CompTIA ITF+ Flashcards

To learn the material pertaining to the CompTIA IT Fundamentals Exam

1
Q

What are the four stages of the computing process?

A

Input, processing, storage and output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a LAN?

A

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a group of computers or other network devices in the same location that can communicate with one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the device that connect devices on a LAN?

A

A switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a WAN?

A

A WAN is a Wide Area Network connecting two or more LANs over a larger geographical area using a device called a router.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do LANs connect to WANs?

A

Via a router which connects to the LAN’s switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are RACS?

A

Remotely accessed computer systems (RACS) are servers which give one access to online apps (e.g. Office Online). They enhance local capabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are specialized computer systems?

A

Specialized computer systems are computer systems that perform specific tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are I/O devices?

A

Input/output devices are devices capable of sending data (output) to a computer and receiving data from a computer (input).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is a CPU’s speed measured?

A

A CPU’s measured based on how many things it can do in one second under perfect conditions. It is measured in Hertz, typically gigahertz, that is billions of cycles per second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In terms of complexity, what are the two types of modern CPUs available?

A

64-bit vs 32-bit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do 64-bit and 32-bit processors compare?

A

Sixty-four bits CPUs are vastly more powerful and complex than thirty-two bits. 32-bit CPU/OS can only handle up to 4 GB of RAM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is passive cooling?

A

Passive cooling utilizes natural conduction, convection, and radiation to cool a component. The most common type uses a heat sink which is a block of heat-conductive metal such as aluminum affixed to a chip with some heat-conductive thermal paste. The heat sink has spikes or baffles that increase its surface area. Heat wicks away from the chip into the heat sink and dissipates into the air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is active cooling?

A

Active cooling requires the use of energy specifically dedicated to cooling the component. In most PCs, a fan is strapped to the CPU’s heat sink in an attempt to circulate air through the heat sink and away from the CPU to keep it cool.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do heat sinks do?

A

They help heat dissipate into air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does liquid cooling work?

A

Liquid cooling pulls heat into fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is RAM?

A

Random access memory holds all active processing on a computer including the OS and running applications and data. RAM only temporarily stores data. When you turn off the computer, all the data stored in RAM disappears.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the amount of usable RAM on a computer called?

A

System memory, the total capacity of which puts a hard limit on how much stuff a computing device can work on at one time. Total capacity is measured in GB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are common RAM capacities?

A

The most common RAM size you can find in everyday laptop PCs nowadays is 8GB. Some lower-end models come with 4GB and in some cases only 2GB. Higher-end mainstream laptop models oftentimes feature 12GB and 16GB. You can find high-performance gaming laptops and mobile workstations with 24 or even 32 Gigabytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a motherboard?

A

A device that provides connectivity for the various components of a computer. Everything plugs directly into the motherboard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What style of electricity does the US electric grid run on?

A

Alternating Current (AC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What style of electricity do computing devices run on?

A

Direct Current (DC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a PSU?

A

A power supply unit (PSU) is a component found in desktop computers that handles the conversion from AC to DC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What kind of connector is used by very old mice and keyboards?

A

PS/2 connectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the most common connectors for I/O devices these days?

A

Universal Serial Bus (USB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the different types of video connectors?

A

HDMI ports, DisplayPorts (mainly with Apple), VGA ports, DVI ports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an eSATA port typically used for?

A

For connecting external hard drives (not currently used much)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the name of the ethernet cable used to connect networks?

A

RJ-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the color coding typically used for audio connectors?

A

Pink for microphone, green for speakers, and black for other devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

USB Type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

USB Type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

USB Type C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

USB 3.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

USB Mini A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

USB Mini B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

USB Micro A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

USB Micro B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

USB Micro B Super Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

Firewire 400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the name of this connector?

A

Firewire 800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the difference between VGA, DVI and HDMI?

A

The difference is in both the quality of the signal that they carry and the type of signals. VGA was standard for a long. DVI was an improvement. However, both only carry video signals. HDMI (high-definition multimedia interface), on the other hand, carries high-definition audio and video.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How fast does a black USB port, USB 2.0 run?

A

480 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How fast does a blue USB port, USB 3.0 run?

A

5 Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How fast does a USB 3.1, USB Type C, port run?

A

10 Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a hard drive?

A

A hard drive is a device for long term storage. When you power off the PC, the data on the hard drive stays put. It’s available when you turn the PC back on. It’ll be there until you delete it, or if you’re unlucky, until the drive dies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the two important measurements for hard drives?

A

Capacity and speed. Capacity is generally more important.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many bits are there in one byte?

A

8 bits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many bytes in a kilobyte? Kilobytes in a megabyte? Megabytes in a gigabyte? Gigabytes in a terabyte?

A

1024 (2 to the power of 10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the four features common to all operating systems?

A

1) It provides a user interface.
2) It provides coordination among hardware components.
3) It monitors health and functionality.
4) It provides a way to store and retrieve data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is HWMonitor?

A

HWMonitor is a hardware monitoring program that reads PC systems main health sensors : voltages, temperatures, powers, currents, fans speed, utilizations, clock speeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the equivalent of the taskbar for macOS?

A

The Dock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the equivalent of File Explorer for macOS?

A

Finder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the ideal temperature and humidity for a work area where PCs are in use?

A

72 degrees Fahrenheit or about 22 degrees Celsius with 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where should a monitor be placed?

A

At eye level, about 16 to 24 inches away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the basic steps of setting up a Desktop PC?

A

1) Start with hardware connectivity – connect power, monitor, keyboard and mouse
2) connect to the network
3) localization and user account setup connect to the network
4) update OS and security
5) uninstall programs and features to personalize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does a surge protector do?

A

Protects the computer against a power surge like when lightening hits and there’s extra juice in the wires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a UPS?

A

Uninterruptible power supply provides surge protection but also protects the computer from brownouts and blackouts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the basics of setting up a mobile device like a tablet?

A

1) accept the EULA
2) connect to the internet
3) update the device’s firmware and OS
4) customize the device by adding email and apps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What kind of file needs to run to install an application?

A

An executable file

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How can applications be updated?

A

Via properties or an update feature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How can application be uninstalled on Windows?

A

Via Control Panel or through uninstall routines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the basic image file extensions?

A

.tif, .png, .jpg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the basic compressed file/folder extensions?

A

.zip, .rar, .tar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How is Wi-Fi setup?

A

1) Connect a to Small Office/Home Office router (SOHO router) with an ethernet cable
2) Use a browser to access the router homepage
3) Change admin password and network name
4) Add security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the three internet access options for computing devices?

A

1) wired
2) plug the device into a wall jack
3) wireless (WiFi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the criteria for determining the best connection?

A

Mobility, availability, reliability, throughput, connection delay (latency), number of concurrent connections, and level of security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is throughput?

A

The data transfer rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How do wired and wireless connections compare?

A

Wired always wins for availability, reliability, throughput latency, number of connections and level of security. Thus, wired always beats wireless and cellular, except for in the first category mobility. There cellular is king.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How is a printer set up?

A

1) Install printer drivers and assure good connectivity.
2) Devices and Printers | Printer Properties | Print a test page
3) Printer properties | Sharing | Share this printer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are some basic physical security measures which can be taken to protect data?

A

Lock computers and use screen filters to avoid unwanted eyes. Shred all documents that contain any sensitive information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is spyware?

A

Spyware gathers information about system usage, as the name would suggest. Spyware generally installs as part of some otherwise benign program or media. Some spyware collects information about websites you visit or things you purchase. The more vicious kind like cloggers literally report the keystrokes you make.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is ransomeware?

A

Ransomware installs on a computer and at a predetermined time locks up the data. Some will encrypt the entire contents of a hard drive. The ransomware will have some kind of payment mechanism demanding money in exchange for access to your data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How can a system be protected from malware/ransomeware?

A

Protecting against malware starts with keeping the operating system up to date. Both Windows and Mac OS do this automatically as long as the machine is connected to the Internet. The exam might ask about antivirus programs, treat these older applications like modern anti malware software, keep both the applications and definition files updated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the steps for dealing with malware?

A

Recognize, quarantine, search and destroy, remediate, educate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What makes a good password?

A

Long mix of cases, numbers and symbols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How can one remain protected when using public internet?

A

Use secure protocols (HTTPS rather than HTTP, IMAP instead of POP3 for email); Assume every public internet station is compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What strategies can be used to reduce energy usage on Windows?

A

Adjust the energy usage with the power option applet in the Control Panel, adjust the screen brightness, set aggressive sleep options for moving parts like hard drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What should be used to clean the exterior of a computer?

A

A microfiber towel and mild electronic cleaner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What should be used to clean the interior of a computer?

A

Compressed air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Where should the interior of a computer be cleaned with compressed air?

A

Outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What should not be used on a monitor?

A

Glass cleaner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where should lithium ion batteries be disposed of?

A

Specifically designated recycling centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What should be checked first for a “dead” computer?

A

Power and connectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What should be done first for a “stuck” system?

A

Reboot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What should be the first step for specific application problems?

A

Web search

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the benefits of databases?

A

Beyond flat-file storage and spreadsheets, databases enable multiple simultaneous user access and queries on multiple fields and records.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is a relational database?

A

A relational database interlinks multiple tables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the overall layout and structure of a database called?

A

The schema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is used for unique identification of records?

A

A primary key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are primary keys called when used in another table?

A

Foreign keys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What kind of file is often used to import data into a table?

A

A CSV file

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What language do computers “understand”?

A

‘Machine language’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What programming language is closest to machine language?

A

‘Assembly language’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What do programmers often start with?

A

‘A flow chart of expected steps and outcomes (pseudocode)’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is data?

A

‘Raw facts that are systems and processes generate and collect on a regular basis’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is information?

A

‘Data that has been processed and analyzed’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the three different ways that businesses can legally protect their intellectual property against theft and misuse?

A

‘Copyrights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is copyright used to protect?

A

‘Creative works against theft’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How is copyright granted?

A

‘Copyright protection is automatically granted to the creator of a work once they create it’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are trademarks used to protect?

A

‘Trademarks are used to protect the words and symbols used to identify products and services. The information protected by trademark includes brand names

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How are trademarks granted?

A

‘The owners of trademarks must register their marks with the government to achieve full protection in the US.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are patents for?

A

‘Patents protect inventions providing the inventor with the exclusive use of their invention for some period of time.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the criteria for granting a patent?

A

‘An inventor must demonstrate that their idea meets three criteria. First

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the basic units of storage in any computer system?

A

‘A bit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How is data stored on magnetic and solid-state drives?

A

‘When we store data on a magnetic hard drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is a petabyte?

A

‘1000 terabytes’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How is network capacity measured?

A

‘Throughput which is the speed by which a network can transfer data in bits per second’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What do wired networks use?

A

‘Copper wires to transmit pulses of electricity’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What do wireless networks use?

A

‘Radio waves to transmit radio signal pulses’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What do fiber optic networks use?

A

‘Strands of glass to transmit pulses of light’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the terms used to discuss network speed, aside from throughput?

A

‘Capacity and bandwidth’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the unit of measurement for the speed of a CPU?

A

‘Multiples of Hertz’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is a hertz in relation to a CPU?

A

‘CPUs have internal clocks that time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the typical Hertz multiple used for modern computer processors?

A

‘Gigahertz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is hexadecimal notation?

A

‘Each digit can store 16 possible values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is ASCII?

A

‘The American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) is the most common character encoding format for text data. In standard ASCII-encoded data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is Unicode?

A

‘an international encoding standard for use with different languages and scripts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the most basic data type?

A

‘A Boolean object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are the two basic form of numeric values stored in memory?

A

‘1) Integers are values that do not have decimal or fractional parts. 2) Floating point numbers or floats are numbers that do have decimal places associated with them. The precision of a floating-point number indicates how many decimal places may be used with that number.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the data type of a single character of text and how much memory does it consume?

A

‘Char

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are character strings?

A

‘Character strings consist of one or more characters strung together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the eight steps for troubleshooting technology?

A

‘1) Identify the problem 2) Conduct some research’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are servers?

A

‘Servers are powerful computers that carry out a dedicated function. Companies might use servers to share files internally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is IoT?

A

‘We use the term Internet of Things or the acronym IoT to describe the way that we connect many everyday devices to the internet.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are ICS systems?

A

‘Industrial control systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are the two brands of processors used in Windows and Macs respectively?

A

‘Windows: Intel and AMD Mac: Intel and Apple’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What processor did Apple release in 2020?

A

‘The M1 processor’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Aside from the clock speed, what are two other measurements for CPUs?

A

‘CPUs are also measured in terms of their number of processing cores. Basically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Why can we expect that 64-bit processors will be around for quite some time?

A

‘A 64-bit processor can manage 17 billion gigabytes of memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Who is leading provider of microprocessors?

A

‘ARM’

130
Q

What is UEFI? What is its role? What use to perform its function?

A

‘When a computer starts up

131
Q

What are the two types of disk drives?

A

‘Magnetic or solid-state’

132
Q

What is a NIC and where are there typically?

A

‘A network Interface Card is typically directly on the motherboard; they provide the ability to connect to both wired and wireless networks.’

133
Q

What is a GPU?

A

‘A graphic processing unit are powerful processors designed to perform the intensive calculation that are required to render complex graphics on the display.’

134
Q

What technology is used by most peripherals to make it easier for users to install them?

A

‘Plug and play’

135
Q

What is this connector? What should you know about it?

A

‘VGA; used by older displays and can only support a low resolution (640 x 480)’

136
Q

What is this connector? What should you know about it?

A

‘HDMI; able to carry both audio and video on the same wire and support high resolution video up to 5K an beyond’

137
Q

What is this connector? What should you know about it?

A

‘Mini Displayport; offers high-resolution up to 5K and beyond’

138
Q

What is this connector? What should you know about it?

A

‘Displayport; offers high-resolution up to 5K and beyond’

139
Q

What is Thunderbolt?

A

‘Thunderbolt is a hardware interface standard designed by Intel that allows both data and power to be sent over the same wire. The first two versions of Thunderbolt used mini- DisplayPort connectors

140
Q

What are the two categories of storage?

A

‘Volatile storage (temporary i.e.

141
Q

How do magnetic and solid-state drives compare?

A

‘Magnetic drives provide inexpensive storage that’s relatively slow. These magnetic hard drives contain platters of magnetic material that spin around very quickly inside the computer

142
Q

How is an RJ-11 different from an RJ-45?

A

‘The RJ-11 is smaller and only has six pins.’

143
Q

What is a PAN?

A

‘Personal Area Network

144
Q

What is NFC?

A

‘Near field communication or NFC technology allows extremely short-range wireless connections for two devices to communicate using NFC. They need to be no more than a couple of inches apart.’

145
Q

What is DSL?

A

‘The digital subscriber line

146
Q

How do cable internet connections work?

A

‘Cable internet connections use a modem to convert the digital signals of a computer network to the analog signals that travel on copper wires.’

147
Q

How do fiber optic cables work?

A

‘These cables are strands of glass that run between locations on a fiber optic network. The fiber optic modems job is also to convert signals between our LAN and the internet connection. The modem contains a laser that it uses to convert the digital signal to pulses of light that can travel over the glass at extremely high speeds.’

148
Q

What speeds are modern 5G networks capable of?

A

‘20 gigbits per second’

149
Q

What speeds are modern 5G networks capable of?

A

‘14 megabits’

150
Q

How might remote locations access the internet?

A

‘They may use fixed wireless services. These services are point to point services that use radio frequency or RF communications. They could also use satellite internet connections.’

151
Q

What is TCP/IP?

A

‘The Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is the protocol that runs the internet and basically every LAN on the planet.’

152
Q

What should you know about IP?

A

‘IP is responsible for routing information over the network. IP is used both on the internet and on your local area. Network IP assigns each computer on the network its own address called an IP address. IP addresses uniquely identify computers on a network

153
Q

What is TCP responsible for?

A

‘TCP is responsible for setting up connections between systems and tracking the packets that are sent. If a packet is lost or damaged along the way

154
Q

What is the addressing scheme used on the internet?

A

‘Internet Protocol Addresses or IP Addresses’

155
Q

In what form are IP addresses written in?

A

‘Dotted quad notation

156
Q

What is the range of values for each number in an IP addresses and why?

A

‘Those numbers may range between zero and two hundred and five-fifty because each number is represented by one byte

157
Q

How many IP addresses are involved in every network communication?

A

‘There are two IP addresses involved in every network communication. The source address belongs to the system that’s sending information

158
Q

What are the two ways that IP addresses can be assigned?

A

‘First

159
Q

What is a MAC Address?

A

‘A MAC address or Media Access Control address (aka physical/hardware address) are how computers communicate with their immediate neighbors on a network systems that are directly connected to each other. MAC addresses are used to transfer data. They are assigned to a computer’s network interface by the manufacturer of that interface

160
Q

What notation is used for MAC addresses?

A

‘Hexadecimal notation’

161
Q

What do MAC addresses consist of?

A

‘12 hexadecimal digits. The first six digits identified the manufacturer of the device

162
Q

What are the rules of thumb for identifying a valid IP address?

A

’- First

163
Q

NOM?

A

IP addresses

164
Q

*Addresses with first numbers between 224 and 239 are called multicast addresses. They’re used for sending messages to many systems at the same time

A

and they should never be assigned to an individual system.<br></br>

165
Q

What is DNS?

A

‘Domain name system or DNS allows us to use easily recognizable names in the place of IP addresses

166
Q

How does DNS work?

A

’- Every time you connect to a network

167
Q

NOM?

A

whenever you type in the domain name of a web site into your browser

168
Q

NOM?

A

it responds to the request with the IP address and then your web browser can go ahead and connect to the web site using that website’s IP address.<br></br>

169
Q
  • If you’re a local DNS server doesn’t know the answer to your question
A

it contacts other DNS servers to determine the correct answer and then it responds to you.’

170
Q

What addresses do switches use to ensure date is sent to the right computer on a network?

A

‘MAC addresses’

171
Q

What do all switches in a LAN connect to and what manages the traffic headed to them?

A

‘A router’

172
Q

What is a firewall?

A

‘Firewalls provide security for the network. They sit in between two or more networks and monitor all of the connection attempts that try to cross between those networks. Firewalls contain a set of rules describing the types of connections that are allowed to cross from one network to the other

173
Q

What is the most common example of a firewall?

A

‘The most common example of a firewall is a border firewall. These border firewalls sit between an organization’s internal network and the internet. Any internet connections that aren’t covered by a firewall rule are automatically blocked.’

174
Q

What is the most common wireless standard used today?

A

‘Wi-Fi technology’

175
Q

What is Wi-Fi?

A

‘Wi-Fi is a set of standards governed by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

176
Q

What does Wi-Fi replace wires and cables with?

A

‘Wi-Fi works by replacing the wires and cables of wired networks with radio transmitters and receivers. Every device that supports Wi-Fi contains a radio transceiver that’s capable of communicating on one or more standard Wi-Fi bands.’

177
Q

What are WAPs?

A

‘Wireless access points or WAPs are used to connect wireless devices within home or business networks.’

178
Q

What are the major factors which differentiate the different wireless standards?

A

‘Maximum speed and radio frequency’

179
Q

What are the different Wi-Fi standards? Describe their frequency and speed

A

’’

180
Q

How do Wi-Fi standards with 2.4 gigahertz and 5.0 gigahertz compare? How does that effect decision making when creating a wireless network?

