Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IONM Training + CNIM Board Prep > Conditions + Diseases > Flashcards

Conditions + Diseases Flashcards

Common IONM Vocabulary

1
Q

Facet Subluxation

A

Malalignment of opposing facets, allowing one cervical vertebral body to rotate around another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Osteophyte

A

Bony excrescence or osseous outgrowth, usually found around the joint area of bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Otitis

A

Inflammation of the ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vertigo

A

Hallucination that one is moving or their surrounding environment is moving. A symptom found in those with diseases of the labyrinth, vestibular nerve, or its nuclei in the brain stem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acoustic Reflex

A

Auditory/Facial nerve reflex arc that pulls the acoustic muscle tight, blocking hearing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Muscular Dystrophy

A

A group of degenerative muscle disorders resulting in atrophy and weakness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tic Douloureaux (Trigeminal Neuralgia)

A

Compression of the trigeminal nerve by a vessel (usually SCA) causing attacks of severe facial pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Labyrinthine Disease

A

Malfunction of the inner ear characterized by deafness, tinnitus, vertigo, nausea, and vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Myelitis

A

Inflammation of the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

A type of rheumatoid arthritis disease causing spontaneous fusion of the spine. May also affect other large joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Osteopathy

A

Any disease of the bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Claudication

A

Inadequate blood flow to large muscle groups of lower limbs resulting from hardening of the arteries, causing pain, numbness, or heaviness in muscle groups. Triggered by exercise and relieved by rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Spondylo

A

Root disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Otalgia

A

Pain in the ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Myelopathy

A

Functional disturbances or pathological changes in the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Myelomenigocele

A

Protruding sac of the meninges, filled with fluid and possibly nerve root or spinal cord fibers via a defect in the spinal canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Diminution of both the mineral and matrix components of bone such that the remaining bone is normal in composition but reduced in total bone mass. The secondary cause of osteoporosis is immobilization such as casting. Primary osteoporosis is an age-related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass and by increased susceptibility to fractures in the absence of other recognizable causes of bone loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Spondyloexarthrosis

A

Dislocation of a vertebra.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Luxation

A

Dislocation of bone or bones at a joint site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Patellar Reflex

A

Normal monosynaptic sensorimotor reflex elicited by tapping the patellar tendon, causing contraction of the extensor muscles of the upper leg (kicking motion).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pseudoarthrosis

A

False joints that result from non-union of a fracture or from a pathologic bone condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Spondylolysis

A

Disruption of the pars interarticularis (a portion of bone between each of the joints of the back), allowing one vertebral body to slide forward on the next.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

Paralysis of the facial muscles due to facial nerve dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Horner’s Syndrome

A

Sinking of the eyeball, ptosis of the upper eyelid, slight elevation of the lower lid constriction of the pupil, narrowing of the palpebral fissure, and anhidrosis and flushing of the affected side of the face. Caused by paralysis of the cervical sympathetic nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Kyphosis

A

Excessive curvature of the thoracic spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Otitis Media

A

Acute infection of the middle ear cavity with the reddening and outward bulging of the eardrum, which may rupture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

A

A mechanical problem related to the exit of arteries and nerves at the base of the neck leading down the arm, and can also involve the vein bringing blood back from the arm. Compression of these structures as they pass through a narrow foramen between the scalenus anticus muscle and the first rib. Early signs are pain in the hand or shoulder. Arteries may be damaged in the process and cause an aneurysm in the area with possible break off of blood clot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Syringomyelia

A

Progressive cavitation within the central (usually cervical) spinal cord, resulting in segmental muscle weakness and loss of pain and temperature sensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A

Syndrome of attacks of muscle weakness that are episodic and reversible. Also called Erb-Goldflam disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Osteoma

A

Hard tumor of bone-like structure developing on the bone. Benign tumor or spongy bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lordosis

A

Excessive curvature of the lumbar spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Myesthenia Gravis

A

Muscle disorder involving the insufficient production of acetylcholinesterase resulting in weakened muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammation of bone marrow, cortex, tissue, and periosteum. Can be caused by an organism, usually bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

A

Lou Gerig’s disease. Progressive nervous disorder which attacks motor fibers, causing progressive paralysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Scoliosis

A

Lateral curvature of the spine.

36
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Sarcoma in which cancer cells make bone.

37
Q

Presbycussis

A

Hearing loss with age, usually resulting in high frequency hearing loss.

