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FMF1 > Concentrated EMF > Flashcards

Concentrated EMF Flashcards

1
Q

6 responsibilities of the ATF Commander

A

Task Organization of the Ships,
Prepare the movement plan,
select the sea eschelon areas in the vicinity of the landing area,
logistics,
force protection,
landing force debarkation until the termination of the amphib operation

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2
Q

who is responsible for the amphibious landing force

A

-ensures troops/equipment/supplies are landed at the prescribed time/place/location as required by the LF scheme of maneuver

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3
Q

how are Amphibious Ships designed to meet Marine Corp tenents

A

OMFTS
STOM

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4
Q

LHA 6

A

USS America

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5
Q

LHA 7

A

USS Tripoli

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6
Q

USS Tripoli

A

LHA 7

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7
Q

aircraft supported by LHA

A

MV-22B Osprey
another tyupe

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8
Q

key differences between the Wasp & America class

A

enlarged hanger deck,
enhanced maintence facilities,
additional aviation storerooms,
C4ISR suite

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9
Q

ORs on LHA

A

2 OR

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10
Q

hospital beds on a LHA

A

24 beds

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11
Q

medical facilities aboard a LHA

A

2 OR
24 beds

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12
Q

cargo space on LHA

A

160K

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13
Q

embarked landing force of a LHA

A

1518 Marines

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14
Q

how is a LHD helpful in an amphibious assault

A

sustain amphib operations after the initial assaults & simultaneous flight/well deck ops

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15
Q

LHD 1

A

Wasp

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16
Q

USS Wasp

A

LHD 1
Norfolk

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17
Q

LHD 2

A

Essex
San Diego

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18
Q

LHD 3

A

Kearsarge
Norflk

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19
Q

USS Boxer

A

LHD 4
San Diego

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20
Q

USS Bataan

A

LHD 5
Norfolk

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21
Q

USS Iwo Jima

A

Norfolk
LHD 7

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22
Q

what does LHD stand for

A

Amphib Assault Ship, multipurpose
Landing Helicopter Dock

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23
Q

embarked landing force of a LHD

A

1700 Marines

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24
Q

well deck capabilities of a LHD

A

3 LCAC
3 LCU
45 AAV

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25
Q

cargo space of a LHD

A

93.3K ft

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26
Q

commander organization of Sasabo

A

COMPHIBRON 11: Commander Amphibious Squadron 11

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27
Q

USS Green Bay

A

LPD 20
Sasabo

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28
Q

USS San Diego

A

LPD 22
San DIego

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29
Q

USS Somerset

A

LPD 25
San Diego

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30
Q

USS Portland

A

LPD 27
San DIego

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31
Q

mission of LPD

A

Amphibious Transport Dock
San Antonio class
embark on the trabsport/launch/support Marine Corp mobility triad (AAV, LCAC, MV-22 Osprey)

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32
Q

length of LPD

A

684 ft

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33
Q

embarked landing force LPD

A

800 Marines

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34
Q

cargo cubic of LPD

A

35.9 cubic ft

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35
Q

well deck capability of LPD

A

2 LCAC
1 LCU & 14 AAV

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36
Q

ICU on a LPD

A

6 ICU

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37
Q

medical capabilities on LPD

A

2 OR
6 ICU
22 ward

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38
Q

classes of LSD

A

Dock Landing Ships
Whidby Island
Harper’s Ferry

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39
Q

what type of ship is Whidbey Island

A

LSD

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40
Q

what type of ship is Harper’s Ferry

A

LSD
Dock Landing Ship

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41
Q

what is special about Whidby Island

A

LSD 41: Dock Landing Ship
-designed specifically to operate LCAS. largest landing capacity for oanding any US amphib platform

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42
Q

platform designed specifically for LCACS

A

LSD 41: Whidbey Island (Dock Landing Ship)

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43
Q

largest amphibious landing platform

A

LSD 41: Whidbey Island (Dock Landing Ship)
LCAC specialist

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44
Q

important about LSD 41-49

A

LSD = Dock Landing Ship
not flag configured
no unique facilities for an embarked staff

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45
Q

LSD 41

A

Little Creek
Whidbey ISland

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46
Q

Whidbey Island

A

LSD 41:
little Creek

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47
Q

USS Comstock

A

LSD 45
Dock Landing Ship
San DIego

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48
Q

USS Rushmore

A

LSD 47
Dock Landing Ship
Whidbey Island Class
San Diego

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49
Q

USS Ashland

A

USS Ashland
Dock Landing Ship
Whidbey Island Class
Sasabo

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50
Q

How do tell what class a LSD belongs to

A

LSD 41-48: Whidbey Island Class
LSD 49-52: Harpers Ferry

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51
Q

Whidbey Island Class

A

LSD 41-48

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52
Q

LSD 41-48

A

LSD
Whidbey Island Class

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53
Q

Harper’s Ferry class

A

LSD 49-52

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54
Q

LSD 49-52

A

Harpers Ferry class

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55
Q

mission of LSD Whidbey Island class

A

designed specifically for the operation of LCAC

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56
Q

LSD in San DIego

A

Comstock
Rushmore
of the WHidbey Island class

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57
Q

LSD at Little Creek

A

Whidbey Island
GUnston Hal
Tortuga

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58
Q

length of Whidbey Island class

A

609 ft

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59
Q

embarked landing force of LSD Whidbey Island class

A

500 Marines

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60
Q

speed of LSD Whidbey Island class

A

20 knots

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61
Q

cargo space of LSD Whidbey Island class

A

4.9K cubic ft

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62
Q

cargo elevator of LSD WHidbey Island

A

1 cargo elevator = 18K

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63
Q

crane lift capabilities of LSD Whidbey Island class

A

2 cranes (30/60 tons)

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64
Q

lift capacity of LSD Whidbey Island class

A

1 cargo elevator = 18K lbs
2 cranes (30/60 tons)

