Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

Surface markings.

Domes of the diaphragm.

I 8 10 EGGS AT 12?

Difference in blood supply to the parietal and visceral pleura.

Which lymph nodes can widen to lead to widening of the angle of carina?

What are the surface markings for the two fissures?

What are the inferior borders of the lungs?

A

Right 5th rib
Left - ~5th IC

IVC T8
Esophagus/vagus T10
Aorta/Azygous vein/ Thoracic duct T12

Visceral = bronchial arteries
Parietal = intercostal arteries. 

Tracheobronchial lymph nodes.

4th rib from mid axillary line = horizontal fissure
T2 to 6th costal cartilage.

6th rib MCL
8th rib MAL
10th rib MSL

+2 for pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Azygous system.

What two veins form the azygous vein and hemiazygous vein at the level of T12?

Where does the hemiazygous vein drain into?

Where does the accessory hemiazygous vein drain into?

A

Ascending lumbar vein and the subcostal vein

Azygous vein
Azygous vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome.

By when is surfactant production sufficient in the newborn

Give some symptoms.

Treatment for the baby?

Give two riskfactors.

A

35-36 weeks.

Tachypnoea 
Intercostal recessions 
Grunting 
Nasal flaring 
Cyanosis 

Endotracheal tube surfactant for replacement and oxygen.

Premature delivery
Diabetes in mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Interstitial lung disease.

Give some causes.

Give some drugs that can cause it?

Why is airway obstruction worse on expiration?

What defines barrel chest?

What would you find on examination in interstitial lung disease?

A
Asbestos/ silicosis exposure 
Idiopathic 
Auto-immune mediated
Sarcoidosis 
Methotrexate, amiodarone and nitrofurantoin 

Positive intrapulmonary pressure exacerbates narrowing of the intra thoracic airways.

AP:Lateral diameter 1:1 as opposed to 1:2

Bilaterally reduced lung expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Atelactasis.

Give 3 causes.

A

Fluid/ air in the pleural cavity leading to mechanical collapse - relaxation or compression
Resorption due to obstruction
Post surgical
Cicatrization- fibrotic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is the pH of plasma normally alkaline?

Why is HCO3- higher in the plasma than H+?

What is the HCO3- concentration in plasma mainly determined by?

Why is there more CO2 in venous blood compared to plasma both in dissolved and reacted form?

Why can CO2 be breathed off at the lungs?

Why are more carbamino compounds formed at the tissues?

A

Because there is a high concentrating of HCO3- driving the reverse reaction which is favoured.

Because HCO3- is pumped out via AE whilst H+ binds to Hb inside the RBC

Determined by the ability of Hb to bind H+ NOT pCO2

At tissues - lower O2 - means more H+ can bind to haemoglobin allowing for more HCO3- to be produced.

High O2 - means more binds to Hb - relaxed state - more H+ given up - reacts with HCO3- forming CO2 which can be breathed off

Because of unloading of oxygen allows more CO2 to bind
Because high pCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Acid Base Balance.

What symptoms may alkalaemia present with?

What is the difference in the way the PCT and DCT make HCO3-?

Give two things that buffer H+ in the kidney?

Why can we not compensate for a metabolic alkalosis?

A

Paraesthesia and tetany

PCT - from glutamine (broken down to NH3 and H+ which combine to form NH4+ in the lumen whilst the aKG gets broken down to two HCO3- and is pumped out basolaterally into the ECF by Na+/HCO3- exchanger).
DCT - from CO2 and H2O

Phosphate and NH3.

Can not breath less due to the need to maintain pO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Renal tubular acidosis.

Type I cause?
Type II cause?

Acid base status?
Another cause with this base status?

When type II is combined with other things phosphaturia, glycosuria, amunoaciduria etc what is it known as?
Issues?

A

Decreased H+ excretion in the DCT (malfunctioning HKATPase and H+ pumps)
Decreased reabsopriton of Na in the PCT (malfunctioning of basolateral Na HCO3- symporter)

Metabolic acidosis with NORMAL anion gap
Severe persistent diarrhoea
Acetazolamide

Fanconi syndrome
Osteomalacia due to loss of phosphate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Metabolic alkalosis.

Give 3 causes.

Why does hyperaldosteronism cause it?

How is it normally corrected and why may it be hard to correct?

A
Persistent vomiting 
Diuretics (loops/ thiazides) 
Cushing s
Primary hyperaldosteronism 
Hypokalemia 

Because more Na H exchanger activity in the DCT - more H+ secreted into urine - alkalosis.

Normally corrected due to less H+ excretion and reduced HCO3- recovery.
In the case of volume depletion - Na+ reabsorption favoured - more Na+ reabsorption via NaH exchanger favours more HCO3- absorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

X ray.

What can an increased right paratracheal stripe width mean?

How can you assess whether sufficient penetration has occured?

What can you use to assess adequacy of an X-ray?

What is silhouette sign?

Two signs of a tension PT?

When may a meniscus not be seen?

What two signs are seen when left upper lobe collapses on lower lobe? Left lower lobe collapse?