38
Q

Sensorineural Deafness

A

Impairment of the cochlea or cochlear branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve.

39
Q

Spondylitis

A

Inflammation of vertebrae. Types include ankylosing, rheumatoid, tramatic, and spondylitis deformans.

40
Q

Conduction Deafness

A

An impairment of the external and middle ear mechanism, including atherosclerosis (reduced blood supply due to obstruction of the arteries by plaque bodies).

41
Q

Anastamosis

A

A connection made surgically between adjacent blood vessels, parts of the intestine, or other channels of the body, or the operation in which this is constructed

42
Q

Proprioception

A

Your body’s ability to sense movement, action, and location in space. This information communicated by the dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway

43
Q

Tinel’s Sign

A

Used for noting a partial lesion or beginning regeneration of a nerve. Tingling sensation of the distal end of a limb when percussion is made over the site of the divided nerve such as in carpal tunnel impingement of the median nerve of the hand. Also called formication sign or distal tingling on the percussion (DTP) sign.

Neuro exam: Tap on nerve&raquo_space; paresthesia

44
Q

Romberg Test

A

The tendency of a patient to fall when he closes his eyes standing still with his feet close together. Due to loss of joint position sensation, as with tabes dorsalis.

Neuro Exam: Close eyes&raquo_space; push on back/chest&raquo_space; falls over due to loss of proprioception

45
Q

Babinski Sign

A

Loss of brain control over the lower extremities and loss or lessening of the Achilles tendon reflex in sciatica. Elicited by scraping the soles, causing the toes to pull up (dorsiflexion). It occurs in lesions of the pyramidal (corticospinal) tract.

Neuro exam: Sole of foot stroked&raquo_space; toes fan out&raquo_space; upper motor lesion

46
Q

Hoffmann’s Sign

A

Increased mechanical irritability of the sensory nerves in tetany. The ulnar nerve is usually tested. A sudden nipping of the nail of the index, middle, or ring finger produces flexion of the terminal phalynx of the thumb and of the second or third phalynx of the another finger, also known as digital reflex. Indicates cervical myelopathy.

Neuro Exam: Flick middle finger&raquo_space; clawing motion on hand&raquo_space; cervical myelopathy

47
Q

LHermitte’s Sign

A

In cervical cord injuries or cord degeneration, transient dysesthesia and weakness noted in all four limbs when the patient flexes the head forward.

Neuro Exam: Flex neck&raquo_space; shock sensation down body&raquo_space; cervical instability or stenosis

48
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

A

Progressive degenerative nervous disorder resulting in demyelinating plaques that affect the central nervous tracts.

Possible abnormal SSEPs (especially LE SSEP, increased lumbar to cortical conduction time/decreased central conduction velocity)
Age of onset: 15-40 years

49
Q

Diabetes Mellitus

A

Disorder resulting in the inability to metabolize sugar.

Chronic conditions of hyperglycemia cause peripheral neuropathy. Data&raquo_space; may show increased latencies

50
Q

Charcot Marie Tooth Disease

A

Peripheral Neuropathy causing widespread demyelination.

Most commonly CMT patients lose use of their extremities as nerves degenerate, occasional loss of sensory nerve functions
SSEP delayed with central prolongation (cortical delay) in LE SSEP

51
Q

Friedrich’s Ataxia

A

Progressive degenerative disease targeting large myelinated fibers

Symptoms include muscle weakness, ataxia, loss of sensation in the extremities

52
Q

Ataxia

A

Uncoordinated muscle activity resulting in a staggering gait loss of balance and coordination

53
Q

Apraxia

A

Inability to produce purposeful movements (cause by brain injury)

54
Q

Meningocele

A

Fluid filled meninges protrusion

55
Q

Myelomenigocele

A

Protruding sac of the meninges, filled with fluid and possibly nerve root or spinal cord fibers via a defect in the spinal canal.

56
Q

Syringomyelia

A

central canal filled with fluid in spinal cord

57
Q

Arnold-Chiari Malformation

A

Stenosis of the brainstem at the foramen magnum due to malpositioned brainstem or cerebellum

58
Q

Tourette’s Syndrome

A

Brain disorder causing variable symptoms such as facial twitching and involuntary outbursts of profanity

No SSEP affect

59
Q

Radiculopathy

A

Pinched or compressed nerve root

60
Q

Myelopathy

A

Functional disturbances or pathological changes in the spinal cord

61
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

Forward displacement of one vertebra (usually L5) over inferior vertebra

62
Q

Spondylosis

A

Umbrella term for different forms of age-related degeneration of the spine.

63
Q

Ankylosis

A

A fused joint

64
Q

Spinal Stenosis

A

General term denoting narrowing of the spinal canal leading to nerve root compromise. Term often used for developmental abnormality that leaves a narrow, bony canal.

65
Q

Dyskinesia

A

Difficulty or distortion in performing voluntary movements, as in tic, chorea, spasm, or myoclonus. The term dyskinesia may be used in relation to Parkinson’s disease and other extrapyramidal disorders. Dyskinesia can occur as a side effect of certain medications such as L-dopa and antipsychotics.

66
Q

Tinnitus

A

Any noise in the ear including ringing and/or buzzing. Caused by a buildup of cerumen in the ear, damage to the eardrum, diseases of the inner ear such as Meniere’s disease and otosclerosis, or drugs such as aspirin and quinine.

67
Q

Vertigo

A

Hallucination that one is moving or their surrounding environment is moving

A symptom found in those with diseases in the labyrinth, vestibular nerve, or its nuclei in the brainstem

68
Q

Meniere’s Disease

A

A type of labyrinthine disorder characterized by fluctuating hearing loss, attacks of vertigo, and rearing tinnitus

ABR might be abnormal if symptomatic

69
Q

Otosclerosis

A

Condition in which there’s abnormal bone growth (Ossicles fusing together) inside the ear resulting in conductive hearing loss

70
Q

Otitis Media

A

Acute infection of the middle ear cavity with the reddening and outward bulging of the eardrum, which may rupture

71
Q

Acoustic Neuroma (Vestibular Schwannoma)

A

Tumor of the cochlear or vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII (auditory nerve)

72
Q

CPA Tumor

A

Tumor in the cerebellopontine angle, usually affecting cranial nerves VII and VIII

73
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

Paralysis of the facial muscles due to facial nerve (CN VII) dysfunction

74
Q

Brainstem injury results in what regarding cranial nerve, sensory and motor deficits?

A

Results in IPSILATERAL cranial nerve deficits and CONTRALATERAL sensory-motor deficits

75
Q

Huntington’s Chorea

A

Characterized by involuntary jerking or twitching movements known as chorea. As the disease progresses, these movements become more pronounced. Affected individuals may have trouble walking, speaking, and swallowing.

SSEP cortical response may have low amplitude and delayed latency

76
Q

Paresthesia

A

Perverted sensation such as burning, prickling, or tingling associated with peripheral nerve damage

77
Q

Interspinous Pseudoarthrosis

A

The formation of a “false joint” between two spinous processes

78
Q

Tethered Cord Syndrome

A

Rare neurological condition in which the spinal cord is attached (tethered) to the surrounding tissues of the spine. This prevents the spinal cord from moving to keep up with the lengthening of the spine as it grows. The result may be nerve damage and severe pain.

External Anal Sphincter, External Urethral Sphincter, and Tibialis Anterior are routinely monitored (S1-S2)

79
Q

Selective Dorsal Rhizotomy

A

Procedure that selectively destroys problematic nerve roots in the spinal cord for the treatment/reduction of spasticity in children with cerebral palsy

EMG monitored routinely, Surgeon will stimulate nerve fibers and section off the ones that give abnormal/excessive responses

80
Q

Agnosia

A

Loss of ability to recognize objects, people, sounds, shapes, or smells while the specific sense is not defective nor is there any significant memory loss

81
Q

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

A

Due to the damage of one half of the spinal cord, resulting in the ipsilateral paralysis and loss of discriminatory joint sensation, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

Ipsilateral loss of motor function and Contralateral loss of major sensory function below level of injury

82
Q

Torticollis

A

Stiff neck caused by spastic contraction of neck muscles drawing the head to one side with chin pointing to the other side

83
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Acute febrile polyneuritis with progressive muscular weakness of extremities that occurs when the body’s own immune system attacks part of the Peripheral Nervous System

84
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Chronic disorder of a joint with excessive erosion of the cartilage surface associated with excess bone formation at the margins of the joint and gradual loss of function because of pain and stiffness. This may be the outcome of abnormal mechanical forces, such as prior injury, or a systemic disorder such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout

85
Q

Spina Bifida

A

Congenital condition where the lamina (usually lumbar) failed to fuse during development. The severest form is myelomeningocele.

86
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)

A

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy known as a prion-based disease

IONM Training + CNIM Board Prep (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions