Comquest Flashcards

1
Q

When should a pregnant patient with preeclampsia w/o severe features be delivered?

A

37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

`At how many gestational weeks should a pregnant pt be delivered with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia?

A

Once they are at least 34 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which drug is used for the tx of apthous ulcers?

A

Triamcinolone: topical corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Between OCD and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder do pt’s find nothing abnormal about their behavior (ego-syntonic)?

A

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In pt with anatomic or functional asplenia which meningococcal vaccines should be given based on age?

A
  • Meningococcal conjugate (MCV4) in pt’s ≤55 yo
  • Meningococcal polysaccharide (MPV4) in pt’s ≥56 yo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Once learning that a patient on levothyroxine is pregnant, what should be done immediately?

A

Increase the dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A child presenting between the ages of 18 months - 3 y/o with unilateral or b/l intoeing despite forward-facing patella most likely has what?

A

Internal tibial rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An obese child who is learning to walk appears to have both feet facing outward at 90 degree angles when standing; what is the most likely dx?

A

Femoral retroversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the hallmark cardiac ausculation finding associated with atrial septal defects?

A

Wide, fixed split S2 which may be accompanied by systolic ejection murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of murmur is heard with ventricular septal defects?

A

Harsh, systolic ejection murmur loudest at the lower left sternal border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with increased or persistnt vaginal bleeding more than 2 weeks following a surgical evacuation procedure or delivery without evidence of infection?

A

Retained products of conception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A spontaneous or induced abortion that is complicated by intrauterine infection is known as what?

A

Septic abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A pt presenting with sore throat, fever, muffled voice, and trismus (inability to completely open the mouth) most likely has what?

A

Peritonsillar abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does retropharyngeal abscess typically present?

A
  • Young child with neck stiffness w/ an insidious onset, without tonsillar involvement
  • Distinguishing feature: discrete mass and generalized swelling within the midline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn with pathologic jaundice occurs within 24 hours of birth, most often due to ABO and/or Rh incompatibility and is best diagnosed how initially?

A

direct Coombs’ test —> then perform phototherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which SNRI is FDA approved for use as an analgesic in pt’s with chronic osteoarthritis and contraindiciations to NSAIDs?

A

Duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a pt with a rapidly growing, solitary, friable, bright red, polypoid papule or nodule with erosion or ulceration that bleeds profusely with very little trauma?

A

Pyogenic Granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the recommended age range and frequency for breast cancer screening?

A
  • Age: 50-74 y/o
  • Frequency: Every 2 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is definitive diagnosis of aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD) made?

A

Oral aspirin challenge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is tx of choice in healthy, immunocompetent children older than 2 years of age presenting with mild sx’s suggestive of acute otitis media?

A

Supportive and symptomatic tx with analgesics i.e., ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mobitz type II 2nd degree AV block is most often due to a disturbance where?

A

His-Purkinje system

22
Q

Children that are 11-12 y/o should receive which vaccines?

A
  • TDap
  • Meningococcal CONJUGATE
  • HPV nonvalent 2-dose series
23
Q

What is the first line tx for mild to moderate carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Neutral wrist splinting

24
Q

Testicular torsion is due to congenital malformation of what?

A

Processus vaginalis

25
Q

What is the initial step in diagnosis of ADPKD?

A

Renal ultrasonography

26
Q

How is diagnosis of suspected nephrolithiasis made?

A

non-contrast CT of abdomen

27
Q

At 9 months a child would be expected to have met which motor, cognitive, social, and language milestones?

A
  • Motor: pull up to a stand, cruise around the furniture using 2 hands, grasp objects with 2 fingers and their thumb, and bang 2 blocks together
  • Cognitive/social: have stranger anxiety, play gesture games (peekaboo) and wave bye-bye
  • Language: polysyllabic babbling and speak “mama” non-specifically
28
Q

What is the most common cause of sideroblastic anemia?

A

Excessive alcohol

29
Q

In any suspected case of placenta previa what are the next best steps in management?

A

Because of the risk of severe hemorrhage, should perform ultrasound prior to digital vaginal examination

30
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary nephrotic syndrome and what is the most common complication?

A

Diabetes mellitus and most likely complication is venous thrombosis

31
Q

Adolescent who experiencs brief, arrhythmic, involuntary, bilateral upper extremity myoclonic jerks w/o loss of consciousness most likely has what?

A
  • Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
  • Valproic acid = 1st line
32
Q

What is the recommended screening interval for patients with normal lipids and at what age should it begin?

A
  • Every 5 years
  • Men at 35 y/o

and

  • Men aged 20-35andwomenaged 20+ if they are at increased risk forcoronary artery disase
33
Q

Using Naegele’s rule how would you determine a woman’s estimated due date if her cycles were 35 days long?

A
  • Using the baseline of a normal 28-day cycle you add 7 days + 9 months
  • Since this pt has a cycle which is 7 days longer than normal you add a total of 14 days + 9 months to the first day of her LMP
34
Q

How does diagnostic evaluation for suspected allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis begin?

A

Total serum IgE test + allergy skin prick testing to evaluate for specific IgE antibody to Aspergillus fumigatus

35
Q

Diagnosis of posterior urethral valves is made how?

A

Voiding Cystourethrogram

36
Q

What should be transfused into a patient on Warfarin who develops life-threatening bleeding?

A

Vitamin K and Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

37
Q

For cat/dog bites if immunization hx is in question what should be given?

A

Tetanus toxoid and tetanus immune globin

38
Q

If pt with cat/dog bite is adequately immunized what vaccine should be given?

A

Tetanys toxoid only

39
Q

What is the best initial step in management of actinic keratosis described as non-pigmented, erythematous, and scaly macules, papules, or plaques which are not tender and do not bleed?

A

Cryosurgery

40
Q

What is the initial tissue sampling technique of choice for non-melanoma skin cancer i.e., basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Shave biopsy

41
Q

What is the analgesic of choice during pregnancy?

A

Acetaminophen

42
Q

What is the tumor marker most likely present w/ testicular choriocarcinoma, which are very aggressive with early, widespread hematogenous spread and particularly associated with brain metastases?

A

beta-hCG

43
Q

What are 3 hallmarks of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A
  • Anemia w/ an elevated reticulocyte count
  • (+) direct Coombs
  • Spherocytes on peripheral smear
44
Q

What is the most likely dx in pt with bilateral breast lumps and pain in the upper uter quadrant starting within several days of or prior to menstruation and disappearing afterwards?

A

Fibrocystic breast disease

45
Q

What is the most common presentation of infiltrating ductal carcinoma?

A

A painless breast lump found below the areola w/ bloody nipple discharge

46
Q

Which markers on the quad screen during pregnancy will be elevated with trisomy 21?

A

Beta-hCG and Inhibin A

47
Q

The diagnosis of Riedel thyroiditis (expanding, painless neck mass with or without sx’s of obstruction) is confirmed how?

A

Open surgical biopsy

48
Q

Basal cell carcinoma located in the “H” region of the face is most sucessfully treated w/ what procedure?

A

Mohs surgery: lesion is removed layer by layer with confirmation of clear margins during the procedure to minimize scar formation

49
Q

1st line tx for vulvovaginal candidiasis in non-pregnant women?

A

Oral Fluconazole

50
Q

What is the most common cause of an acquired goiter in children and adolescents; how do you work it up?

A
  • Autoimmune (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis
  • Intial: via testing for TSH, free T4, and anti-thyroid antibodies