A

Paratracheal Lymphadenopathy
Lipoma

Vertebrae visible through heart
Left hemidiaphragm not visible

RIP - rotation, inspiration and penetration.

Adjacent structures of differing density form a crisp contour.

Depressed hemidiaphragm
Mediastinal shift

When the CXR is taken supine position.

Veil like opacity
Luftsickle sign

Sail sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Respiratory control.

Give 4 sensors that feed to the respiratory centre.

Other than increased heart rate and increased breathing what other change can be bought about by peripheral chemoreceptors in response to fall of pO2?

A
Peripheral chemoreceptors (O2 CO2 and H+) 
Central chemoreceptors (H+) 
Pulmonary receptors (stretch) 
joint and muscle receptors (stretch and tension) 

Changes in blood flow distribution - brain and kidneys prioritised for example.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Spirometry.

What does FEV1 decrease in obstructive volume time graph? FEV1:FVC ratio?

FEV1 in restrictive?

Difference between variable upper airway obstruction as opposed to fixed obstruction?

Why may flow volume in obstructive airway disease be moved to the left?

A

Because narrowed airways reduce the speed at which air can be breathed out.
Less than 70%.
more than or equal to 70% in restrictive

FEV1 normal or greater than normal (increased elastic recoil)?

Variable - inspiration blunted (bottom of flow volume loop) Fixed - both bottom and top blunted

Due to increased total lung capacity due to hyperinflation occurring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ventilation perfusion mismatch.

Give some causes of V/Q mismatch.

Why may left sided heart failure result from right sided failure in the context of a PE?
Give two signs that may be seen in RV failure.

Why may pulmonary infarction lead to death in PE?

Give four X ray findings that might be seen on PE?

What criteria is used for PE? Relevance?
Why is D dimer not used to rule out PE in those with high likelihood?

How does heparinisation reduce mortality?

A
Pneumonia 
Pulmonary embolism 
COPD 
RDS 
Pulmonary oedema 

Due to shift of the interventricular septum

JVP distension
Hepatosplenomegaly
Oedema

Haemoptysis, pleuritis and pleural effusion occurs impairing lung function.

Wedge shaped opacity
Enlarged pulmonary artery
Pleural effusion
Elevated hemidiaphragm.

Well’s criteria
Score more than 4 - imaging
Score less 0-4 - D diner - no further investigation.

Negative predictive value of D dimer is too low to use.

Reduce propagation at site and source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hypoventilation
.
Give 5 main causes for hypoxaemia.

What type of respiratory failure caused by hypoventilation?

Give an acute and chornic cause.

Give two reasons why treating hypoxia in chronic TII resp failure is bad?

A
V/Q mismatch 
Altitude 
Hypoventilation (ENTIRE LUNG) 
Diffusion defect 
Right to left shunt 

Type 2 ALWAYS.

Acute - asthma attack (VSA), opiate overdose, head injury
Chronic - kyphoscoliosis, MND, myopathy, late stage COPD, lung fibrosis

Oxygen removes the stimulus for the hypoxic respiratory drive
Correction of hypoxia removes pulmonary vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

V/Q mismatch.

Why is O2 low but CO2 Normal/ low?

Why do certain segments have increased ventilation in V/Q mismatch pathologies?

Why do diffusion defects cause Type I respiratory failure?
Give two conditions where this is the case? Differences in pathogenesis?
Give the two different mechanisms by which these can cause respiratory failure.

A

O2 low because increased areas of ventilation (V/Q>1) increase the dissolved O2 by a very small amount but since Hb is already fully saturated above 10kPa it is insuffienct to compensate for areas with V/Q <1.
CO2 normal or low because in areas of increased ventilation (V/Q <1) more CO2 will be breathed out - sufficient enough to compensate for CO2 retention in areas with V/Q of less than 1.

Because areas where ventilation is decreased cause low O2 and CO2 retention which will cause stimulation of chemoreceptors and thus hyperventilation to unaffected segments.

Due to CO2 being more soluble than O2 and allowing for for diffusion of CO2 whilst O2 diffusion is still affected. This results in type 1 respiratory failure.
Pulmonary oedema, fibrotic lung disease.
Pulmonary oedema - more fluid in interstitium
Fibrotic lung disease - thickened membrane.
Pulmonary oedema - diffusion defectand V/Q mismatch
Lung fibrosis - diffusion defect and hypoventilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bronchiectasis.

Gold standard investigation for bronchiectasis.

Give two infections in can occur secondary to.

Two diseases ASSOCIATED with it.

Give 3 common organisms.

A

High Resolution CT

Whooping cough, TB, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

IBD and yellow nail syndrome

HI PA MC SP stenotrophomonas maltophilia

17
Q

Cystic fibrosis.

Diagnosis criteria.

What do the heel prick and sweat test look for respectively?

Give 4 ways in which it can present.

Give two ways it can present in the nasal and upper resp tract.

Why should stables, composting vegetation be avoided?

Why should jacuzzis be avoided?

A

One or more of characteristic phenotype features OR sibling OR positive heelprick text

AND
Sweat test OR two mutations seen on genotyping

Heel prick - IRT
Sweat test - increased chloride concentration

Meconium ileus
Intestinal malabsorption
Chest infections
Newborn screening

Nasal polyposis
Chronic sinusitis

Aspergillus fumigatus inhalation

Pseudomonas risk

18
Q

Pneumonia.

Difference between acute bronchitis and pneumonia CXR.
Give three common causative organisms of acute bronchitis.
What vessels are affected?
Other than ABx Tx?

Give two typical and atypical CAP organisms.
Why might you do urine test in pneumonia setting?
Describe CURB-65 score.

Tx for mild-moderate and moderate-severe.

Three complications of acute bacterial pneumonia. What

Give some organisms that cause hospital acquired pneumonia. First line Tx.

In who is aspiration pneumonia common in.

What do you give for chemoprophylaxis?

A

No CXR changes acute bronchitis
SP HI MC
Medium sized
Physiotherapy

Lobar pnuemonia
Bronchopneumonia

SP HI
Legionella
Coxiella burnetii (hepatitis also, associated with farm animals)

Antigen test for legionella

Confusion 
Urea >7mmol/L 
Respiratory rate (>30) 
Blood pressure <90sytolic or <60diastolic 
>65
 2-5 = severe 

Mild-moderate (amoxicillin)
Moderate-severe (co-amoxiclav and clarithro/doxy)

Lung abscess
Empyema
Bronchiectasis (recurrent)

SA, Psuedomonas (ventilators), enterobacteriaciae
Co-amoxiclav

Alcoholics, epileptics, drowning

Oral penicillin/ erythromycin life long - immunodeficiency, dysfunctional spleen, immunodeficiency etc.

19
Q

COPD.

Give two complications of alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency.

Why may someone have weight loss?

Percussion and auscultation?

Give another theory for why O2 saturation needs to be maintained at 88-92%.

What ECG change may develop in someone with COPD?

Give two ways in which PKA activation through B2 agonist action leads to smooth muscle relaxation.

Why may tachycardia occur?

Other than bronchodilation give 2 other ways menthyxanthines work. Give two side effects.

Why is pulmonary rehab given in COPD?

When is LTOT offerered? What lowers the threshold?

Two surgical procedures?

Give Tx for COPD exacerbations.
When in BIPAP/ NIV useful?

A

Cirrhosis and emphysema (COPD)

Prolonged expiration due to pursing lips -> more intercostal muscle usage -> lots of energy expended -> weight loss occurs

Hyperresonance, wheezing.

Well ventilated lung areas receive the most blood flow and therefore oxygen is a pulmonary vasodilators. By keeping oxygen low we can allow for some vasoconstriction diverting blood away from poorly ventilated parts.

Multifocal atrial tachycardia

PKA phophorylates MLCK preventing it from phosphorylating MLC and therefore it can not cross link with actin.
PKA phosphorylase IP3R leading to decreased intracellular calcium.

Activation of atrial B2 receptors and at high doses B1.

Increase respiratory drive
Anti-inflammatory effects.

Tachycardia
SVT
Nausea
Seizures

Prevent deconditioning

7.3kPa less or 8kPa less with cor pulmonale

Lung volume reduction
Lung transplant.
\
Acute exacerbations of COPD with TII respiratory failure and mild acidosis

20
Q

Tuberculosis.

Why impervious to gram stains? What will you see on microscopy?

Are sputum/ culture negative or positive in latent TB?

Give a disadvantage of TB microscopy.

Give three manifestations of extra-pulmonary TB.

Give two benefitis of notifying about a disease.

A

Mycolic acids in cell wall makes them very hydrophobic
Acid-alcohol fast bacilli (means stain not removed with acid and alcohol) with cording

Negative

Can not distinguish MTB from NTM
Can not distinguish dead and live organisms

Lymphadenitis (scrofula)
Potts disease (haemotogenaous spread)
Tuberculous meningitis

Contact tracing procedures intiated
Provide surveillance data to detect outbreaks and monitor epidemiological trends

21
Q

Pneumothorax.

Give some clinical signs seen on examination in tension PT.

A
Raised JVP 
Deviated trachea 
Displaced apex beat 
Increased percussion note 
Silent breath sounds
22
Q

Pulmonary effusion.

Give some causes of failure of absorption.

What criteria is send to assess whether a pleural effusion is a transduate as opposed to an exudate? Two factors it assesses?
What can cause both types?

A

Congestive heart failure
Liver failure
Nephrotic syndrome
Lymphatic Obstruction - cancer

Light’s criteria
LDH and protein
Pulmonary embolism

23
Q

Lung cancer.

What ages are commonly affected?

What is used in screening?

Mets?

Why may someone get seizures?

Give a cutaneous feature.

Which ones are more likely to have peripheral and central tumours.

Give two genes associated.

A

85-89.

Low dose CT scan

LABB - liver, adrenal glands, brain and bone.

ADH release -> SIADH

Dermatomyositis

Small cell

EGFR, KRAS, PD1, PDL1 and ALK