saturation.

80
Q

What are the triggers for left ventricular heart failure?

A

Acute left ventricular failure is often the result of decompensated chronic heart failure.

The potential triggers are:
- Iatrogenic (e.g., aggressive IV fluids in a frail elderly patient with impaired left ventricular function)
- Myocardial infarction
- Arrhythmias
- Sepsis
- Hypertensive emergency (acute, severe increase in blood pressure)

81
Q

What are the clinical features of acute left ventricular heart failure?

A

Acute LVF typically presents with acute shortness of breath. This is exacerbated by lying flat and improves on sitting up.

Acute LVF causes a type 1 respiratory failure (low oxygen without an increased carbon dioxide).

Symptoms include:
- Shortness of breath
- Looking and feeling unwell
- Cough with frothy white or pink sputum

Signs on examination include:
- Raised respiratory rate
- Reduced oxygen saturations
- Tachycardia (fast heart rate)
- 3rd heart sound
- Bilateral basal crackles (sounding “wet”) on auscultation of the lungs
- Hypotension in severe cases (cardiogenic shock)

There may also be signs and symptoms related to the underlying cause, for example:
- Chest pain in acute coronary syndrome
- Fever in sepsis
- Palpitations with arrhythmias

If they also have right-sided heart failure, you could find:
- Raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), caused by a backlog on the right side of the heart, leading to an engorged internal jugular vein in the neck
- Peripheral oedema of the ankles, legs and sacrum

82
Q

How is acute left ventricular heart failure assessed?

A

Assessment in patients with acute left ventricular failure includes:
1. Clinical assessment (history and examination, starting with an ABCDE approach in any acutely unwell patient)
2. ECG to look for ischaemia and arrhythmias
3. Bloods for anaemia, infection, kidney function, BNP, and consider troponin if suspecting myocardial infarction
4. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
5. Chest x-ray
6. Echocardiogram

83
Q

What is BNP and what does it indicate?

A

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone released from the heart ventricles when the cardiac muscle (myocardium) is stretched beyond the normal range. A raised BNP blood result indicates the heart is overloaded beyond its normal capacity to pump effectively.

The action of BNP is to relax the smooth muscle in blood vessels. This reduces systemic vascular resistance, making it easier for the heart to pump blood through the system. BNP also acts on the kidneys as a diuretic to promote water excretion in the urine. This reduces the circulating volume, helping to improve the function of the heart in someone that is fluid-overloaded.

BNP is sensitive but not specific. This means that when the result is negative, it helps rule out heart failure, but it can be positive due to other causes. Other causes of a raised BNP include:
- Tachycardia
- Sepsis
- Pulmonary embolism
- Renal impairment
- COPD

84
Q

What echo and CXR findings might you find in heart failure?

A

Echocardiogram
Echocardiography is helpful in assessing the function of the left ventricle and any structural abnormalities in the heart. A key measure of the left ventricular function is the ejection fraction. This is the percentage of blood in the left ventricle that is squeezed out with each ventricular contraction. An ejection fraction above 50% is considered normal.

Chest X-ray Findings
Cardiomegaly on a chest x-ray is classified as a cardiothoracic ratio of more than 0.5. This is when the diameter of the widest part of the heart (the widest part of the cardiac silhouette) is more than half the diameter of the widest part of the lung fields.

Upper lobe venous diversion may also be seen. Usually, when standing erect, the lower lobe veins contain more blood, and the upper lobe veins remain relatively small. In acute LVF, there is such a back-pressure that the upper lobe veins also fill with blood and become engorged. This is referred to as upper lobe diversion. This is visible as increased prominence and diameter of the upper lobe vessels on a chest x-ray.

Fluid leaking from oedematous lung tissue causes additional x-ray findings of:
- Bilateral pleural effusions
- Fluid in interlobar fissures (between the lung lobes)
- Fluid in the septal lines (Kerley lines)

85
Q

How is acute left ventricular heart failure managed?

A

Patients with acute left ventricular failure require hospital admission. Patients with severe pulmonary oedema or cardiogenic shock may require admission to the high dependency unit or intensive care unit. Get experienced seniors involved early.