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65
Q

ICU capabilities of LSD

A

1 ICU

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66
Q

OR capability of LSD

A

1 OR

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67
Q

ward beds on LSD

A

5 ward beds

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68
Q

ward beds on LSD

A

5 ward beds

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69
Q

medical facilities aboard a LSD

A

1 OR
1 ICU
5 ward

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70
Q

well deck capability of a LSD

A

4 LCAC
64 AAV

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71
Q

how many AAV can the well deck of a LSD accommodate

A

64 AAV

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72
Q

how can you visually differentiate between the LSD classes

A

Harpers Ferry: Phalanx CIWS moutned forward
RAM launcher on top of the bridge

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73
Q

where is the Phalanx CIWS on the Harpers Ferry class

A

Phalanx CIWS is mounted forward

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74
Q

where is the RAM launcher on the Harpers Ferry class

A

RAM launcher on top of the bridge

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75
Q

weapons on the Harpers Ferry class

A

mounted forward = Phalanx CIWS
top of bridge = RAM launcher

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76
Q

accuracy of the RAM

A

over 95%

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77
Q

how effective is the SeaRAM

A

can launch at over 20 miles away
intercept an incoming missiles speed with a very high probability kill at around 6 miles

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78
Q

CIWS

A

close-in range system

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79
Q

where is the Phalanx CIWS on the Whidbey ISland

A

top of bridge

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80
Q

where is the RAM launcher on the Whidbey Island

A

mounted forward

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81
Q

LSD 49

A

Harpers Ferry
Dock Landing Ship
Harpers Ferry class

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82
Q

LSD Harpers Ferry ships in San Diego

A

LSD 49 - Harpers Ferry
LSD 52: Pearl Harbor

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83
Q

mission of the Harpers Ferry class

A

Dock Landing Ship
improved facilities for embarked forces
greater operating range
can render limited docking repair services to smaller ships

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84
Q

differences in the two LSD classes

A

Whidbey Island = LCAC specialist
Harpers Ferry = greater cargo carrying capabilities, operating range, render limited docking repair services for ships

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85
Q

cargo cube space of LSD Harpers Ferry class

A

67.7 cubic ft

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86
Q

OR capabilities on the Harpers Ferry

A

1 OR

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87
Q

ward beds on the Harpers Ferry

A

7 ward beds

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88
Q

medical capabilities on the Harpers Ferry

A

1 OR
7 ward beds

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89
Q

what is NSFS

A

Navy Surface Fire Support
- fire provided by Navy surface gun and missiles in support of a unit’s support to the assault LF

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90
Q

role of the CATF in the NSFS

A

Naval Surface Fires Support
- prepares the overall plan
- establishes the general policy on the NSFS targeting priorities

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91
Q

role of the CLF in NSFS

A

Naval Surface Fires Support
- determines the LF requirements for NSFS
- selection of targets to be attacked in pre-assault ops/fired on in support for the assault/timing of fires r/t the LF scheme of maneuver

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92
Q

coordinates the timing, priorities, and desired effects of firest within an operational area

A

CLF

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93
Q

ASuW

A

Anti-Surface Warfare

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94
Q

2 classes of DDG

A

Zumwalt
Arleigh Burke

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95
Q

what class is Zumwalt

A

DDG = destroyers

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96
Q

what class is Arleigh Burke

A

DDG = Destroyers

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97
Q

L-hour

A

specific day on C-day when the deployment operation commences

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98
Q

when is L-hour in amphibious operations

A

time when the first helicopter or tiltrotor aircraft of the ship-to-shore movement wave touches down

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99
Q

time when the first helicopter or tiltrotor of the ship-to-shore movement wave touches down

A

L-hour in amphibious operations

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100
Q

H-hour & L-hour during planning

A

scheduled/planned times for landing
in execution, they are the actual times of landing

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101
Q

H-Hour

A

spoecific hour on D_Day on which a particular operation commences

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102
Q

when is H-hour in amphibious landings

A

time the first landing craft/amphibic waterborne vehicle wave lands or is scheduled to land on the beach

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103
Q

time the first landing craft/amphibious vehicle of the waterborne wave lands or is scheduled to land on the beach

A

H-hour

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104
Q

when is H-Hour

A

on D-Day
when the first landing craft hits the beach

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105
Q

time when the first amphib landing craft hits the beach

A

H-hour on D-Day

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106
Q

landing time considerations for DATE of landing

A
  • availability/readiness of forces
  • present/projected enemy situations
  • seasonal
  • weather, tide, current moon phase, duration of day/night
  • designation of limiting dates per higher command
  • advantage of religious holidays
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107
Q

landing time considerations for HOUR of landing

A
  • known enemy routine
  • daylight/moonlight
  • CONOPS
  • need for tactical surprise
  • favorable wind/tide/moon phase conditions
  • most effective employment of supporting arms
  • immediate after/countermeasures of assault breaching ops
  • need for simulataneous landing of surface/helicopter forces
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108
Q

LOD (land warfare)

A

a line to coordinate the departure of attack elements

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109
Q

where is LOD in amphibious operations?

A

Line of departure
- at the seaward end of a boat line to assist in the landing of landing craft/amphibious vehicles at the scheduled times

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110
Q

speed of a LCAC

A

35 knots

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111
Q

OTH distance of a LCAC

A

12-100 nauticle miles
- so this platform can offer the elemnt of surpirise when conducting amphibious oeprations

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112
Q

deck load of a LCU

A

800 lbs per square foot

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113
Q

design of a LCU

A

built in redundency due to arrangement of machinery and equpiment. just in case of damage

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114
Q

where is the anchor system or a LCU located

A

starboard side/aft to assist in retracting from the beach

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115
Q

forms the command section of a Shore Party HQ

A

LSC =- landing support command
CLF(F) = combat logistics regiment (forward)

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116
Q

CLF(f)

A

combat logistics regiment (forward)

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117
Q

subsections of the Shore Party HQ

A

Shore Party Team HQ
Military Police
Command
Evacuation
Communications
Security

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118
Q

who from the Shore Party does early beach RECON, marks LZ, & establishes communications

A

Advance Party

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119
Q

role of the Advance Party

A

early beach RECON,
establishes communications,
marks LZ

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120
Q

what does the Shore Platoon of the Shore Party do

A

estab/operate facilities for unloading supplies/equipment from landign craft or aircraft and moving that material to staging areas or out of the area

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121
Q

causeway platoons

A

part of the Beach Support Unit
- launch/assemble/secure the beach causeway sections to facilitate rapid movements ashore of wheeled/tracked equipment

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122
Q

stevedore

A

person employed to load/unload shipos

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123
Q

year of the Somalia embassy evacuation

A

1991

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124
Q

difference between espirit de corps & morale

A

morale is an individual attitude, espirit de corps is unit

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125
Q

year the Marine Corp emblem was created

A

1868

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126
Q

year the Marine Corp motto was created

A

1883

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127
Q

first Marine pilot

A

Major Alfred A. Cunningham
1913

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128
Q

Alfred A. Cunningham

A

Major
1913
first Marine Pilot

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129
Q

year the Marines were reorganized into the FMF

A

Fleet Marine Force
1933

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130
Q

year the Marines evacuated US citizens in the Caribbean

A

1965: Dominican Republic

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131
Q

how many were injured in the Lebanon suicide bomb

A

241 died
70 injured

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132
Q

Operation Urgent Fury

A

Grenada

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133
Q

extract students in Grenada

A

Operation Urgent Fury

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134
Q

year of Operation Urgent Fury

A

1983
Grenada invasion

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135
Q

official name for the war in Afghanistan

A

Operation Enduring Freedom

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136
Q

date Operation Enduring Freedom begun

A

07 October 2001

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137
Q

year of the Iraq invasion

A

2002

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138
Q

which 4 countries did the 2001 invasion of Iraq

A

US
UK
Australia
Poland

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139
Q

Operation Vigilant Resolve

A

2004
First Battle of Fallujah
unsuccessful

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140
Q

operation names for the Battles of Fallujah

A

2004
Operation Vigilant Resolve
Operation Al-Fajr, Phantom Fury

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141
Q

Operation Phantom Fury

A

2004
Second Battle of Fallujah

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142
Q

operations with “Fury” in their title

A

Operation Urgent Fury = Grenada 1983
Operation Phantom Fury= 2004. 2nd Battle of Fallujah

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143
Q

Daniel Daly

A

2 medal of honor
-Chinese Boxer Rebellion & First Caco War in Haiti
- “Come on you SOB, do you want to live forever?”

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144
Q

John Lejeune

A

13th Commodant (1920-29)
France in WWI (1918)

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145
Q

challenge the Allies faced at the Battle of Tarawa

A

we did secure the heavily fortified island in 76 hours BUT the extended reef meant that they couldn’t cross easily with landing craft. so they offloaded 100s of yards from the beach. heavy losses from enemy fire and drowning

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146
Q

Battle of Mariana Islands

A

Marines invaded b/c we needed airfields/bases in the Pacific for Air Force & Navy
-landed at Saipan & Guam

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147
Q

casualties of Battle of Iwo Jima

A

largest all-Marine Corp battle in Hx
23K
bloodies tooo
1945

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148
Q

bloodiest battle for Marine COrp

A

Iwo Jima in 1945
23K

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149
Q

Oliver P. Smith

A

Major General
1950
commanded the Inchon Landing

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150
Q

what happened at Inchon

A

fall 1950
first major UN force strike into N. Korea territory w/a surprise amphibious assault

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151
Q

significance of the Battle of Chosin Reservoir

A

1950: Marines were cut off from going further into N. Korea. BUT despite the retrograde movement, the Marines brought out all operable equipment, properly evacuated casualties, maintained tactical integrity

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152
Q

battle that was part of the Tet Offense

A

Battle of Hue City
1968

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153
Q

Battle of Hue City

A

Tet Offense
1968

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154
Q

first large scale battle by Marines in OIF

A

Battle of n-nASIRIYA
2003

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155
Q

how many indian tribes were Code Talkers

A

16 tribes. not just Navajo

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156
Q

first female to commision into the Marine Corp from the Naval Aademy

A

1980
10 years before I was born

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157
Q

first female Marine Corp drill instructor

A

1992
I was 2yo

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158
Q

first year Marine women could fly in combat aircraft

A

1993

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159
Q

first female 3 star

A

1996

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160
Q

red strip on the leg of Marine Corp dress uniform

A

1798
mostly b/c that was fashionable at the time

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161
Q

top of the Marine Corp cover

A

quartrefoil: interwoven braid in shape of an 8
so ship riggers could look down and see who was Marine

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162
Q

braided rope over the shoulder of Marines

A

Fourragere
worn on left side
awarded by the French Ministry of War

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163
Q

definition: OMFTS

A

apply maneuver warfare to expeditionary power projection in naval operations as part of a joint/multinational campaign

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164
Q

first 4 of the 6 principles of OMFTS

A
  1. focus on the operational objective
  2. use the sea as maneuver space
  3. generate overwhelming tempo/momentum
  4. pit friendly strength against adversary weakness
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165
Q

first 2 of the 6 principles of OMFTS

A
  1. focus on the operational objective
  2. use the sea as maneuver space
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166
Q

3-4 principles of OMFTS

A
  1. generate overwhelming tempo and momentum
  2. pit friendly strength against adversary weakness
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167
Q

4 of 7 things that OMFTS enables the force to do

A

shatter the adversary cohesion
pose menacing dillemas
apply disruptive firepower
establish superior tempo

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168
Q

2 principles that comprise STOM

A

EMW: expeditioanry maneuver warfare
OMFTS: operational maneuver from the sea

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169
Q

JFLCC

A

joint force land component commander

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170
Q

JFMCC

A

joint force maritime component commander

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171
Q

JFACC

A

joint force air component commander

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172
Q

tactical implementation of OMFTS

A

STOM

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173
Q

definition: STOM

A

tactical implemention of OMFTS by MAGTF to achieve the JFC operational objectives
AND
is the application of manevuer warfare to amphinjous operations at the tactical level

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174
Q

application of maneuver warfare to amphibious operations at the tactical level

A

ship to objective majeuver concept

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175
Q

what does STOM involve

A

rapid employment of the MAGTF by air/surface means from amphibious or from a sea base to objectives in the littoral and beyond

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176
Q

how does STOM treat the sea

A

as maneuver space
sea is both a protective barrier and unrestricted avenue of approach

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177
Q

goal of ship to shore movements

A

secure a beachhead
NOT STOM

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178
Q

difference between STOM & ship to shore movement

A

STOM: thrust expeditionary forces ashore at multipole points to concentrate at decisive place/time in sufficient strength to enable success

secure beachhead in ship to shore movements

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179
Q

objectives of STOM

A

create multiple dillemas too numerous for the adversary to respond to thereby disrupting their cohesiveness and diminishing the adversary’s will or capacity to react

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180
Q

create too many dillemas along the shoreline for the adversary to respond to so you disrupt their cohesiveness and their will/capacity to respond

A

STOM

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181
Q

benefit of sea basing

A

seabase some of the fire support and much of the logistical support reduces the footprint of forces ashore while maintining the tempo of the operation

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182
Q

LD

A

lines of departure

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183
Q

dovetail

A

to fit/cause to fit together easily and conveniently

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184
Q

time length of FHA

A

limited in scope and duration

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185
Q

levels of war FHA is conducted at

A

strategic = direction
operation = coordination/managed
tactical = conducted

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186
Q

3 major agencies that run the FHA program for the US

A

USAID
FODA
Bureau for Democracy, Conflict, and HA

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187
Q

publishes humanitarian response standards

A

Sphere Project

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188
Q

CM

A

Consequence Managemnet

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189
Q

special conditions of HCA

A
  • must fulfill unit training requirements
  • strive to meet desired MOE
  • benefit local lpopulation
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190
Q

limitations to HCA

A
  • medical/dental/vet care in rural areas
  • rudimentary construction infrastructure & repairs
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191
Q

what provides geographic CCDR w/immediate life-saving assitance/funding to countries in their region

A

OHDACA: overseas humanitarian, disaster, and civic aid

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191
Q

what provides geographic CCDR w/immediate life-saving assitance/funding to countries in their region

A

OHDACA: overseas humanitarian, disaster, and civic aidq

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192
Q

by law, the criteria USC Title 10 gives for FHA/DR

A

must promote the security interests of the US & the country in which the activity will be conducted,
operational readiness skills of the US forces

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193
Q

funding for projects under the USC Title 10, Section 401

A

Army O&M accounts fund the building material and other costs
O&M = operation & maintence

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194
Q

O&M funds

A

operations & maintence funds

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195
Q

a unit’s O&M funds that can fund small scale HCA opportunities as they arise in the OE during the course of an exercise or operation in th foreign country

A

de minimus HCA

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196
Q

de minimus HCA

A

a unit’s O&M funds that could fund minimum HCA opprotunities as they arise in the OE during the course of an exercise/operation in a foreign country

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197
Q

authority for the DOD to carry out broader HA projects

A

USC Title 109 Section 2561

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198
Q

DODI for HCA activities

A

DD 2205.12: Humanitarian & Civic Assistance

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199
Q

authorizes OHDACA funds

A

USC Title 10 2561

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200
Q

things to keep in mind when doing a Humanitarian & Civic Assistance project

A
  • must promote both US & foreign country secureity interests
  • promotes operational readiness of US forces
  • compliment but not duplicate other US assistence
  • serve basic economic/social needs of the country’s people
  • not used by any individual/group engaging in military/paramilitary activity
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201
Q

Denton Program

A

permits DOD to provide transportation of privately donated FDR/HA cargo to foreign countries using military transportation on a space available basis

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202
Q

permits DOD to transport privately donated HA cargo to foreign countries using military transport on a space available basis

A

Denton Program
- part of USC Title 10

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203
Q

Funded Transportation Program

A

USC Title 10
= transport cargo & DOD nonlethal excess property worldwide for NGO/IGO

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204
Q

2 programs by which DOD transports humanitarian supplies/equipment

A

Denton Amendment to USC Title 10
Funded Transportation Program

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205
Q

definition: MOUT

A

military operations on urban terrain
- do where manmade construction is the dominant feature
- house to house/street fighting

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206
Q

importance of cities

A

center of: finance, politics, transportaiton, communications, industry, culture
psycyhological, political, logistical value

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207
Q

industralized zones built along roads connecting towns/cities

A

strips

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208
Q

rows of stores/shops along both sides of the street

A

commercial ribbon

209
Q

4 focuses of MOOTW

A

deterring war
resolving conflict
promoting peace
supporting civil authorities in response to domestic crises

210
Q

definition: FID

A

foreign internal defense
= participation by civilian/military agencies of a government in any of the action programs taken by another government or other designated organization to free and prootect its soceity from subversion, lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism, or threatsd

211
Q

counterinsurgency

A

going up against an established government

212
Q

goals in stability operations

A

maintain/reestablish safe/secure environment,
provide essential government services,
emergency infrastructure reconstruction,
humanitarian relief

213
Q

highest position in Navy

A

SecNav

214
Q

gives the SecNav authority to conduct USN affairs

A

Title 10

215
Q

protection from the fire of hostile weapons

A

cover

216
Q

definition: concealment

A

protect from observation/surveillance but not from hostile fire

217
Q

best position for concealment

A

prone & low so sillouette doesn’t give you away

218
Q

problem of using a firearm when you are camoflaging/concealing

A

might need to fire through the object,
looking out/firing reveals your position

219
Q

using paint/mud on skin

A

to reduce sun glare

220
Q

SMEAC

A

situation
mission
execution
administration
command

221
Q

issued prior to the SMEAC

A

map or terrain model to help w/orientation

222
Q

friendly force information included in the SMEAC

A
  1. higher unit mission (task & commander intent)
  2. adjacent missions (task & intent). left/right/front/rear
  3. supporting unit missions (task & INTent”
223
Q

“M” of SMEAC

A

mission
- task(s) to be accomplished
- purpose (WWWWH)
Overall = a clear concisement statement of the task the group must accomplish

224
Q

“E” of SMEAC

A

Execution
- commander’s intent& CONOPS
(scheme of maneuver & support plan)

225
Q

“A” of SMEAC

A

Administrative & logistics
- rations, ammunition, distribution point locations, corpsmen/aid stations, handling of POW, supply

226
Q

“C” of SMEAC

A

chain of command
their location & communication

227
Q

tool to use to analyze your adversary

A

SALUTE

228
Q

E of SALUTE

A

equipment

229
Q

full SALUTE acronym

A

size, activity, location, unit, time, & equipment
helps you understand the composition, disposition, and strength of your enemy

230
Q

full DRAW-D acronym

A

defend, reinforce, attack, withdraw, delay

231
Q

questions you should ask about the mission

A

WWWWH

232
Q

IMTV

A

improved modular tactical vest

233
Q

LWH

A

lightweight helmet

234
Q

EHC

A

enhanced combat helmet

235
Q

IBE

A

improved ballistic eyewear

236
Q

FSBE

A

full spectrum battle equpment

237
Q

BASC

A

body armor system combat equipment

238
Q

SPC

A

scalable plate carrier

239
Q

FROG

A

flame resistent gear

240
Q

benefit of FROG gear

A

flame resistant to mitigate flash-flame exposure inuuries in IED

241
Q

options to use if camoflage paint isn’t available

A

burnt cork, charcoal, lamp black
NOT mud b/c that changes color as it dries, may peel out, has bacteria

242
Q

LZ space needed for helicopters

A

100x100 day
150 x 150 night

243
Q

space radius needed for a UH-1 LZ

A

rotor blades = 50 ft
LZ day = 150
LZ night = 200 (50 + 150)

244
Q

space needed around a CH-46 LZ

A

rotor blades = 85
day LZ = 185
night LZ = 85 + 150)

245
Q

tailwinds safe for a helicopter LZ

A

no more than 5 knots

246
Q

wind speeds needed for a safe helicopter LZ

A

crosswinds <10 knots
tailwinds <5 knots

247
Q

hand signals for helicopters

A

landing directions,
move: up/down/left/right,
wave off,
lower wheels,
hookup,
release load

248
Q

purpose of a SPOT report

A

report timely intelligence or status regarding events that could have an immediate or significant effect on current/future operations

249
Q

11 lines of the SPOT report

A
  1. DTG
  2. reporting Unit
    3-8: SALUTE
  3. assessment (apparent reason for/purpose of the observed activity)
  4. free text
  5. authentication
250
Q

middle lines of the SPOT report

A

lines 3-8 = SALUTE format

251
Q

primary mission of ACE

A

supports the MAGTF during all phases of expeditionary operations as well as sustained operations ashore. SME for aviation

252
Q

6 main functions of Marine Corp Aviation

A

air reconnaissance,
assault support,
control of aircraft & missiles,
AAW,
OSAS,
EW

253
Q

7 sub-functions of “assault support”

A
  • combat assault
  • air delivery
  • aerial refueling
  • air evacuation
  • TRAP
  • air logistical support
  • battlefield illumination
254
Q

definition: OAS

A

offensive air support
- air operations that are conducted against enemy installtions, facilities, and personnel iun order to directly assist in the attainment of MAGTF objectives by destroying enemy resources or isolating enemy military forces

255
Q

how does OAS support warfighting

A

provides fire/force protection via CAS/DAS

256
Q

how does CAS help

A

allows CDRS to influence the battlefield by projecting firepower to shape events in time/space and delaying enemy reinforments, degrading critical enemy functions, manipulating enemy perceptions

257
Q

definition: Air Interdiction Operation

A

OAS = DAS
= destory/neutralize/delays the enemy military potential before it can be brought to bear effectively against friendly forces
- response to a target known in advance

258
Q

destroy, neutralize, or delays military military potential berfore it is brought to bear against friendly forces

A

Air Interdiction Operations (type of OAS/DAS)

259
Q

definition: AAW

A

antiair warfare
- actions used to destroy/reduce the enemy air & missile threat to an acceptable level

to gain/maintain whatever degree of air superiority is required

260
Q

MACS

A

marine air control squadron

261
Q

definition: OAAW

A

offensive anti-air warfare
- operations conducted against enemy air assets/air defensde systems before they can be launched/assume an attacking role

262
Q

mission of TAOC

A

tactical air operations center
- detect, ID, control the interception of hostile aircraft & missiles

263
Q

examples of passive air defense

A

protective construction,
concealment,
camoflage,
deception,
cover,
electronic protection

264
Q

VMGR

A

in-flight refueling
Marine Aerial Refuel Transport Squadron

265
Q

4 ways aircraft can support infantry

A

battlefield illumination,
logistical support,
TRAP,
CSAR

266
Q

ATARS

A

advanced tactical aerial reconnaissance system

267
Q

definition: Air Direction

A

authority to regulate the employment of air resources to maintain a balance between their availabilities and priorities assigned for their use

268
Q

definition: air control

A

authority to direct the physical maneuver of aircraft in flight or to direct an aircraft or surface to air weapon to engage a specific target

269
Q

mission of the Marine Air Group

A
  • provides the support necessary for effective command of the subordinant squadrons of the MAG
  • smallest aviation unit that is designed to conduct operations without outside assistance outside of supply chain
270
Q

smallest aviation unit that can conduct operations w/o outside support san supply chain

A

MAG : marine air group

271
Q

MALS

A

Marine Aviation Logistic SUpport

272
Q

VMR

A

Marine Tactical ELectronic Warfare Squadron

273
Q

EAF

A

Expeditionary Airfields

274
Q

role of VMAQ

A

conduct airborne EW in support of FMF operations that require EW and air reconnaissance

275
Q

VMU

A

marine unmanned aerial squadron

276
Q

FSCC

A

fire support coordination center

277
Q

primary function: VMM

A

Marine Medium Tilt-rotor Squadron
- transport combat troops/equip

278
Q

role of HMLA

A

airborne C2,
armed escort for assault support ops,
SAR,
transport troos/.equip

279
Q

ATC

A

air traffic control

280
Q

DASC(A)

A

direct air support center (airborne)

281
Q

MTACS

A

marinew tactical air command squadron

282
Q

major task of the MTAC

A

provides the command post frothe ACE commander

283
Q

AOC

A

airfield operations center

284
Q

central concept to the employment for the ACE

A

centralized command,
decentralized control

285
Q

best way to use C2

A

centralized command,
decentralized control

286
Q

orgazational level of maintence

A

inspecting,
servicing,
lubricating,
adjusting,
replacing parts,
minior assembilies

287
Q

I-level

A

type of maintence
-higher level of technical training, specialized tools/facilities
-inspect, diagnose, classifies, repairs

288
Q

D-Level

A

depot level of maintence
-takes material/software by inspecting, repair, overhaoul/modify weapons systems/parts/combonents, assembleies

289
Q

3 things the UH-1UY “Venom” does

A

offensive air support,
armed escort,
airborne supporting arms

290
Q

TMS

A

type, model, series

291
Q

weight of the UH-1Y “Venom”

A

empty = 11,840 lbs
max gross wt = 18,500K

292
Q

speed of the UH-1Y “Venom”

A

139 knot cruise
170 knots max

293
Q

max endurance of hte UH-1Y “Venom”

A

3.3 hours

294
Q

ceiling of the UH-1Y “Venom”

A

20K

295
Q

range of the UH-1Y “Venom”

