CompTIA Security+ Vocab List Flashcards

1
Q

Directory service by Microsoft for Windows domain networks.

A

Active Directory

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2
Q

Symmetric encryption algorithm.

A

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)

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3
Q

Identifying unusual patterns that do not conform to expected behavior.

A

Anomaly Detection

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4
Q

Layer 7 of the OSI model, providing network services to applications.

A

Application Layer

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5
Q

Total points where an attacker can try to enter data into or extract data from an environment.

A

Attack Surface

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6
Q

Record of activities to ensure integrity and track changes.

A

Audit Trail

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7
Q

IPsec protocol providing connectionless integrity and data origin authentication.

A

Authentication Header (AH)

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8
Q

Authentication using physical characteristics, like fingerprints or facial recognition.

A

Biometrics

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9
Q

Testing without knowledge of the internal workings of the application.

A

Black Box Testing

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10
Q

Group responsible for defending an organization from cyber attacks.

A

Blue Team

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11
Q

Physical security device to prevent vehicle-based attacks.

A

Bollard

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12
Q

Video surveillance system.

A

CCTV (Closed-Circuit Television)

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13
Q

List of certificates that have been revoked by the Certificate Authority.

A

Certificate Revocation List (CRL)

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14
Q

Documentation showing the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence.

A

Chain of Custody

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15
Q

Encrypted text transformed from plaintext.

A

Ciphertext

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16
Q

Security controls that provide alternative measures.

A

Compensating Controls

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17
Q

Ensuring that information is only accessible to those authorized to have access.

A

Confidentiality

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18
Q

Using different types of controls (administrative, technical, physical) to achieve security.

A

Control Diversity

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19
Q

Inactive data stored physically in any digital form.

A

Data-at-Rest

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20
Q

Data actively moving from one location to another.

A

Data-in-Transit

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21
Q

Process of reducing or eliminating a magnetic field, often used to erase data from magnetic storage.

A

Degaussing

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22
Q

Physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services.

A

Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)

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23
Q

Process of uncovering and interpreting electronic data.

A

Digital Forensics

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24
Q

Searching through waste to find confidential information.

A

Dumpster Diving

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25
Q

Framework for transporting authentication protocols.

A

EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

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26
Q

Encryption algorithm based on elliptic curves over finite fields.

A

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)

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27
Q

Disturbance affecting an electrical circuit due to electromagnetic radiation.

A

EMI (Electromagnetic Interference)

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28
Q

Encryption process where decryption keys are held in escrow.

A

Escrowed Encryption

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29
Q

Rogue wireless access point mimicking a legitimate one.

A

Evil Twin

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30
Q

Linking a user’s electronic identity and attributes, stored across multiple distinct identity management systems.

A

Federated Identity Management

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31
Q

Process of validating the integrity of operating system and application software files.

A

File Integrity Monitoring

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32
Q

Creating a virtual boundary for a geographic area.

A

Geofencing

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33
Q

Popular password cracking tool.

A

Hashcat

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34
Q

System that monitors and analyzes the internals of a computing system.

A

HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System)

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35
Q

System designed to protect a host from malicious attacks.

A

HIPS (Host-based Intrusion Prevention System)

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36
Q

Combining dictionary and brute-force attacks to crack passwords.

A

Hybrid Attack

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37
Q

Linking a single identity across multiple systems.

A

Identity Federation

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38
Q

System that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities.

A

IDS (Intrusion Detection System)

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39
Q

Protocol used by email clients to retrieve messages from a mail server.

A

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)

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40
Q

Organized approach to addressing and managing the aftermath of a security breach or attack.

A

Incident Response Plan

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41
Q

Artifacts observed on a network or in an operating system that with high confidence indicate a computer intrusion.

A

IoC (Indicators of Compromise)

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42
Q

Creating IP packets with a forged source IP address.

A

IP Spoofing

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43
Q

Non-parametric way to estimate the probability density function of a random variable.

A

KDE (Kernel Density Estimation)

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44
Q

Network authentication protocol using tickets.