The “sodium” mnemonic can be used for remembering the basic management of acute LVF:
S – Sit up
O – Oxygen
D – Diuretics
I – Intravenous fluids should be stopped
U – Underlying causes need to be identified and treated (e.g., myocardial infarction)
M – Monitor fluid balance

Sitting the patient up helps oxygenate the lungs. When lying flat, the fluid in the lungs spreads to a larger area. When upright, gravity takes it to the lung bases, leaving the middle and upper areas clear for better gas exchange.

Oxygen should be given for reduced oxygen saturation (below 95%). As always, be cautious with patients who have COPD, where the target saturations may be 88-92%. An arterial blood gas can help guide oxygen therapy when in doubt.

Diuretics (e.g., IV furosemide) increase the urine output of the kidneys, reducing the volume of fluid in the circulation. Reducing the circulating volume in a fluid-overloaded patient allows the heart to pump blood more effectively.

Fluid balance monitoring involves monitoring the fluid intake (oral and IV), urine output, U&Es and body weight.

Severe cases may require (guided by an experienced specialist):
- Intravenous opiates, such as morphine, which act as vasodilators
- Intravenous nitrates act as vasodilators, and may be considered in severe hypertension or acute coronary syndrome
- Inotropes, such as dobutamine, to improve cardiac output
- Vasopressors, such as noradrenalin, to improve blood pressure
- Non‑invasive ventilation
Invasive ventilation (involving intubation and sedation)

Inotropes are medications that alter the contractility of the heart. Positive inotropes act to increase the contractility of the heart. This increases cardiac output (CO) and mean arterial pressure (MAP). They are used in patients with a low cardiac output, for example, due to acute heart failure, recent myocardial infarction or following heart surgery.

Vasopressors are medications that cause vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels). This increases the systemic vascular resistance and, consequently, mean arterial pressure (MAP). Vasopressors are commonly used by anaesthetists as a bolus dose or in ICU as an infusion to improve patient’s blood pressure and, therefore, tissue perfusion.

86
Q

What is chronic heart failure and what are the causes?

A

Chronic heart failure refers to the clinical features of impaired heart function, specifically the function of the left ventricle to pump blood out of the heart and around the body.

Impaired left ventricular function results in a chronic backlog of blood waiting to flow into and through the left side of the heart. The left atrium, pulmonary veins and lungs experience an increased volume and pressure of blood. They start to leak fluid and cannot reabsorb excess fluid from the surrounding tissues, resulting in pulmonary oedema.

The ejection fraction is the percentage of blood in the left ventricle squeezed out with each ventricular contraction. An ejection fraction above 50% is considered normal.

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction is when the ejection fraction is less than 50%.

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is when someone has the clinical features of heart failure but an ejection fraction greater than 50%. This is the result of diastolic dysfunction, where there is an issue with the left ventricle filling with blood during diastole (the ventricle relaxing).

Causes
Ischaemic heart disease
Valvular heart disease (commonly aortic stenosis)
Hypertension
Arrhythmias (commonly atrial fibrillation)
Cardiomyopathy

87
Q

What are the presenting features of chronic heart failure?

A

The key symptoms of chronic heart failure are:
Breathlessness, worsened by exertion
Cough, which may produce frothy white/pink sputum
Orthopnoea, which is breathlessness when lying flat, relieved by sitting or standing (ask how many pillows they use)
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (more detail below)
Peripheral oedema
Fatigue

Signs on examination include:
Tachycardia (raised heart rate)
Tachypnoea (raised respiratory rate)
Hypertension
Murmurs on auscultation indicating valvular heart disease
3rd heart sound on auscultation
Bilateral basal crackles (sounding “wet”) on auscultation of the lungs, indicating pulmonary oedema
Raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), caused by a backlog on the right side of the heart, leading to an engorged internal jugular vein in the neck
Peripheral oedema of the ankles, legs and sacrum

88
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) describes the experience that patients have of suddenly waking at night with a severe attack of shortness of breath, cough and wheeze.