A

‘Wireless networks using the 2.4 gigahertz frequency range are able to reach a longer range than other networks

181
Q

Why are their security concerns when using Wi-Fi?

A

‘They are radio transmissions. And as such

182
Q

What are some factors that can alter the flow or propagation of the radio waves that carry wireless network traffic?

A

‘Building materials

183
Q

What is attenuation?

A

‘When office conditions weaken radio signals

184
Q

What is a basic antenna?

A

‘Known as a omnidirectional antennas

185
Q

What is a directional antenna?

A

‘In some cases

186
Q

What is beam forming?

A

‘802.11 AC networks include a new technology known as a beam forming. With beam forming

187
Q

How are antennas and access points placed in a facility?

A

‘Conduct a site survey using specialized hardware and software to measure signal strength and provide optimal wireless signal coverage. These surveys often produce a heat map that graphically illustrates areas of strong coverage and those that require improvement. They may also identify areas where electromagnetic interference is causing disruptions to your wireless network. You can often improve your wireless coverage by adjusting the channels that you use in your building to avoid overlap with the channels used by other nearby businesses. Network engineers have the ability to manipulate the power levels transmitted by each access point to tweak coverage and prevent interference.’

188
Q

What is SSID?

A

‘The name of a wireless network used by users to identify it.’

189
Q

What is the pre-shared key approach to wireless authentication?

A

‘Pre-shared keys are the simplest kind of wireless authentication and are commonly used on home Wi-Fi networks. In the pre shared key approach

190
Q

What is the enterprise authentication approach to wireless authentication?

A

‘Using enterprise authentication

191
Q

What is the captive portal approach to wireless authentication?

A

‘Captive portals provide authentication on unencrypted wireless networks. When a user connects to a network using a captive portal

192
Q

What is WEP?

A

‘Wired equivalent privacy or WEP is the oldest and most common Wi-Fi security protocol. It’s now known to suffer from some very serious security vulnerabilities. These issues are so significant that security professionals no longer consider web secure

193
Q

What is WPA 1?

A

‘Wi-Fi Protected Access or WPA is a Wi-Fi security protocol that replaced WEP in 2003. The first version

194
Q

What is WPA 2?

A

‘Wi-Fi Protected Access 2

195
Q

What WPA 3?

A

‘Wi-Fi Protected Access 3

196
Q

What is the security status of the different Wi-Fi security protocols?

A

’’

197
Q

What is the protocol used for websites?

A

‘Hypertext Transfer Protocol or HTTP.’

198
Q

How does HTTP work?

A

‘When you load up your web browser and type in a URL

199
Q

What is HTTPS?

A

‘The Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure

200
Q

What is SMTP?

A

‘The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol or SMTP is used to send a message from one server to another for if

201
Q

What is POP3?

A

‘The Post Office Protocol 3 is an Internet protocol used by email clients to receive emails. It takes new messages that are waiting for you on the server and downloads them to your computer. Once they’re downloaded

202
Q

What is IMAP?

A

‘The Internet Message Access Protocol or IMAP is an Internet protocol used by email clients to receive messages. All the emails remain on the server and your email client just accesses them each time you connect. This allows you to access your email wherever you are from any device.’

203
Q

What are the secure and insecure email protocols?

A

’’

204
Q

What are the principal roles played by an operating system?

A

’- Interface between user and the computer

205
Q

NOM?

A

bringing order to hard drives<br></br>

206
Q

What is a thin client?

A

‘Simple computer that has been optimized for establishing a remote connection with a server-based computing environment. Ex. Chrome books

207
Q

What are operating systems like on servers?

A

‘Servers run operating systems that are similar in function to those that support desktop and laptop computers

208
Q

What are the two major server operating systems?

A

‘Windows and the many distributions of Linux’

209
Q

What are the operating systems that run on IOT devices called?

A

‘Embedded operating systems’

210
Q

What is a file system?

A

‘The file system is the technology that describes how the data is stored’

211
Q

What is the most important task performed by the file system?

A

‘The most important task performed by the file system is remembering where the bits comprising a file are stored on the disk and organizing those files into folders or directories that help us remember where our files are stored.’

212
Q

What does it mean that directories in a file system are hierarchical?

A

‘That just means that we can put folders inside of other folders to help us organize our files.’

213
Q

What characters cannot be used for a file name in a file system?

A

’/

214
Q

In the context of a file system, what are permissions?

A

‘We can set permissions on files to allow different users and groups of users the ability to read

215
Q

How does compression work?

A

‘Compression works by replacing duplicate chunks of data in a document with smaller values.’

216
Q

What is encryption?

A

‘Encryption is a technology that makes it impossible for someone to read a file unless they have the necessary decryption key.’

217
Q

In the context of a file system, what is journaling?

A

‘In journaling file systems

218
Q

What is the most popular file system?

A

‘The NTFS file system used by Microsoft is the most popular file system for the Windows operating system. NTFS provides compression

219
Q

Can NTFS be used with Mac and Linux systems?

A

‘It’s possible to access NTFS file systems for Mac and Linux systems

220
Q

What was the older file system used by Windows?

A

‘The FAT32 file system is an older file system that used to be the standard for Windows systems (no encryption

221
Q

What file system is generally used on Linux systems?

A

‘Linux systems generally use a file system called ext4. This is a powerful file system that does support encryption

222
Q

What are the three different file systems from Apple?

A

’- the Mac OS extended file system

223
Q

NOM?

A

compression and journaling. It also supports file sizes up to 60 and exabytes.<br></br>

224
Q

NOM?

A

APFS was released in 2017

225
Q

What are the core features of a file system?

A

‘Encryption

226
Q

Describe the main file systems including their operating systems, encryption abilities, compression abilities, journaling abilities and maximum file size.

A

’’

227
Q

How are executable files stored on Android devices?

A

‘With the dot APK extension’

228
Q

In Linux, how are executable files identified?

A

‘Executables in Linux don’t require any specific extensions for those files to execute. Instead

229
Q

What processes are running regularly on one’s computer?

A

‘Every application that’s running on a computer system runs as a process

230
Q

What are drivers?

A

‘Drivers are software components that tell the operating system how to interact with a particular piece of hardware. Your operating system comes pre-installed with hundreds or thousands of commonly used drivers. These drivers allow you to set up many pieces of hardware with plug and play technology

231
Q

What are the two basic interfaces for operating systems?

A

‘Graphical User Interfaces or Console/Command Line. With MACs

232
Q

Describe the basic of a virtualization platform.

A

‘Virtualization platforms involve the use of a host machine that actually has physical hardware. That hardware then hosts several or many virtual guest machines that run operating systems of their own. The host machine runs special software known as a hypervisor to manage those guest virtual machines. The hypervisor basically tricks each guest into thinking that it’s running on its own hardware

233
Q

What are the two types of hypervisors used for virtualization?

A

‘Type 1: Hypervisors run directly on physical hardware; Type 2: Hypervisor run on top of an operating system. Type 1 is typically used by businesses. Type 2 is commonly used on personal computers. Hypervisor is commonly used in this scenario include Virtualbox and Parallels.’

234
Q

What are the three categories of software?

A

‘Productivity- Productivity software is the common software that we all use to get our work done on a daily basis.<br></br>

235
Q

Collaboration software- collaboration software is the software that allows us to interact with our teammates

A

customers and business partners on a regular basis. Business software- The third software category business software is the software that we used to run and manage our businesses.’

236
Q

How do web browsers connect us to the internet?

A

‘Web browsers understand the hypertext transfer protocol HTTP

237
Q

What are some ways that web browsers can be configured to improve their performance?

A

‘Manually clear the cache. Deactive client-side scripting. Disable browser add-ons or extensions. If the user is on a network that requires the use of a proxy server

238
Q

What are the different application delivery methods?

A

‘Locally installed- installed on a local computer

239
Q

Hosted on a local network- installed on a local server

A

network access is required but internet access is not.<br></br>

240
Q

Hosted in the cloud- installed on cloud server

A

network access and internet access are required.’

241
Q

Describe the basic application architecture models.

A

‘Locally installed applications are 1-tiers applications. Client/server applications are 2-tier applications. Databased-driven applications are 3 tier. These models describe how many different servers are involved in presenting an application to end users. • The general term n-tier architecture describes this approach and can be any value that we require because we can have as many layers of servers as we need to get the job done.’

242
Q

What should one always do when installing software on a system?

A

‘Instructions - First

243
Q

Advanced options- Second

A

watch out for advanced options and configuration settings. Take the time to understand how the software will be used and work with the end users to configure these settings to best meet the user’s needs.<br></br>

244
Q

What is proprietary software?

A

‘Software purchased from a vendor. The vendor owns the software and charges for its use.’

245
Q

What are the different possible license agreements?

A

‘A single user license is just that it allows you to install the software on a computer for a single user to work with. A group use or site license covers many people. The license counts the number of people who may have the software installed.<br></br>

246
Q

Concurrent licenses also allow multiple people to use the software. However

A

a concurrent license counts the number of people who may be using the software at the same time.<br></br>

247
Q

Software may be licensed as a one-time purchase where you pay a single upfront fee for use of the software and on a small periodic maintenance fee to receive support and updates or software. License under a subscription model where instead of paying a large upfront fee

A

you pay a monthly or annual fee for each user.<br></br>

248
Q

Other software is developed by a community of programmers

A

and it’s released as open-source software that’s free for use under the conditions of an open-source license agreement.’

249
Q

What is interpreted code?

A

‘When you use interpreted code

250
Q

What are the two subcategories of interpreted code?

A

‘The two subcategories of interpreted languages are scripting languages and markup languages. Scripting languages are often used by administrators to automate actions on a computer and for a variety of general programming tasks. Some examples of scripting languages include Perl

251
Q

What is compiled code?

A

‘When executing compiled code

252
Q

What is the main difference between interpreted and compiled languages?

A

‘In an interpreted language

253
Q

What is an assembly language?

A

‘A language that allows programmers to write code that works directly with the hardware bypassing the use of a compiled or interpreted language.’

254
Q

What is a query language?

A

‘A query language is a language used to ask questions of databases. The most common is the structured query language SQL.’

255
Q

What is a database?

A

‘You can think of a database as a central repository for data that allows you to store your information and organize tables so that many people can access it at the same time.’

256
Q

What are the advantages of a database?

A

‘1) Databases allow multiple concurrent users to store and retrieve data. 2) Very scalable 3) Speed advantage over files for retrieving information (using SQL) 4) They can store a variety of date elements’

257
Q

What are queries?

A

‘Queries are simply questions that users ask of the database. They’re written in a special programming language called the structured query language (SQL).’

258
Q

What is structured data vs. unstructured data?

A

‘Data stored in well-defined tables so it can be used for analytics. Data that does not fit neatly into tables. While most data used in databases is structured the most data in the world is unstructured. The reality

259
Q

In relational databases, how is a column in a table referred to and what kind of information does it contain?

A

‘Each column in a table is called a field

260
Q

In relational databases, how is a row in a table referred to and what kind of information does it contain?

A

‘Each row in the table is called a record

261
Q

What is the role of a key in a relational database?

A

‘A key is our special purpose database field that plays an important role in the relational model. They help to organize the information in tables and to define the relationships between those tables.’

262
Q

What is the role of the primary key in database?

A

‘The purpose of the primary key is to allow the database to uniquely identify the records in the table. When we define a primary key field for a database table

263
Q

What is the role of the foreign key in relational database?

A

‘A foreign key defines the relationships between tables. The primary key in a table when in another table is called a foreign key.’

264
Q

What is DDL?

A

‘The Data Definition Language (DDL) modifies the structure of a database. Used mainly by developers and database administrators because it’s used to define the structure of the database itself. It sets the ground rules for the database to function.’

265
Q

What are the three types of commands you should know for DDL?

A

‘CREATE creates a new table. ALTER modifies a table. DROP deletes a table.’

266
Q

What is DML?

A

‘The Data Manipulation Language (DML) modifies the contents of a database. DML commands don’t change the database structure

267
Q

What are four command that you should know for DML?

A

‘SELECT retrieves data. INSERT adds data. UPDATE changes data. DELETE removes data.’

268
Q

Describe key-value pairs as a semi-structured approach to data storage.

A

‘They provide a very lightweight way to store data that throws away many of the rules of relational databases. Key value pairs don’t have to be organized into tables. The only requirement is that we have a key that can be used to index our data and then one or more values that we want to store in the database associated with that key. Each record can have different values and even different numbers of values. Key value stores are databases that are designed specifically to provide efficient storage and very fast retrieval of these key value pairs.’

269
Q

What are the three main concerns of cybersecurity?

A

‘Confidentiality of information

270
Q

In the realm of cybersecurity, what does confidentiality mean?

A

‘Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals have access to information and resources’

271
Q

What are the five main concerns for confidentiality?

A

‘Snooping

272
Q

What is social engineering?

A

‘The attacker uses psychological tricks to persuade an employee to give them sensitive information or access to internal systems.’

273
Q

In the realm of cybersecurity, what does integrity mean?

A

‘Integrity means that we don’t allow any unauthorized changes to information’

274
Q

What are the four different types of integrity attacks?

A

‘Unauthorized modification

275
Q

Describe an unauthorized modification attack and the best way to address it.

A

‘The unauthorized modification of information occurs when an attacker gains access to a system and makes changes that violate a security policy. Organizations should consider the permissions that each employee needs to perform their jobs and then limit employees to the smallest set of permissions possible (principle of least privilege)’

276
Q

Describe an impersonation attack and the best way to address it.

A

‘The attacker pretends to be someone other than who they actually are. The best defense against these attacks is strong user education.’

277
Q

Describe a man-in-the-middle attack and the best way to address it.

A

‘A man in the middle or MITM attack

278
Q

Describe replay attack and the best way to address it.

A

‘In a replay attack

279
Q

In the realm of cybersecurity, what are availability controls?

A

‘Availability controls ensure that information and systems remain available to authorized users when they need them. These controls protect against disruptions to normal system operation or data availability.’

280
Q

What are the five types of events that can disrupt availability?

A

‘Five types of events that can disrupt availability: denial of service attacks

281
Q

What is a DoS attack and how can it be protected against?

A

‘Denial of service or DoS Attacks occur when a malicious individual bombards the system with an overwhelming amount of traffic. The idea is to simply send so many requests to a server that the server is unable to answer any requests that come from legitimate users. We can protect our systems against these denial of service attacks by using firewalls that block illegitimate requests and by partnering with our internet service providers to block those attacks before they even reach our networks.’

