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Comlex Board Prep > Comquest Questions > Flashcards

Comquest Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most important goal when designing a randomized controlled clinical trial?

A

Reproducibility

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2
Q

What is the most likely route of transmission of hepatitis C virus?

A

IV Drug Use

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3
Q

Acute pericarditis, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, and petechiae…

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

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4
Q

2 week old female with failure to thrive. Weak suckling from birth. Patient has muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone and areflexia. Electromyogram shows muscle fibrillation. Most likely Dx?

A

Spinal Muscular Atrophy. AR.

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5
Q

What are the elements of informed consent?

A
  1. Diagnosis
  2. Nature of intervention
  3. Risks and benefits of intervention and alternatives
  4. Assessment of patient understanding
  5. Consent from patient for intervention
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6
Q

What is treatment of scoliosis with a Cobb angle of 20-45 degrees?
5-15?
50-75?

A

5-15: OMT and PT
20-45: Orthotics, PT and OMT
50-75: Surgical Intervention

>50 = Respiratory Compromise
>75 = Cardiovascular Compromise
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7
Q

Empiric Tx for Necrotizing Fasciitis?

A

Meropenem

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8
Q

Triad of unilateral flank pain, hematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass. Dx and associated findings?

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma. Associated with Polycythemia and/or Hypercalcemia.

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9
Q

DMARD resulting in skin rashes, stomatitis, cholestatic jaundice, nephrotoxicity and bone marrow suppression?

A

Gold sodium thiomalate. (Old treatment rarely used now)

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10
Q

Icosahedral flavivirus with positive linear, single-stranded RNA. Transmitted by mosquitoes. Can cause encephalitis, severe muscle weakness, and flaccid paralysis.

A

West Nile Virus

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11
Q

Tranylcypromine, selegiline, phenelzine, isocarboxazid are all examples of what class of drug?

A

MAOIs

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12
Q

Intellectual disability, long face, large ears. Dx and chromosomal findings?

A

Fragile X Syndrome. CGG repeats on X Chromosome.

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13
Q

What is the MOA of Lactulose and what is it used to treat?

A

Lactulose works by acidifying colonic contents, effectively sequestering ammonia into ammonium, which is excreted. It is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy.

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14
Q

How do you diagnose Multiple Myeloma?

A

Serum and urine protein electrophoresis.

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15
Q

AIDS patient, AMS, obtunded, high temp, high protein CSF, low glucose CSF, what stain to dx? What is Dx?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans. India Ink.

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16
Q

Crystals that are yellow when parallel to the polarizer and blue when perpendicular to the plarizer (negatively birefringent).

A

Monosodium Urate Crystals. Gouty Arthritis.

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17
Q

What do the following thalamic nuclei relay?

Lateral Geniculate Nucleus
Medial Geniculate Nucleus
VPL Nucleus
VPM Nucleus
Pulvinar Nucleus
A

LGN: Vision
MGN: Hearing
VPL: Somatosensory from body to Sensory Homunculus
VPM: Somatosensory from face to Sensory Homunculus
Pulvinar Nucleus: Plays role in integrating attention from somatosensory inputs. Can produce hemispatial neglect and attention deficits if lesioned.

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18
Q

Name the artery affected:

Lower Extremity Paraplegia, Incontinence, Motor Aphagia, Personality Changes.

A

Anterior Cerebral Artery

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19
Q

Name the artery affected:

Hemiplegia affecting face and arm, homonymous hemianopsia, Broca’s aphagia.

A

Middle Cerebral Artery

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20
Q

Name the artery affected:

Homonymous hemianopsia w/ sparing of the macula. Unable to recognize people (prosopagnosia).

A

Posterior Cerebral Artery

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21
Q

Why do you use physostigmine for the treatment of anticholinergic OD?

A

Physostigmine crosses the BBB, making it more centrally acting on the brain.

22
Q

Initial Tx of Acute Rheumatic Fever?

A

Penicillin

23
Q

Alteration in Apolipoprotein C2 that leads to elevated TAGs and Cholesterol?

A

Familial Hyperlipidemia Type 1

24
Q

Triad of hypotension, JVD, and distant heart sounds w/ pulsus paradoxus (decrease in Systolic BP >12 mmHg upon inspiration)?

A

Beck’s Triad of Cardiac Tamponade

25
Q

Initial Treatment of Malaria?
Drug Added if Vivax or Ovale?
Most Life-Threatening?

A

Chloroquine.
Primaquine.
P. falciparum.

26
Q

“Thunder Clap” Headache w/ associated finding of meningitis?

A

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage.

27
Q

At what level must nerves be reattached to maintain function of the effector muscle?

A

Perineurium

28
Q

Triad of pituitary, pancreatic, and parathyroid dysfunction:

A

Men 1

29
Q

What is the underlying immunologic mechanism for the development of Dermatitis Herpetiformis?

A

Compliment Activation

30
Q

First line therapy for Ulcerative Colitis?

A

5-ASA

31
Q

How does aspirin exacerbate gout?

A

Competes with uric acid for renal excretion.

32
Q

What is the initial step in the pharmacologic management of pheochromocytoma?

A

Alpha 1 and Alpha 2 Blockade with either phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine.

33
Q

First line treatment for panic disorder:

A

Citalopram and other SSRIs

34
Q

What is the difference between transference and countertransference?

A

Transference: How patient feels about doctor.
Countertransference: How doctor feels about the patient.

35
Q

What lab findings are seen with Cushing’s Syndrome?

A

Elevated urinary 24-hour free cortisol level, elevated serum glucose, hypokalemia.

36
Q

Autonomic instability, altered mental status, hyperreflexia. Dx and Treatment:

A

Seratonin Syndrome. Cyproheptadine.

37
Q

Most sensitive serum level tests in order to diagnose the etiology behind megaloblastic anemia?

A

Homocysteine and Methylmalonic Acid. Homocysteine will be elevated in both Folate and B12 deficiency. Only MMA is elevated in B12 deficiency.

Remember up to 50% of patients that are B12 deficient test with normal serum B12 levels.

38
Q

Most appropriate medications to add as adjuncts to seratonergic drugs (SSRIs or SNRIs) for treatment resistent depression?

A
  1. Lithium
  2. 2nd Gen Antipsychotics (Aripiprazole, Olanzapine, Risperidone)
  3. Bupropion or Mirtazipine
  4. Thyroid Hormone
  5. Buspirone
39
Q

Which CN is responsible for loss of gag reflex and uvula deviation away from lesion?

A

CN X - Vagus

40
Q

Cancer marker for monitoring progression of colon cancer? Pancreatic? Ovarian? Malignant Melanoma?

A

Colon: CEA
Pancreatic: CA19-9
Ovarian: CA-125
Malignant Melanoma: S-100

41
Q

Atraumatic hemarthrosis cause:

A

Hemophilia A (VIII) or B (IX)

42
Q

Signs of Iron Deficiency Anemia:

A

Decreased MCV, Decreased MCHC, Increased RDW (Anisocytosis)

43
Q

One of the most common complications of Statins:

A

Myopathy

44
Q

Paroxysmal Tachycardia w/ 2:1 pattern block. Drug?

A

Digoxin Toxicity

45
Q

High fever, bloody, mucousy stool in infant.

A

Shigella

46
Q

Dx and Tx:

9: 22
15: 17
8: 14
14: 18
11: 14

A

9: 22 - CML - Imatinib
15: 17 - Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3)
8: 14 - Burkitt’s Lymphoma - Chemo
14: 18 - Follicular Lymphoma
11: 14 - Mantle Cell Lymphoma

47
Q

What will untreated Riedel’s Thyroiditis commonly lead to?

A

Pneumonia due to bronchial compression from fibrosed thyroid gland.

48
Q

Tx for Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension?

A

Endothelin-1 Receptor Antagonist (Endothelin Vasoconstricts)

49
Q

Autoimmune disease w/ recurrent oral and genital ulcers, also arthralgia of knees and ankles. Characteristic waxing and waning of symptoms.

A

Behcet’s Disease

50
Q

Most common location of gastrin-secreting tumor?

A

Duodenum

Comlex Board Prep (4 decks)

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