They may describe having to sit on the side of the bed or walk around the room, gasping for breath. They may feel suffocated and want to open a window to get fresh air. Symptoms improve over several minutes.

There are a few proposed mechanisms to explain paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea.

Firstly, fluid settles across a large surface area of the lungs as they lie flat to sleep, causing breathlessness. As they stand up, the fluid sinks to the lung bases, and the upper lung areas function more effectively.

Secondly, during sleep, the respiratory centre in the brain becomes less responsive, so the respiratory rate and effort do not increase in response to reduced oxygen saturation like they would when awake. This allows the person to develop more significant pulmonary congestion and hypoxia before they wake up feeling very unwell.

Thirdly, there is less adrenalin circulating during sleep. Less adrenalin means the myocardium is more relaxed, reducing cardiac output.

89
Q

How is chronic heart failure assessed?

A

Establishing a diagnosis of heart failure involves:
Clinical assessment (history and examination)
N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test
ECG
Echocardiogram

Other investigations include:
Bloods for anaemia, renal function, thyroid function, liver function, lipids and diabetes
Chest x-ray and lung function tests to exclude lung pathology

90
Q

What are the classes of the new york heart association classification?

A

The New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification system is used to grade the severity of symptoms related to heart failure. Here is a simplified summary:

Class I: No limitation on activity
Class II: Comfortable at rest but symptomatic with ordinary activities
Class III: Comfortable at rest but symptomatic with any activity
Class IV: Symptomatic at rest

91
Q

Which levels of pro-BNP indicate urgent referral?

A
  • From 400 – 2000 ng/litre should be seen and have an echocardiogram within 6 weeks
  • Above 2000 ng/litre should be seen and have an echocardiogram within 2 weeks
92
Q

What are the medical treatments for chronic heart failure?

A

The first-line medical treatment of chronic heart failure can be remembered with the “ABAL” mnemonic:

A – ACE inhibitor (e.g., ramipril) titrated as high as tolerated
B – Beta blocker (e.g., bisoprolol) titrated as high as tolerated
A – Aldosterone antagonist when symptoms are not controlled with A and B (e.g., spironolactone or eplerenone)
L – Loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide or bumetanide)

An angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) (e.g., candesartan) can be used instead of an ACE inhibitor if not tolerated. Avoid ACE inhibitors in patients with valvular heart disease until initiated by a specialist.

Aldosterone antagonists are used when there is a reduced ejection fraction and symptoms are not controlled with an ACEi and beta blocker.

Patients should have their U&Es closely monitored whilst taking diuretics, ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists, as all three medications can cause electrolyte disturbances. It is particularly essential to closely monitor the renal function in patients taking ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists. Both can cause hyperkalaemia (raised potassium), which is potentially fatal.

Additional specialist treatments in patients with heart failure are:
SGLT2 inhibitor (e.g., dapagliflozin)
Sacubitril with valsartan (brand name Entresto)
Ivabradine
Hydralazine with a nitrate
Digoxin

93
Q

What procedures/surgical interventions can be used for chronic heart failure?

A

Surgical procedures may be used to treat underlying valvular heart disease.

Implantable cardioverter defibrillators continually monitor the heart and apply a defibrillator shock to cardiovert the patient back into sinus rhythm if they identify a shockable arrhythmia. These are used in patients who previously had ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.

Cardiac resynchronisation therapy (CRT) may be used in severe heart failure, with an ejection fraction of less than 35%. CRT involves biventricular (triple chamber) pacemakers, with leads in the right atrium, right ventricle and left ventricle. The objective is to synchronise the contractions in these chambers to optimise heart function.

A heart transplant may be considered in suitable patients with severe disease.

94
Q

What is urge incontinence?

A

Urge incontinence is caused by overactivity of the detrusor muscle of the bladder. Urge incontinence is also known as overactive bladder. The typical description is of suddenly feeling the urge to pass urine, having to rush to the bathroom and not arriving before urination occurs. Women with urge incontinence are very conscious about always having access to a toilet, and may avoid activities or places where they may not have easy access. This can have a significant impact on their quality of life, and stop them doing work and leisure activities.

95
Q

What is stress incontinence?

A

The pelvic floor consists of a sling of muscles that support the contents of the pelvic. There are three canals through the centre of the female pelvic floor: the urethral, vaginal and rectal canals. When the muscles of the pelvic floor are weak, the canals become lax, and the organs are poorly supported within the pelvis.

Stress incontinence is due to weakness of the pelvic floor and sphincter muscles. This allows urine to leak at times of increased pressure on the bladder. The typical description of stress incontinence is urinary leakage when laughing, coughing or surprised.

96
Q

What is mixed incontinence?

A

Mixed incontinence refers to a combination of urge incontinence and stress incontinence. It is crucial to identify which of the two is having the more significant impact and address this first.

97
Q

What is overflow incontinence?

A

Overflow incontinence can occur when there is chronic urinary retention due to an obstruction to the outflow of urine. Chronic urinary retention results in an overflow of urine, and the incontinence occurs without the urge to pass urine. It can occur with anticholinergic medications, fibroids, pelvic tumours and neurological conditions such as multiple sclerosis, diabetic neuropathy and spinal cord injuries. Overflow incontinence is more common in men, and rare in women. Women with suspected overflow incontinence should be referred for urodynamic testing and specialist management.

98
Q

What are the risk factors for urinary incontinence?

A

Increased age
Postmenopausal status
Increase BMI
Previous pregnancies and vaginal deliveries
Pelvic organ prolapse
Pelvic floor surgery
Neurological conditions, such as multiple sclerosis
Cognitive impairment and dementia

99
Q

How is urinary incontinence assessed?

A

A medical history should distinguish between the types of incontinence. Try to differentiate between urinary leakage with coughing or sneezing (stress incontinence), and incontinence due to a sudden urge to pass urine with loss of control on the way to the toilet (urge incontinence).

Assess for modifiable lifestyle factors that can contribute to symptoms:
Caffeine consumption
Alcohol consumption
Medications
Body mass index (BMI)

Assess the severity by asking about:
Frequency of urination
Frequency of incontinence
Nighttime urination
Use of pads and changes of clothing

Examination should assess the pelvic tone and examine for:
Pelvic organ prolapse
Atrophic vaginitis
Urethral diverticulum
Pelvic masses
During the examination, ask the patient to cough and watch for leakage from the urethra.

The strength of the pelvic muscle contractions can be assessed during a bimanual examination by asking the woman to squeeze against the examining fingers. This can be graded using the modified Oxford grading system:
0: No contraction
1: Faint contraction
2: Weak contraction
3: Moderate contraction with some resistance
4: Good contraction with resistance
5: Strong contraction, a firm squeeze and drawing inwards

100
Q

Which investigations are used for urinary incontinence?

A

A bladder diary should be completed, tracking fluid intake and episodes of urination and incontinence over at least three days. There should be a mix of work and leisure days.

Urine dipstick testing should be performed to assess for infection, microscopic haematuria and other pathology.

Post-void residual bladder volume should be measured using a bladder scan to assess for incomplete emptying.

Urodynamic testing can be used to investigate patients with urge incontinence not responding to first-line medical treatments, difficulties urinating, urinary retention, previous surgery or an unclear diagnosis. It is not always required where the diagnosis is possible based on the history and examination.

101
Q

Which urodynamic tests can be used for urinary incontinence investigation?

A

Urodynamic tests are a way of objectively assessing the presence and severity of urinary symptoms. Patients need to stop taking any anticholinergic and bladder related medications around five days before the tests.

A thin catheter is inserted into the bladder, and another into the rectum. These two catheters can measure the pressures in the bladder and rectum for comparison. The bladder is filled with liquid, and various outcome measures are taken:

  1. Cystometry measures the detrusor muscle contraction and pressure
  2. Uroflowmetry measures the flow rate
  3. Leak point pressure is the point at which the bladder pressure results in leakage of urine. The patient is asked to cough, move or jump when the bladder is filled to various capacities. This assesses for stress incontinence.
  4. Post-void residual bladder volume tests for incomplete emptying of the bladder
  5. Video urodynamic testing involves filling the bladder with contrast and taking xray images as the bladder is emptied. Theses are only performed where necessary and not a routine part of urodynamic testing.
102
Q

How is stress incontinence managed?