282
Q

How can one protect against power outages?

A

‘We can protect against power outages by having redundant power sources and backup generators that supply power to our systems when commercial power isn’t available.’

283
Q

How can one protect against hardware failures?

A

‘Servers

284
Q

How can one protect against service outages?

A

‘We can protect against service outages by building systems that are resilient in the face of errors and hardware failures.’

285
Q

What does a host firewall do?

A

‘Host firewalls block unwanted inbound connections from elsewhere on the network. The firewalls do this by restricting the systems and ports that may communicate with our devices.’

286
Q

What are the basics of device security?

A

‘1) anti-virus software 2) host firewall 3) passwords 4) security updates 5) systems to enforce safe web-browsing’

287
Q

What is the first thing one should do when evaluating new software?

A

‘Validate that the software came from a legitimate source.’

288
Q

What does it mean to reduce the attack surface?

A

‘Reducing the amount of software in a system to the smallest possible amount’

289
Q

Why is it dangerous to obtain and install software from an unknown source?

A

‘If you download software from any source other than the original equipment manufacturer

290
Q

What are PII and PHI?

A

‘Personal Identifiable Information and Protected Health Information’

291
Q

Does one have a reasonable expectation of privacy when using an employer provided device?

A

‘No

292
Q

What are the four types of documents in the security policy framework?

A

‘Policies

293
Q

What are security policies?

A

‘Security policies are the bedrock documents that provide the foundation for an organization’s information security program. Compliance with policies is mandatory

294
Q

What are security standards?

A

‘Security standards prescribe the specific details of security controls that the organization must follow. Standards

295
Q

What are security guidelines?

A

‘Guidelines are where security professionals provide advice to the rest of the organization

296
Q

What are security procedures?

A

‘Procedures are step by step instructions that employees may follow when they’re performing a specific task.’

297
Q

What are the three steps of the access control process?

A

‘1) Identification 2) Authentication 3) Authorization’

298
Q

What does AAA mean?

A

‘In access control systems

299
Q

Aside from password complexity requirements, what password requirements can provide additional security?

A

‘Password expiration and password history to avoid reusing the same password’

300
Q

Should organizations allow users to change their passwords quickly and easily?

A

‘Yes

301
Q

What are three authentication factors?

A

‘1) something you know 2) something you are and 3) something you have’

302
Q

Given that every authentication factor has known drawbacks, what solution would provide the most security?

A

‘The solution to this problem is to combine authentication techniques from multiple factors

303
Q

Why is an approach that combines a password with a security question not an example of multifactor authentication?

A

‘In multifactor authentication

304
Q

What is the least privilege principle?

A

‘The least privilege principle says that an individual should only have the minimum set of permissions necessary to accomplish their job duties.’

305
Q

Why is the least privilege principle important?

A

‘First

306
Q

What are the different approaches when designing access control systems?

A

‘1) Mandatory access control 2) Discretionary access control 3) Role-based access control’

307
Q

Describe mandatory access control systems.

A

‘The operating system itself restricts the permissions that may be granted to users and processors on system resources. Users themselves can’t modify any permissions. Mac is normally implemented as a rule based access control system

308
Q

Describe discretionary access control systems.

A

‘Discretionary access control systems offer a flexible approach to authorization

309
Q

Describe role-based access control (RBAC) systems.

A

‘Role based access control (RBAC) system simplifies some of the work of managing authorizations. Instead of trying to manage all of the permissions for every individual user

310
Q

What are the different types of account in an access control system?

A

‘Standard user accounts

311
Q

What is the process used to guard system administrators accounts?

A

‘Privileged account management’

312
Q

Why are shared or generic accounts typically a bad idea?

A

‘They make it difficult to trace who performed an action with a shared account

313
Q

What are service accounts used for?

A

‘Service accounts are a special type of account used internally by a system to run a process or perform other actions.’

314
Q

What is encryption?

A

‘Encryption uses math to transform information into a format where it’s unreadable by anyone other than authorized users.’

315
Q

What two types of data are encrypted?

A

‘Data at rest and date in transit’

316
Q

What is non-repudiation?

A

‘Non-repudiation is a security goal that prevents someone from falsely denying that something is true.’

317
Q

What are the most common ways of achieving non-repudiation electronically?

A

‘Digital signatures use encryption technology to provide non-repudiation for electronic documents. You might use biometric security controls

318
Q

What are business continuity efforts?

A

‘Business continuity efforts are a collection of activities that are designed to keep a business running in the face of adversity.’

319
Q

What are the main ways to protect the availability of systems?

A

‘Redundancy and replication’

320
Q

What is a fault tolerant system?

A

‘A system protected against small failures’

321
Q

What is RAID?

A

‘Redundant arrays of inexpensive disks (RAID)

322
Q

What is disaster recovery?

A

‘Disaster recovery is a subset of business continuity activities that are designed to restore a business to normal operations as quickly as possible following a disruption.’