A

Kerberos

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45
Q

Secure storage and recovery of encryption keys.

A

Key Escrow

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46
Q

Protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services.

A

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

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47
Q

Principle of limiting access rights for users to the bare minimum.

A

Least Privilege

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48
Q

Code inserted into a system that sets off a malicious function when specified conditions are met.

A

Logic Bomb

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49
Q

Access control policy determined by the system.

A

MAC (Mandatory Access Control)

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50
Q

Software intentionally designed to cause damage.

A

Malware

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51
Q

Physical security device that monitors and controls two interlocking doors to a small room.

A

Mantrap

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52
Q

Widely used cryptographic hash function.

A

MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5)

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53
Q

Attack where the attacker secretly intercepts and relays messages.

A

MitM (Man-in-the-Middle)

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54
Q

Architecture where a single instance of software serves multiple customers.

A

Multi-Tenancy

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55
Q

Solutions to define and implement a security policy that grants access to network resources.

A

NAC (Network Access Control)

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56
Q

Network protocol for collecting IP traffic information.

A

Netflow

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57
Q

System for monitoring and analyzing network traffic.

A

NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System)

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58
Q

Assurance that someone cannot deny the validity of their actions.

A

Non-Repudiation

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59
Q

Suite of Microsoft security protocols for authentication.

A

NTLM (NT LAN Manager)

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60
Q

Making something obscure or unclear.

A

Obfuscation

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61
Q

Open standard for access delegation.

A

OAuth (Open Authorization)

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62
Q

Identifier used to name an object.

A

OID (Object Identifier)

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63
Q

Encryption technique that cannot be cracked.

A

One-Time Pad

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64
Q

Decentralized authentication protocol.

A

OpenID

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65
Q

Online community creating freely available security-related resources.

A

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project)

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66
Q

Authentication protocol that uses a two-way handshake.

A

PAP (Password Authentication Protocol)

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67
Q

Property ensuring that the compromise of one session key does not affect others.

A

PFS (Perfect Forward Secrecy)

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68
Q

Redirecting website traffic to another, fraudulent website.

A

Pharming

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69
Q

Using one compromised system to attack others.

A

Pivoting

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70
Q

Camera that can be remotely controlled to pan, tilt, and zoom.

A

PTZ (Pan-Tilt-Zoom)

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71
Q

Precomputed table for reversing cryptographic hash functions.

A

Rainbow Table

72
Q

Group playing the role of an adversary to test security.

73
Q

Executing code remotely on a different system.

A

Remote Code Execution (RCE)

74
Q

Risk remaining after security measures have been applied.

A

Residual Risk

75
Q

Unauthorized wireless access point.

76
Q

Adding random data to a hash function to ensure unique outputs.

77
Q

Isolated environment for running untrusted programs.

78
Q

Network management approach enabling programmatically efficient network configuration.

A

SDN (Software-Defined Networking)

79
Q

Secure version of FTP using SSH.

A

SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)

80
Q

Single sign-on (SSO) solution for web resources.

A

Shibboleth

81
Q

Solution for real-time analysis of security alerts.

A

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)

82
Q

DDoS attack using IP spoofing and ICMP.

A

Smurf Attack

83
Q

Stack of compatible software programs enabling security operations teams to streamline and standardize activities.

A

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)

84
Q

Targeted phishing attack.

A

Spear Phishing

85
Q

Software that secretly monitors user activity.

86
Q

Concealing messages within other non-secret text or data.

A

Steganography

87
Q

Attack sending a series of SYN requests to consume resources.

88
Q

Standard for message logging.

89
Q

Proactively searching for cyber threats.

A

Threat Hunting

90
Q

Replacing sensitive data with unique identification symbols.

A

Tokenization

91
Q

Analyzing user behavior to detect anomalies.

A

UEBA (User and Entity Behavior Analytics)

92
Q

Phishing conducted through phone calls.

93
Q

Tool for identifying security weaknesses.

A

Vulnerability Scanner

94
Q

Searching for Wi-Fi networks by moving around.