A

129nm w/combat load

296
Q

strategic asset to use in regional hot spot/FHA

A

CH-53 (“Stallions”) b/c heavy lift capabilities

297
Q

only heavy lift helicopters the DOD uses

A

“Stallions”
Super/King
CH-53K
CH-53E

298
Q

empty weight of hte CH-53

A

37,500 lbs

299
Q

max gross weight of the CH-53

A

73,500 lbs

300
Q

how many passengers can the CH-53 carry

A

30

301
Q

how many liters can the CH-53 carry

A

24 liters

302
Q

how many pallates can the CH-53 carry

A

seven 40x40

303
Q

armament of the CH-53

A

machine guns

304
Q

IFF

A

identified friend or foe

305
Q

speed of the CH-53K

A

cruise = 150 knots
max = 170 knots

306
Q

how many palates can teh CH-53K carry

A

twelve 40x40

307
Q

F/A-18A

A

Hornet

308
Q

aka Hornet

A

F/A-18A

309
Q

mission of the F/A-18A

A

coordination, multi-sensory imagry reconaissance, destorys targests day/night in all weather

310
Q

weapons stations on the Hornet

A

9

311
Q

max gross weight of the Hornet

A

51,900

312
Q

max speed of hte F/A-18A-D

A

MACH 1.8

313
Q

ATARS

A

advanced tactical air reconaissance system

314
Q

AV-8

A

Harrier

315
Q

aka Harrier

A

AV-8

316
Q

how do you fly the AV-8 Harrier

A

VSTOL

317
Q

max weight of the Harrier

A

32K lbs

318
Q

speed of the AV-8 Harrier

A

cruise = 360 knots
max = 585 knots

319
Q

combat radius of the Osprey

A

420 nm

320
Q

how may passengers can the MV-22 carry

A

24

321
Q

how many liters can the MV-22 carry

A

12 liters

322
Q

what is the speed of the MV-22

A

cruise = 266 knots
max = 280 knots

323
Q

ceiling of the Osprey

A

25K

324
Q

range of the Osprey

A

860nm

325
Q

aka Hercules

A

C-130

326
Q

AAR

A

air to air refueling

327
Q

range of C-130

A

3250 nm

328
Q

fuel capacity of a C-130

A

58,500 lbs

329
Q

paratrooper capabilities of a C-130

A

64

330
Q

passanger capability of ground troops on C-130

A

92

331
Q

SOPGM

A

standoff precision guided munitions
-griffin

332
Q

AH-1

A

Super Cobra = AH-1W
Viper= AH-1Z

333
Q

missiles on the AH-1

A

Hellfire

334
Q

types of unmanned aerial vehicles

A

RQ-__
PUma, Raven, Wasp

335
Q

combat radius of the Puma

A

10 nm
RQ-20A
type of unmanned aerial vehicle

336
Q

endurance of the Puma

A

RQ-20A
unmanned aerial vehicle
endurance = 180 minutes

337
Q

weight of the Puma

A

RQ-20A
14 lbs
unmanned aerial vehicle

338
Q

combat radius of the Raven

A

RQ-11B
5nm

339
Q

endurance of the Raven

A

RQ-11B
unmanned aerial vehicle
90 minutes

340
Q

weight of the Raven

A

RQ-11B
unmanned aerial vehicle
4.2 lbs

341
Q

combat radius of the Wasp

A

3nm

342
Q

endurance of the Wasp

A

RQ-12A
unmaned aerial vehicle
50 minutes

343
Q

weight of the Wasp

A

RQ-12A
unmanned aerial vehicle
2.85 lbs

344
Q

gimbal

A

used to stabilize camera payloads that are mounted on drones

345
Q

operating altitudes of the UAV (RQ-_) platforms

A

500ft AGL

346
Q

TCPED

A

task, collect, process, exploit, disseminate

347
Q

max range of F-35

A

1200 nm
operational radius is 600nm

348
Q

ceiling of F-35

A

60K ft

349
Q

how to calculate an aircraft payload

A
  1. basic empty weight & fuel minus max weight
  2. check the weight & balance sheet to find the maximum allowable gross weight of hte aircrft and substract that from the max weight to get your useful load
350
Q

aka flag

A

standard

351
Q

functions

A

specific responsibilities assigned to MC by SecDef to fulfill their legally established role

352
Q

commands MEF 1

A

MARFORPAC

353
Q

major subordinant commands under 1 MEF

A

1st MARDIV
1st MLG
3rd MAW

354
Q

commands MEF II

A

MARFORCOM

355
Q

major subordinant commandsds under MEF II

A

all 2nd: MARDIV, MLG, MAW

356
Q

subordinant commands under MEF III

A

3rd: MARDIV, MLG
1st MAW

357
Q

responsibilities of MLG

A

tactical lotistics above organic capability of supported units to all MEF elements, supply chain management and link to oeprational/theatre level logistics agttencies capable of suppporting MEF

358
Q

most significant attribute of MLG

A

permanelty organized command charged w/reponsibility of providing all major tactical logistic functions tor MEF beyond the organic capabilities

359
Q

principle organization for all MC missions

A

MAGTF

360
Q

4 key elements of all MAGTF

A

CE
ACE
GCE
LCE

361
Q

key feature of a MAGTF

A

flexibility
can expland rather than replace w/a new one
so continuity of operations

362
Q

PTP

A

predeployment training plan

363
Q

purpose of a MEU

A

marine expeditionary unit
quick sea-based reaction force
gives options to CCDR

363
Q

gives CCDR/president forward deployed crisis seA BASED CAPABILITIES

A

MEU

364
Q

commands a MEU

A

colonel

365
Q

CJTF

A

combined joint task force

366
Q

primary warfighting organization of the Marine Corps

A

MEF: marine expeditionary force

367
Q

role of MEF

A

primary warfighting organization

368
Q

MARCORSYSCOM

A

R&D, acquisition, lifecycle management, execution of strategic ground level ogistics
primary focus = equipping the force

369
Q

primary focus of MARCORSYSCOM

A

equipping the force

370
Q

who does product/lifecycle management for the Martine COrp

A

MARCORSYSCOM
marine corp systems command

371
Q

instructions if you become a POW

A

Code of Conduct

372
Q

purpose of the Code of Conduct

A

instructions for if you become a POW

373
Q

Code of Conduct Article 1

A

I am an American. I serve in the forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defene.