A

Management of stress incontinence involves:
- Avoiding caffeine, diuretics and overfilling of the bladder
- Avoid excessive or restricted fluid intake
- Weight loss (if appropriate)
- Supervised pelvic floor exercises for at least three months before considering surgery
- Surgery
- Duloxetine is an SNRI antidepressant used second line where surgery is less preferred

Pelvic floor exercises are used to strengthen the muscles of the pelvic floor. They increase the tone and improve the support for the bladder and bowel. Pelvic floor exercises should be supervised by an appropriate professional, such as a specialist nurse or physiotherapist. Women should aim for at least eight contractions, three times daily.

Surgical options to treat stress incontinence include:
- Tension-free vaginal tape (TVT) procedures involve a mesh sling looped under the urethra and up behind the pubic symphysis to the abdominal wall. This supports the urethra, reducing stress incontinence.
- Autologous sling procedures work similarly to TVT procedures but a strip of fascia from the patient’s abdominal wall is used rather than tape
- Colposuspension involves stitches connecting the anterior vaginal wall and the pubic symphysis, around the urethra, pulling the vaginal wall forwards and adding support to the urethra
- Intramural urethral bulking involves injections around the urethra to reduce the diameter and add support

Where the stress incontinence is caused by a neurological disorder or other surgical methods have failed, specialist centres may offer an operation to create an artificial urinary sphincter. This involves a pump inserted into the labia that inflates and deflates a cuff around the urethra, allowing women to control their continence manually.

103
Q

How is urge incontinence managed?

A

Management of urge incontinence and overactive bladder involves:
- Bladder retraining (gradually increasing the time between voiding) for at least six weeks is first-line
- Anticholinergic medication, for example, oxybutynin, tolterodine and solifenacin
- Mirabegron is an alternative to anticholinergic medications
- Invasive procedures where medical treatment fails

Anticholinergic medications need to be used carefully, as they have anticholinergic side effects. These include dry mouth, dry eyes, urinary retention, constipation and postural hypotension. Importantly they can also lead to a cognitive decline, memory problems and worsening of dementia, which can be very problematic in older, more frail patients.

Mirabegron is used as an alternative medical treatment for urge incontinence with less of an anticholinergic burden. However, it is worth noting that mirabegron is contraindicated in uncontrolled hypertension. Blood pressure needs to be monitored regularly during treatment. It works as a beta-3 agonist, stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, leading to raised blood pressure. This can lead to a hypertensive crisis and an increased risk of TIA and stroke.

Invasive options for overactive bladder that has failed to respond to retraining and medical management include:
- Botulinum toxin type A injection into the bladder wall
- Percutaneous sacral nerve stimulation involves implanting a device in the back that stimulates the sacral nerves
- Augmentation cystoplasty involves using bowel tissue to enlarge the bladder
- Urinary diversion involves redirecting urinary flow to a urostomy on the abdomen

104
Q

What is the definition for malnutrition?

A

Malnutrition is an important consequence of and contributor to chronic disease. It is clearly a complex and multifactorial problem that can be difficult to manage but there are a number of key points to remember for the exam.

NICE defines malnutrition as the following:
- a Body Mass Index (BMI) of less than 18.5; or
unintentional weight loss greater than 10% within the last 3-6 months; or
- a BMI of less than 20 and unintentional weight loss greater than 5% within the last 3-6 months

Around 10% of patients aged over 65 years are malnourished, the vast majority of those living independently, i.e. not in hospital or care/nursing homes.

105
Q

What is the screening test for malnutrition?