A

War Driving

95
Q

Self-replicating malware.

96
Q

Simple symmetric encryption algorithm.

A

XOR Cipher

97
Q

Tool for identifying and classifying malware.

98
Q

Security concept assuming no implicit trust.

A

Zero Trust

99
Q

Exploiting a vulnerability that is not yet known to the vendor.

A

Zero-Day Exploit

100
Q

Dividing a storage area network (SAN) into logical segments.

101
Q

A security framework that ensures only authorized individuals can access resources.

A

AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting)

102
Q

Evaluates attributes to determine access.

A

ABAC (Attribute Based Access Control)

103
Q

A list of rules specifying which users or systems are granted or denied access to a particular object or system resource.

A

ACL (Access Control List)

104
Q

A specification for encrypting electronic data established by NIST in 2001, stronger than DES and triple DES.

A

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)

105
Q

A service provided by CISA for real-time exchange of cyber threat indicators and defensive measures between public and private organizations.

A

AIS (Automated Indicator Sharing)

106
Q

A type of cyber attack where an unauthorized user gains system or network access and remains undetected for an extended period.

A

APT (Advanced Persistent Threat)

107
Q

A protocol used to map an IP address to a physical MAC address.

A

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)

108
Q

A technique that prevents attackers from exploiting vulnerabilities by randomizing the location of key data areas in memory.

A

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization)

109
Q

A strategy ensuring an organization’s ability to prevent or recover from disruptions to operations.

A

BCP (Business Continuity Planning)

110
Q

A feature that defends the Layer 2 STP topology against BPDU-related threats.

A

BDPU Guard (Bridge Protocol Data Units)

111
Q

Identifies operational and financial impacts resulting from business disruptions.

A

BIA (Business Impact Analysis)

112
Q

Firmware found on the motherboard that manages basic system functions like booting and hardware configuration.

A

BIOS (Basic Input/Output System)

113
Q

A storage method used by cloud providers for large amounts of text or binary data.

A

BLOB (Binary Large Object Storage)

114
Q

An agreement between two companies outlining contributions, responsibilities, and profit distribution.

A

BPA (Business Partnership Agreement)

115
Q

A policy allowing employees to use personal devices to access company resources.

A

BYOD (Bring Your Own Device)

116
Q

A trusted entity that issues digital certificates to verify identities.

A

CA (Certificate Authority)

117
Q

A smart card used as the standard identification for active-duty U.S. Defense personnel.

A

CAC (Common Access Card)

118
Q

Software or hardware that enforces security policies between users and their cloud services.

A

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)

119
Q

A challenge-response test distinguishing humans from automated users.

A

CAPTCHA (Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart)

120
Q

A block cipher mode that encrypts data in blocks, using an initialization vector for security.

A

CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)

121
Q

Security files issued by a certificate authority to verify website authenticity.

A

CER (Certificate)

122
Q

The point where false acceptance rate and false rejection rate are equal.

A

CER (Crossover Error Rate)

123
Q

A challenge-response authentication protocol that uses a shared secret without exposing a password.

A

CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol)

124
Q

The three core principles of information security: confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

A

CIA (Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability)

125
Q

A team responsible for responding to and mitigating cybersecurity incidents.

A

CIRT (Computer Incident Response Team)

126
Q

A policy allowing employees to use company-owned devices for personal use.

A

COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally-Enabled)

127
Q

A mathematical algorithm used to detect errors in data transmission.

A

CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)

128
Q

A list of revoked certificates, used to check if a certificate is still valid.

A

CRL (Certificate Revocation List)

129
Q

A non-profit organization providing resources to enhance cloud security.

A

CSA (Cloud Security Alliance)

130
Q

A web security vulnerability that allows attackers to induce users into unintended actions.

A

CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery)

131
Q

A senior executive responsible for overseeing an organization’s security program.

A

CSO (Chief Security Officer)

132
Q

A third-party company providing scalable computing resources over a network.

A

CSP (Cloud Service Provider)

133
Q

A request to a certificate authority for a digital certificate.