374
Q

Lines 1-6 of SPOTREP

A

DTG
unit submitting report
size of detected element
activity of DE
location of DE
unit of DE

375
Q

ACE report

A

amunition
casualties
equipment

376
Q

use of ACE report

A

used during reorganization to determine unit status

377
Q

“A” of ACE report

A

amunition
amount per soldier/weapon system

378
Q

“C” of ACE report

A

casualties by type (liter/ambulatory)

379
Q

GOTWA

A

5 point contingency plan
use when the leader is separated from the main body

380
Q

planning tool for when the leader will be separated from the main body

A

GOTWA/5 point contingency plan

381
Q

GOTWA stands for…

A

going, others, time, what procedures if no return, actions

382
Q

SLANT report

A

used to give the CDR information regarding the status of critical personnel/equipment

383
Q

Lines 1-5 of SLANT report

A

DTG, unit submitting report, CDR information requirements, equipment then personnel (type & ammount)
**used to give the commander information regarding the status of personnel and equipment

384
Q

4 types of leadership tactical reports

A

SPOTREP
SLANT
ACE
GOTWA

385
Q

SINCGARTS

A

single channel ground and airborne radio system

386
Q

ASIP

A

advanced system improvement program

387
Q

how to load a single channel frequency into a radio

A
  1. press FREQ (00000 or 300000)
  2. CLR (display shows ___)
  3. enter the 5 digit single channel frequency
  4. press STO (within 7 sec) . display blinks once then data is stored
388
Q

5 C’s of UXO

A

check, confirm, clear, cordon, control

389
Q

meter checks if you suspect an IED

A

5/25/200

390
Q

steps to take if confirm IED/UXO

A
  • call a UXO spot report
  • clear all to safe distance minimum 300 m
391
Q

establish security around a UXO/IED

A

“cordon” prevent foot traffic

392
Q

lines 5-9 of the UXO spot report

A
  1. CBRNE suspected
  2. resources threatened
  3. impact on mission
  4. protective measures taken
  5. recommended priority (immediate, indirect, minor, no threat)
393
Q

3 squad formations

A

column, line, file

394
Q

mneumic for Detainee operations

A

5ST
search, silence, segregate, speed, safeguard
tag

395
Q

how to tag detainees

A

DD Fofrm 2745
-confiscated equipment/personal items/evidence will be linked back to the detainee via the form

396
Q

function of patrolling

A

find the enemy to engage or report disposition/location/actions

397
Q

5 principles of patrolling

A

planning, reconaissance, security, control, common sense

398
Q

purpose of reconaissance as a principle of patrollinh

A

confirm what you think you know,
find out what you don’t know,
confirm your plan with facts on the ground

399
Q

principle of control as a principle of patrol

A

clarify CONOPS

400
Q

3 types of combat operations

A

raid, ambush, security

401
Q

definition: raid

A

surprise attack against a position/installation for a specific purpose other than seizing/holding terrain

402
Q

raid versus ambush

A

both = types of combat patrol
raid: surprise attack for the purpose other than seize/hold terrain
ambush: surprise from a concealed position on a moving target

403
Q

8 types of engagement techniquies

A

point, area, simultaneousl, alternating, observed, sequential, recon by fire, time of suppression

404
Q

point (engagement techique)

A

concentrating effects of fire against a specific identified target

405
Q

concentrating effects of fire on a specific identified target

A

point

406
Q

area (engagement technique)

A

distributing effects of firepower over an area for numerous or not obvious enemy positions

407
Q

distributing firepower over an area for numerous or not obvious enemy positions

A

area (engagement technique)

408
Q

simultaneous (Engagement technique)

A

rapidly mass the effects of fire or gain fire superiiority

409
Q

engagement technique where you rapidly mass firepower to gain fire superiority

A

simultaneous

410
Q

recon by fire

A

E

411
Q

recon by fire

A

engagement strategy wher you engage possible enemy location to elict a tatical response (movement or return fire)

412
Q

engagement where you fire on a possible enemy position to elict a tactial response (e.g. movement or return fire)

A

recon by fire

413
Q

ORP

A

operational rally point

414
Q

good location for an ORP

A

operational rally point
out of sight, sound, and small arms range

415
Q

types of hasty fighting postiions

A

shell crater
skirmisher’s trench,
prone fighting position

416
Q

terrain analysis

A

OAKOC

417
Q

OAKOC

A

terrain analysis acronym
observation & field of fire
avenue of approach
key terrain
obstacles
cover/concealment

418
Q

“O” of OAKOC”

A

terrain analysis
obstacles

419
Q

“A” of OAKOC

A

terrain analysis
avenues of approach

420
Q

“K” of OAKOC

A

terrain analysis
key terrain

421
Q

“C” of OAKOC

A

terrain analysis
cover and conceal

422
Q

what are the 2 O’s in OAKOC

A

terrain analysis
obstacles,
observation & fields of fire

423
Q

added in MOPP 3

A

secure your hood

424
Q

PCC/PCI

A

precombit checks/inspections

425
Q

delegation of PCC/PCI

A

precombat checks/inspections
- cannot be delegayted below the level of the team leader
-ensures the person is ready to support the mision

426
Q

PCI

A

precombat inspection
- formal
-time intensive
-enables the platoon leader verifies the operational readiness

427
Q

PCC

A

precombat checks
- less formal and more mission specific than PCI
- emphasizes areas, missions, or tasks required for upocoming missions

428
Q

how long can you stay in a patrol base

A

less than 24 hours and don’t reuse
- rest, plan, maintence,

429
Q

AAR questions

A
  • what was supposed to happen
  • what did happen
  • what were the performance standards
  • why did it happen
  • how to sustain strengths
  • how to improve weaknesses
430
Q

mm caliber of hte Marine Corp Service Rifle

A

5.56 mm

431
Q

2 ways to fire the Marine Corp Service Rifle

A

burst or semi

432
Q

maximum effective range of hte M4 carabine

A

550 meters

433
Q

purpose of the ejection port on the Marine Corp Service Rifle

A

prevents dirt/sand from getting through the ejection port

434
Q

normal state of the ejection port

A

closed to keep dirt/sand out

435
Q

purpose of the rail system on the Marine Corp Service Rifle

A

the rail system protects the gas turbine

436
Q

role of the bolt carrier assembly

A

stripping,
chambering,
locking,
firing,
extriation,
ejection

437
Q

role of the hatch latch on the Marine Corp Service Rifle

A

hatch latch locks the charging handle assembly in the forward position during sustained fire to prevent injury during operation

438
Q

role of the magazine

A

holds cartridges for feeding,
provides a guide for positioning cartridges for stripping,
quick reload capabilities for sustained firing

439
Q

what chambers a bullet

A

barrel chambers a bullet

440
Q

“semi” on a gun

A

one trigger pull = one bullet

441
Q

one shot per trigger pull

A

semi

442
Q

prevents a gun from shooting

A

safe on the selector lever

443
Q

“burst” on selector level

A

continues to fire its cycle of operations until interruption from the burst cam (limit to 3)

444
Q

what happens when the charging handle is pulled to the rear

A

bolt unlocks from the barrel extension locking lugs,
bolt carrier group moves to the rear of the receiver

445
Q

purpose of the gas deflector

A

prevents the gas from blowing into the aiming eye

446
Q

when does the bolt carrier group lock to the rear

A

if the charging handle is pulled to the rear when the lower portion of the bolt catch is depressed, the bolt carrier group locks to the rear

447
Q

aka RCO

A

AN/PVQ-31

448
Q

what is RCO

A

illuminated telescopic sight that does not use battery

449
Q

which weapon has RCO

A

only the M4 carabiner

450
Q

ball amunition

A

M855

451
Q

tracer amunition

A

M856

452
Q

dummy amunition

A

M199

453
Q

blank amunition

A

M200

454
Q

amunition used for normal shooting w/the Service Rifle

A

M855

455
Q

M855

A

regular service rifle amunition

456
Q

M856

A

tracer

457
Q

M199

A

dummy round

458
Q

M200

A

blank

459
Q

primary ammunition for the Service Rifle

A

M855
green tip

460
Q

ammunition with a green tip

A

M899
primary rifle amunition
solid steel & lead

461
Q

bullet with a green tip

A

ball (M855)
for the service rifle

462
Q

bullet with a bright red tip

A

tracer

463
Q

appearance of normal service rifle amunition

A

green tip
lead & steel alloyt

464
Q

bullet w/a red tip

A

tracer

465
Q

3 uses of tracer bullets

A

observetion firing,
incindinary effect,
signaling

466
Q

cartridges used during dry firing

A

dummy M199

467
Q

appearence of the dummy bullets

A
  • 6 grooves along the side
  • contains no propellant or primer
  • primer well is open to prevent damage to the firing pin
468
Q

bullet w/ six grooves along the side

A

dummy round

469
Q

type of round that doesn’t have propellant or primer

A

dummy (M199)

470
Q

how does a dummy round prevent damage to the firing pin

A

M199
primer well is open

471
Q

bullet with violet tip

A

blank round

472
Q

bullet with rosette crimp

A

blank round

473
Q

appearence of a blank round

A

violet tip
seven petal rosette

474
Q

compare dummy round to blank round

A

DUMMY: 6 grooves along side. primer well is open to prevent damage to the firing pin
BLANK: seven petal rosette crimp. violet

475
Q

what happens to a projectile when it is fired

A
  1. powder burns
  2. chamber pressure builds
  3. projectile is pushed forward
  4. engaging the rifling
  5. power continues to burn which adds pressure, increases the velocity
  6. grooves inside causes spin
476
Q

rotation of bullets

A

spin = stablilzation
more spin is needed for heavier

477
Q

what happens if a round is over-stabilized

A

projectile will perform poorly when it impacts body tissue.
punching straight through the body w/minimal tissue disturbance

478
Q

what happens if a bullet is under-stabilized

A

will not be accurate,
will be greatly affected by atmospheric conditions/drag

479
Q

weapon “conditions”

A

readiness stater

480
Q

magazine in CONDITION 1

A

magazxine inserted

481
Q

round in CONDITION 1

A

round in chamber

482
Q

5 criteria of CONDITION ONE

A

safety on
magazxine inserted
round in chamber
bolt forward
ejection port covered

483
Q

chamber in CONDITION 3

A

chamber empty

484
Q

criteria of CONDITION 3

A

safety on
magazine inserted
chamber empty
bolt foreward
ejection port closed

485
Q

magazine in CONDITION 4

A

magazine removed

486
Q

chamber in CONDITION 4

A

chamber empty

487
Q

criteria in Condition 4

A

safety on
magazine removed
chamber empty
bolt foreard
ejection port cover closed

488
Q

what must you do when you take possession of a weaopn

A

establish its condition

489
Q

3 ways to determine the condition of a weapon

A
  • determine if the magazine is present
  • ensure the weapon is on SAFE
  • conduct a chamber check
490
Q

command when someone is told to show their weapon is not loaded

A

SHOW CLEAR

491
Q

SHOW CLEAR

A

command where someone has to show their weapon is not loaded

492
Q

CLP

A

cleaner, lubricant, and preservative

493
Q

liquid used during cleaning of weapons

A

CLP

494
Q

when is CLP not used

A

cold/Arctic

495
Q

4 tools needed to clean a weapon

A

CLP
rod
brushes
patches

496
Q

what happens in double-action mode

A

hammer moves to the rear as the trigger is being pulled

497
Q

hammer moves to the rear as the trigger is being pulled

A

double-action

498
Q

3 major components of the M9

A

slide & barrel assemblty
receiver

499
Q

maximum effective range of the M9

A

50 yards

500
Q

balls used by the M9

A

9m,

501
Q

8 steps of firing the M9 service pistol

A

firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, cocking, feeding, chambering, lcoking

502
Q

strip used to keep the pistol on your person

A

laynard

503
Q

6 commands when firing the M9 service pistol

A

load,
make ready,
fire,
cease fire,
unload,
show clear

504
Q

2 ways to check the condition of the M9 Service pistol

A

checking the round indicator on the right side of the pistol,
conducing the chamber check

505
Q

what condition is your pistol in during the “LOAD” command

A

takes from CONDITION 4 to 3

506
Q

what condition do you put your service pistol in the command “Unload”

A

Condition 4

507
Q

aka service pistol

A

M9

508
Q

stoppage

A

unintentional interruption in the cycle of operation

509
Q

unintentional interruption in the cycle of operation

A

stoppage

510
Q

what is happening when your pistol won’t fire

A

stoppage

511
Q

prevent M9 stoppages

A

proper care,
cleaning,
lubrication,
shooter error

512
Q

weight of a M67 grenade

A

14 ounces

513
Q

how to throw a hand grenade

A

remove pin. (twist/pull)
pull ring w/the index/middle finger of the nonthrowing hand.

514
Q

FMTV

A

family of medium tactical vehickes

514
Q

weight of HIMARS

A

24K lbs

514
Q

maximum range of HIMARS

A

45 miles

515
Q

maximimum rate of fire of HIMARS

A

6 rockets

516
Q

maximum speed of HIMARS

A

53 mph

517
Q

difference between blank/dummy ronds

A

blank = propellant & primer but not bullet/shot
dummy - no expolosive sound

FMF1 (1 decks)

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