A

Screening for malnutrition is mostly done using MUST (Malnutrition Universal Screen Tool).
- it should be done on admission to care/nursing homes and hospital, or if there is a concern. For example an elderly, thin patient with pressure sores
- it takes into account BMI, recent weight change and the presence of acute disease
categorises patients into low, medium and high risk

Step 1: measure height and weight to get a BMI score using chart. Scored from 0-2 where 0 is obese and healthy BMI and 2 is very low BMI.
Step 2: Note percentage unplanned weight loss and give a score. 0=<5%, 1=5-10%, 2=>10%
Step 3: establish acute disease effect and score eg If patient is acutely ill and there has been or is likely
to be no nutritional intake for >5 days - Score 2
Step 4: Add scores from 1,2 and 3
Step 5: Use guides:
- 0 is low risk so repeat screening in Hospital – weekly, Care Homes – monthly, Community – annually for special groups e.g. those >75 yrs
- 1 is medium risk so observe: Document dietary intake for 3 days. If adequate – little concern and
repeat screening. If inadequate – clinical concern
so follow local policy, set goals, improve and increase overall nutritional intake, monitor and review care plan regularly
- 2 or more is high risk so treat: Refer to dietitian, Nutritional Support Team or implement local
policy. Set goals, improve and increase overall nutritional intake. Monitor and review care plan

106
Q

What are the general management points for malnutrition?

A
  • dietician support if the patient is at high-risk
  • a ‘food-first’ approach with clear instructions (e.g. ‘add full-fat cream to mashed potato’), rather than just prescribing oral nutritional supplements (ONS) such as Ensure
  • if ONS are used they should be taken between meals, rather than instead of meals
107
Q

What is the definition and pathogenesis of hypothermia?

A

Hypothermia is an unintentional reduction of core body temperature below the normal physiological limits. In initial stages, thermoreceptors in the skin and subcutaneous tissues sense the low temperature and cause a regional vasoconstriction. This causes the hypothalamus to stimulate the release of TSH and ACTH. It also stimulates heat production by promoting shivering.

Definitions:
Mild hypothermia: 32-35°C
Moderate or severe hypothermia: < 32°C

108
Q

What are the causes and risk factors for hypothermia?

A

Causes can include:
Exposure to cold in the environment is the major cause
Inadequate insulation in the operating room
Cardiopulmonary bypass
Newborn babies.

Risk factors:
General anaesthesia
Substance abuse
Hypothyroidism
Impaired mental status
Homelessness
Extremes of age

109
Q

What are the signs of hypothermia?

A

Signs of hypothermia include:
shivering
cold and pale skin. Frostbite occurs when the skin and subcutaneous tissue freeze, causing damage to cells.
slurred speech
tachypnoea, tachycardia and hypertension (if mild)
respiratory depression, bradycardia and hypothermia (if moderate)
confusion/ impaired mental state

Babies with hypothermia can look healthy. However, they may be limp, unusually quiet and refuse to feed. Heat loss in newborns is extremely common, hence a hat and clothing/ blankets will be applied soon after birth.

110
Q

How is hypothermia investigated?

A
  1. Temperature. Special low-reading rectal thermometers or thermistor probes are preferred for measuring core body temperature. The patient’s temperature should be tracked over time, to check for improvement.
  2. 12 lead ECG. As the core temperature approaches 32°C to 33°C, acute ST-elevation and J waves or Osborn waves may appear
  3. FBC, serum electrolytes. Haemoglobin and haematocrit can be elevated (due to haemoconcentration). Platelets and WBCs are low due to sequestration in the spleen. Monitoring potassium is advised as hypothermic patients can be hypokalaemic due to a shift of potassium into the intracellular space.
  4. Blood glucose. Stress hormones are increased, and the body can have more peripheral resistance to insulin.
  5. Arterial blood gas
  6. Coagulation factors
  7. Chest X-ray
111
Q

How should hypothermia be managed?

A
  • Removing the patient from the cold environment and removing any wet/cold clothing,
  • Warming the body with blankets
  • Securing the airway and monitoring breathing,
  • If the patient is not responding well to passive warming, you may consider maintaining circulation using warm IV fluids or applying forced warm air directly to the patient’s body

+ rapid re-warming can lead to peripheral vasodilation and shock
In severe cases, be prepared to conduct CPR. IV drugs should be avoided if possible, as the patient is more likely to have a drastic response to the drug.

112
Q

What should NOT be done when a patient has hypothermia?

A

the NHS also provides advice to the public for what NOT to do when a person has hypothermia (due to the risk of cardiac arrest):
Don’t put the person into a hot bath.
Don’t massage their limbs.
Don’t use heating lamps.
Don’t give them alcohol to drink.

113
Q

What is the pathogenesis of hyperthermia?

A

condition often seen following administration of anaesthetic agents
characterised by hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity
cause by excessive release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
associated with defects in a gene on chromosome 19 encoding the ryanodine receptor, which controls Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion
neuroleptic malignant syndrome may have a similar aetiology

114
Q

How is malignant hyperthermia managed?

A

dantrolene - prevents Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

115
Q

What is squamous cell carcinoma and what are the risk factors?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma is a common variant of skin cancer. Metastases are rare but may occur in 2-5% of patients.

Risk factors include:
excessive exposure to sunlight / psoralen UVA therapy
actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease
immunosuppression e.g. following renal transplant, HIV
smoking
long-standing leg ulcers (Marjolin’s ulcer)
genetic conditions e.g. xeroderma pigmentosum, oculocutaneous albinism

116
Q

What are the features of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

typically on sun-exposed sites such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms
rapidly expanding painless, ulcerate nodules
may have a cauliflower-like appearance
there may be areas of bleeding

117
Q

How are squamous cell carcinomas managed?

A

Surgical excision with 4mm margins if lesion <20mm in diameter.

If tumour >20mm then margins should be 6mm.

Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites.

118
Q

What is Rhabdomyolysis? What are the complications?

A

Rhabdomyolysis involves skeletal muscle breaking down and releasing various chemicals into the blood. Muscle cells (myocytes) undergo cell death (apoptosis), releasing:
- Myoglobin
- Potassium
- Phosphate
- Creatine kinase

Potassium is the most immediately dangerous breakdown product. Hyperkalaemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and cardiac arrest.

These breakdown products can cause acute kidney injury. Myoglobin, in particular, is toxic in high concentrations. Impaired renal function results in further accumulation of these substances in the blood.

Other complications include compartment syndrome and disseminated intravascular coagulation.

119
Q

What are the causes of rhabdomyolysis?

A

Anything that causes significant damage to muscle cells can cause rhabdomyolysis. For example:
1. Prolonged immobility, particularly frail patients who fall and spend time on the floor before being found
2. Extremely rigorous exercise beyond the person’s fitness level (e.g., endurance events or CrossFit)
3. Crush injuries
4. Seizures
5. Statins

120
Q

What are the features of rhabdomyolysis?

A

Muscle pain
Muscle weakness
Muscle swelling
Reduced urine output (oliguria)
Red-brown urine (myoglobinuria)
Fatigue
Nausea and vomiting
Confusion (particularly in frail patients)

121
Q

How is rhabdomyolysis investigated?

A

Creatine kinase (CK) is the crucial diagnostic blood test for rhabdomyolysis. It is normally less than around 150 U/L. In rhabdomyolysis, it can be 1,000-100,000 U/L. It typically rises in the first 12 hours, then remains elevated for 1-3 days, then gradually falls. The higher the CK, the greater the risk of kidney injury.

Myoglobinuria refers to myoglobin in the urine. It gives urine a red-brown colour. A urine dipstick will be positive for blood.

Urea and electrolytes (U&E) are required for acute kidney injury and hyperkalaemia.

ECGs are used to assess and monitor the heart’s response to hyperkalaemia.

122
Q

How is rhabdomyolysis managed?

A

Intravenous fluids are the mainstay of treatment to correct hypovolaemia and encourage filtration of the breakdown products. Treatment of complications, particularly hyperkalaemia, is also essential.

Additional options that are debatable and have associated risks include:
- Intravenous sodium bicarbonate (to increase urinary pH and reduce the toxic effects of myoglobinuria)
- Intravenous mannitol (to increase urine output and reduce oedema)