A

CSR (Certificate Signing Request)

134
Q

An attack that forces a user to execute unintended actions on an authenticated web application.

A

CSV (Comma Separated Values)

135
Q

A file format storing tabular data, with values separated by commas.

A

CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposure)

136
Q

A list of known vulnerabilities maintained by MITRE.

A

CVSS (Common Vulnerabilities Scoring System)

137
Q

A ranking system that scores vulnerabilities based on severity.

A

CYOD (Choose Your Own Device)

138
Q

A policy where employees choose from a set of company-approved devices.

A

DAC (Discretionary Access Control)

139
Q

A method restricting access based on subject identity.

A

DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service)

140
Q

A cyber attack where multiple systems flood a target server or network, causing it to become unavailable.

A

DES (Data Encryption Standard)

141
Q

A symmetric-key block cipher once widely used but now considered insecure.

A

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

142
Q

A protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and network settings.

A

DMZ (Demilitarized Zone)

143
Q

A network segment isolating internal networks while providing public-facing services.

A

DNS (Domain Name System)

144
Q

A system that translates domain names into IP addresses.

A

DoS (Denial of Service)

145
Q

A cyber attack overwhelming a server or network with traffic, making it unavailable.

A

DPO (Data Protection Officer)

146
Q

A role ensuring an organization correctly protects personal data according to regulations.

A

DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan)

147
Q

A plan preparing for recovery from disasters.

A

EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

148
Q

A framework that supports multiple authentication methods for network access.

A

EFS (Encrypting File System)

149
Q

A Windows feature that encrypts files and folders using a public key.

A

EMI (Electromagnetic Interference)

150
Q

Interference from electromagnetic waves that disrupt electronic devices.

A

EMP (Electromagnetic Pulse)

151
Q

A burst of electromagnetic radiation that can damage electronic devices.

A

ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)

152
Q

A security protocol in IPSec ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and availability of network traffic.

A

FAR (False Acceptance Rate)

153
Q

A metric measuring the likelihood of granting access to unauthorized users.

A

FDE (Full Disk Encryption)

154
Q

A technique encrypting an entire disk or storage device, including the OS and user data.

A

FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act)

155
Q

A U.S. law requiring federal agencies to implement security programs.

A

FRR (False Rejection Rate)

156
Q

A metric measuring the likelihood of denying access to authorized users.

A

FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

157
Q

A protocol for transferring files between computers over a network.

A

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

158
Q

A European regulation governing data protection and privacy.

A

GPS (Global Positioning System)

159
Q

A satellite-based system for determining device location.

A

GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation)

160
Q

A protocol used to encapsulate one type of packet within another.

A

GBAC (Group Based Access Control)

161
Q

A method granting access to resources based on group membership.

A

HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code)

162
Q

A cryptographic authentication technique using a hash function and secret key.

A

HIDS (Host Intrusion Detection System)

163
Q

A system monitoring a host for suspicious activities.

A

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act)

164
Q

A U.S. law protecting patients’ personal health information.

A

HOTP (HMAC-based One-Time Password)

165
Q

An algorithm generating one-time passwords for authentication.

A

HSM (Hardware Security Module)

166
Q

A hardware device securely storing encryption keys and digital certificates.

A

HSTS (HTTP Strict Transport Security)

167
Q

A web security policy preventing protocol downgrade attacks and cookie hijacking.

A

HTML (Hypertext Markup Language)

168
Q

The standard markup language for creating web pages.

A

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

169
Q

A protocol for transferring hypertext over the internet.

A

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

170
Q

A secure version of HTTP that encrypts data in transit.

A

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)

171
Q

A cloud computing model where third-party providers offer infrastructure resources.

A

IAM (Identity and Access Management)

172
Q

A cybersecurity practice that restricts access to organizational resources.

A

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

173
Q

A network protocol used to diagnose communication issues.

A

IDS (Intrusion Detection System)

174
Q

A monitoring system detecting suspicious activities and generating alerts.

A

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)

175
Q

A network security system actively preventing identified threats.

A

IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers)