Conditional Testamentary Dispositions Flashcards
When is a testamentary disposition conditional?
A testamentary disposition is conditional, when its
effectivity is subordinated to the fulfilment or non
fulfilment of a future and uncertain fact or event.
What is a condition?
A condition is a future and uncertain fact or event upon the fulfillment of which the testamentary disposition is made to depend.
- The testator cannot impose any charge, condition, or substitution whatsoever upon the legitimes prescribed in this Code. Should he do so, the same shall be considered as not imposed.
Exception: That the hereditary estate shall not be partitioned of a period of twenty (20) years. Under Article 1083, this power of the testator to prohibit the division of the estate applies even to the legitime of the compulsory heirs.
The rule just stated is a reiteration of the untouchability of the legitime of the compulsory heirs.
When is a condition impossible?
A condition is impossible when it is not possible of
realization because it is either contrary to physical,
juridical or moral laws.
What is the effect if the impossible conditions and those contrary to law or good customs are imposed by the testator?
It shall be considered as not imposed and it shall not affect the heir (also the legacy or devisee) even if the testator
should otherwise provide.
There is a presumption in this case that the condition is due to a mistake or oversight or merely a whim or caprice of the testator. Consequently, it must be disregarded as a matter of justice to the instituted heirs, devisees, or legatees.
X said in his will, “I hereby institute my friend B, subject to the condition that he will be able to show his ability to fly in six (6) months”. Suppose B was not able to comply with the condition, can B inherit?
Even if expressly stated?
Yes. Since it is an impossible condition, it shall be
considered as not imposed and shall in no manner
prejudice the heir.
Yes. The law here presumes that the condition is an error or oversight of the testator or a mere whim or caprice and it would not be just to give it effect to the prejudice of the heirs, devisees and legatees.
On the condition that he can make Ms. Nuval pregnant, one (1) year after my death?
Void. It is contrary to good customs, hence, the heir may inherit
On the condition that he will convert to the Mormon
religion within one (1) year after my death?
Void. Deemed contrary to public policy of respecting
freedom of religion.
Testator said, “I will give Father Pio ½ of my estate on the condition that he will marry within two (2) years.” Void or valid?
Void. Contrary to morals and good customs.
On the condition that he will not marry Ms. Nuval?
Valid, since it is just a relative prohibition. (Security is need.)
On the condition that he will not marry an Ilocana?
Valid, since it is just a relative prohibition. (Security is
need.)
X died with a will instituting A, as heir to ¼ of the entire estate, provided that before he gets his ¼ share, A must kill B first. If A did not kill B, can he still inherit?
Yes. Because the condition which is unlawful is deemed
not imposed in the will.
If the condition imposed in the will is impossible or
contrary to law, what is the effect?
It is deemed not imposed.
The law presumes that the condition was imposed by
mere oversight.
What time shall be considered in determining whether the condition is imposed or not?
According to Sanchez Roman, there is only one time to consider, and that is, the time when the condition is to be fulfilled.
Rules on Marriage
- The prohibition is void only when it is absolute;
that is, when the heir, devisee or legatee is
forbidden to marry any person at any time or
place or when is required to remain unmarried
or in widowhood. - A prohibition on first marriage is always void and
the condition containing it will be considered as
not written. - When the prohibition refers to subsequent
marriages, the general rule is that, it is void, but
it is valid when imposed upon a widow or
widower by:
a. the deceased spouse; or
b. ascendants of the deceased spouse; or
c. descendants of the deceased spouse - When the prohibition refers only to particular
persons or to particular periods or places, it is
not absolute but only relative, and therefore,
valid. However, when by its terms the
prohibition appears to be relative, it will be
understood as absolute, if the conditions
requires by the testator practically render it
impossible for the heir or legatee to get married
at all.
X instituted his daughter A as heir to the free portion of his estate subject to the condition that she remains single all her life. Thereafter, A married B. Can A still inherit the free portion of the estate?
Yes. Because the institution of A, as an heir to the free portion of the estate remains valid, despite her marriage to B. The condition imposed is considered as not written. Thus, the validity of the institution of A, as an heir is not affected.
If the spouse was prohibited to marry until he or she
reaches the age of 80, is the prohibition valid?
Although the condition is relative, yet it is void because its effects are very onerous on the part of the surviving spouse.
When W1 died, H married W2. W1 is the daughter of A. He is the son of B, while W2 is the daughter of C. W1 and H had two (2) children, D and E. W2 and H also had 2
children, F and G. W2 had a child from a previous
marriage with Y, named I.
- If W2 died, can she validly impose a condition in her will that H cannot contract another marriage as soon as condition for giving properties to H?
- Will H not inherit everything, if H contracts another
marriage? - If W2 said in her will, “I give to H, in addition to his legitime, the entire free portion of my estate. However, I wish that H will not contract another marriage.” H subsequently remarried. Can he inherit?
- If W2 said in her will, “I give to H, in addition to his
legitime, the entire free portion of my estate, subject to the condition that he will not remarry.” H subsequently
remarried. Can he inherit? - Who can impose absolute prohibition with respect to
W2? - Why cannot A, D and E have the same right?
- Why cannot B have the same right?
- Yes (deceased spouse).
- No. Only the free portion if H was also instituted to it is
affected. But H is still entitled to his legitime. - Yes. Mere expression of the will does not constitute a prohibition. The prohibition must be clearly imposed as a condition in the will; otherwise, it does not affect the rights of the widow or the widower.
- No. In this case, the prohibition was clearly imposed as a condition. (Note: disinheritance refers only to the free portion. The legitime is not affected. Hence, H may still get his legitime, but not the free portion.
- F,G,C and I.
Both the common children of the deceased and the surviving spouse and the legitimate children of the spouse in a prior marriage are given the right as the law does not make any distinction. The reason for upholding the prohibition is the same in either case. - A is the W1’s ascendants.
D and E are W1’s descendant. - B is H’s ascendant.
It would be absurdity. Why would B prohibit his own son to marry? There is no need to protect his own properties anyway.
What are the reasons for upholding the prohibition?
- Conjugal and family affection – as a means of securing more fidelity, even beyond grave.
- In order to avoid the consequence that the property coming from the deceased spouse, should be enjoyed, through a subsequent marriage, by a person, who with more or less offense to the memory of the deceased, has taken his/her place in the family
What is Disposition Captoria?
It is any disposition made upon the condition that the heir shall make some provision in his will in favor of the testator or of any other person.
Is Disposition Captoria valid?
No. It is deemed void. Not only it is the condition void but the disposition. Hence, the same has no effect and nobody inherit therein.
It is void because it renders a will a contractual agreement.
Thus it will bind both the parties.
This cannot be because a binding contract is contrary to the essence of a will which is revocable.
The reason for the precept is that testamentary succession is an act of liberality, not a contractual agreement.
Besides, to permit it would impair the heir’s freedom of testamentary disposition with respect to his own property as well as to allow the testator to dispose of the property of another after the latter’s death.