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Comptia HIT 001 > CompTIA HIT-001 > Flashcards

CompTIA HIT-001 Flashcards

1
Q

802.11

A

A family of specification developed by the IEEE for wireless LAN technology.

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2
Q

802.11a

A

a fast, secure, but relatively expensive protocol for wireless communication. The 802.11a protocol supports speeds up to 54 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency.

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3
Q

802.11b

A

Also called Wi-Fi, short for wired fidelity, “802.11b is probably the most common and certainly the lest expensive wireless network protocol used to transfer data among computers with wireless network cards or between a wireless computer or device and a wired LAN. The 802.11b protocol provides for an 11Mbps transfer rate in the 2.4GHz frequency.

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4
Q

802.11g

A

A specification for wireless data though put at the rate of up to 54Mbps in the 2.4GHz that is a potential replacement for 802.11b.

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5
Q

802.11i

A

A standard that adds AES security to the 802.11 standard

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6
Q

802.11n

A

A wireless standard for home and business implementations that adds QoS features and multimedia support to 802.11a and 802.11b

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7
Q

802.1x

A

An IEEE standard used to provide a port based authentication mechanism for wireless communications using the 802.11a and 802.11b protocols.

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8
Q

Acuity

A

The acuteness, or level of severity, of an illness or disease.

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9
Q

ad hoc

A

A type of network that is established spontaneously through a peer-to-peer wireless connection.

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10
Q

adware

A

Unwanted software loaded onto a system for the purposes of presenting commercial advertisements to the user.

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11
Q

ambulatory care

A

Any medical treatment or services provided on an outpatient basis.

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12
Q

antivirus software

A

A software program that scans a Computer or network for known viruses, Trojans, worms, and other malacious software.

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13
Q

AP (Access Points)

A

A hardware device or a computer software program that acts as a communication hub to provide heightened wireless security and extend the physical range of a wireless local area network.

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14
Q

API (Application Programming Interface)

A

Application code that enables various applications to communicate with each other.

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15
Q

Application Server

A

A server that runs applications for client use or is used by developers to store and share application components that can be used in web applications.

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16
Q

Applications

A

Software components that allow users to perform specific tasks and job functions on a computer.

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17
Q

Archive Flag

A

A file property that essentially indicates whether the file has been modified since the last back up.

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18
Q

ARP Poisoning

A

A method in which an attacker with access to the target network redirects an IP address to the MAC address of a computer that is not the intended recipient.

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19
Q

ARP(Address Resolution Protocol)

A

The mechanism by which individual hardware MAC addresses are matched to an IP address on a network.

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20
Q

ARRA (American Recovery and Reinvestment Act

A

U.S. economic stimulus legislation; provisions include funding of some healthcare initiatives and the creation of the HITECH Act.

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21
Q

ASP (Active Server Pages)

A

A server-side programing languague developed by Microsoft to provide a method to create dynamic web pages.

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22
Q

Assisted Living Facility

A

A residential facility or community for patients who may need assistance with some functions of daily living, such as bathing or medication reminders, but can otherwise remain mostly independent.

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23
Q

ATA (Advanced Technology Attachment)

A

The official ANSI term for IDE drives.

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24
Q

Availability

A

The fundamental security goal of ensuring that systems operate continuously and that authorized persons can access data that they need.

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25
Q

BAA

A

(Business Associate Agreement)A document that defines the authorized uses of PHI and how the information is to be used and managed.

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26
Q

Barcode Scanner

A

A wired or wireless device that is used to scan and identify patients using the unique barcode located on their ID wrist band.

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27
Q

Bedside Medication Verification

A

A checks-and-balances systems that ensures that a patient is receiving the correct medication, the correct dose of medication at the correct time, from an authorize caregiver by requiring that bar codes storing information about the patient medication m and possible the administering personnel be scanned and verified prior to the medication being dispensed.

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28
Q

Billing and Coding Software

A

Software that provides one location where charges are entered codes can be checked, insurance claims and statements can be generated and sent , claim denials can be managed and payments can be posted and processed.

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29
Q

Billing Clearinghouse

A

The intermediary between the medical biller at the healthcare organization and the paying insurance company who ensures that the claim has no errors before it is transmitted to the insurance company.

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30
Q

Biometrics

A

Authentication schemes based on individuals’ physical characters.

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31
Q

Bluejacking

A

A method used by attackers to send out unwanted Bluetooth signals from mobile phones smartphones , tablets and laptops to other Bluetooth-enabled devices.

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32
Q

Bluesnarfing

A

A process in which attackers gain access to unauthorized information on a wireless device using a Bluetooth connection.

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33
Q

Bluetooth

A

A short-range wireless radio network transmission medium usually used between two personal devices such as between a mobile phone and wireless headset.

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34
Q

Break Glass Access

A

Temporary and specific emergency access to specifically locked PHI data in order to gain access to information which enables tasks completion.

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35
Q

Camera

A

A device used to take pictures of patients, because some EMR/EHR systems allow for a patient’s picture to be tied to their electronic record.

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36
Q

Card/Badge Scanner

A

A device used often to scan patient’s driver licenses or insurance card to store withing the EMR/EHR system.

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37
Q

CCD

A

(Continuity of Care Document)A healthcare record standard, similar to CCR but more robust as it was developed by both the HL7 and American Society for Testings and Materials.

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38
Q

CCHIT

A

(Certification Commission for Health Information Technology)

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39
Q

CCMP

A

(Counter Mode with Cipher Block Changing Message Authentication Code Protocol) An AES cipher-based encryption protocol used in WPA2.

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40
Q

CCR

A

(Continuity of Care Record) A health record standard that was developed by a number of American healthcare organization as a means of creating summary documents containing the most relevant pertinent information about a patient that can be shared electronically between medical caregivers regardless of their respective EMR or EHR software applications.

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41
Q

Centralized

A

A network in which a central host computer controls all network communication and performs the data processing and storage on behalf of network clients.

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42
Q

Certified EHR System

A

An EHR system that had been certified by ONC

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43
Q

Change Management

A

A systematic way of approving and executing changing in order to assure maximum security, stability and availability of information technology services.

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44
Q

CIA Triad

A

(Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) The three principles of security control and management: confidentiality integrity and availability. Also known as the information security triad or triple.

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45
Q

Client-Server

A

A computer model where functionality is divided into two roles: A server computer which provides services and controls network operations and a client computer which uses the services provides by the servers.

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46
Q

Cloud Computing

A

A method of computing that relies on the Internet to provided the resources, software, data and media needs of a user, business, or organization.

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47
Q

CMS

A

(Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services) A U.S. federal agency responsible not only for overseeing its named services but also for administering a children’s insurance program, some portions of HIPAA, and other programs.

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48
Q

Coaxial Cable

A

A type of cable that features a central conductor surrounded bu the braided or foil shielding. a dialectric insulator separates the conductor shield and the entire package is wrapped in an insulating layer called a jacket. The data signal is transmitter over the central conductor. The outer shielding serves to reduce electromagnetic interference.

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49
Q

Code Blue

A

Term used to communicate that a patient has gone into cardiac arrest, and immediate medical attention/ rapid response is needed to resuscitation the patient.

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50
Q

Confidentiality

A

The fundamental security goal of keeping information and communications private and protecting then from unauthorized access.

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51
Q

Continuing Care Facility

A

A residential facility “steps” of care based on the residents’ needs:Residents can start out with more Independence though assisted living, with the comfort of knowing nursing home care is available at the same facility when they can no longer remain independent.

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52
Q

Controlled substance

A

Any drugs or chemical substance that is regulated by the federal government in its production, possession, or use, including illegal and prescription drugs.

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53
Q

Covered Entity

A

Any healthcare provider that conducts certain transactions in electronic form, a healthcare clearinghouse or a health plan. All covered entities fall under the HHS Administrative Simplification standards adopted as port of HIPAA. All covered entities must adhere to the HIPAA Privacy Rule and Security Rule.

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54
Q

CPOE

A

(Computerized Physician Order Entry) Software that allows for electronic entry of all medical orders/instructions for treatment for a patient from their licensed caregiver which can then be accessed by other medical staff.

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55
Q

CPT

A

(Current Procedural Terminology) A list of description and accompanying five-digit numeric codes used for reporting medical services and procedures, which is published every year by the American Medical Association.

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56
Q

Custodian

A

The role, department, or individual that is formally responsible for a health record.

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57
Q

Daily Backup

A

A backup that backs up all selected files on a daily basis.

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58
Q

Data Sanitation

A

The method used to repeatedly delete and overwrite any traces or bits of sensitive data that may remain on a device after data wiping has been done.

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59
Q

Data Wiping

A

A method used to remove any sensitive data from a mobile device and permanently delete it.

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60
Q

Database Server

A

A server that provides database services to other computers in a network.

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61
Q

DBA

A

(Database Administrator) An IT role that is responsible for designing, implementing, maintaining, and repairing databases. Usually also responsible for the security of an organization’s database system and all the data stored on the systems.

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62
Q

DC

A

(Domain Controller) A Windows Server computer that runs the Active Directory service. Directory information is automatically replicated between the DC’s

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63
Q

DDoS

A

(Distributed Denial of Service) A network attack in which an attacker hijacks or manipulates multiple computers(through the use of zombies or drones)

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64
Q

Degaussing

A

A method used to remove data from magnetic media. Degaussing changes the magnetic alignment of data, so that it cannot be recovered

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65
Q

Desktop Support

A

An IT role that is responsible for assisting end users and attempts to restore normal service to users as quickly as possible.

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66
Q

DHCP Server

A

A server that contains at least one DHCP scope.

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67
Q

DHCP

A

(Dynamic Host Control Protocol) A Protocol used to automatically assign IP addressing information to IP network computers.

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68
Q

Differential Backup

A

A backup that backs up all the files in a selected storage location that have changed since the last full backup.

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69
Q

Display Devices

A

Personal computer components that enable users to view the text and graphical data output from a computer.

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70
Q

DNS Server

A

A server that consists of databases that store domain name information and translate and resolve fully qualified domain name requests from clients.

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71
Q

DNS

A

(Domain Name System) The service that maps names to IP addresses on most TCP/IP networks, including the Internet.

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72
Q

Document Imaging

A

Electronic conversion of hard copy documents to digital form.

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73
Q

Document Scanner

A

A device used to convert paper to electronic format and then associates the file with the proper patient.

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74
Q

DoS

A

(Denial of Service attack)A network attack in which an attacker disables systems that provide network services by consuming a networks link’s available bandwidth, consuming a single system’s available resources, or exploiting programming flaws in an application or operation system.

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75
Q

Drone

A

Unauthorized software introduced on multiple computers to manipulate the computers into mounting a DDoS attack. also called a zombie.

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76
Q

DRP

A

(Disaster Recovery Plan) A policy that defines how people and resources will be protected in a natural or man-made disaster and how the organization will recover from the disaster.

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77
Q

Drug Allergy

A

Any adverse reaction to a medication being taken.

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78
Q

e-Prescribing

A

The transmission of a patient’s prescription for medication electronically from the describer’s computer to the pharmacy’s computer.

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79
Q

E/M Codes

A

(Evaluation and Management Codes) Five-digit CPT codes used to describe a medical professional-patient interaction, such as an office visit or a hospital, to facilitate in the billing process.

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80
Q

EAP

A

(Extensible Authentication Protocol) An authentication protocol that enables systems to use hardware-based identifiers , such as fingerprint scanners or smart card readers, for authentication.

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81
Q

Eavesdropping

A

A network attack that uses special monitoring software to gain access to private communications on the network wire or across a wireless network. Also knows as a sniffing attack.

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82
Q

ED

A

(Emergency Department) An area of the facility where those needing immediate medical treatment arrive and are provided with initial care for their medical illness or injury, before being admitted for further treatment by another department.

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83
Q

EHR

A

(Electronic Health Record) The consolidation of all of the recorded health information about a person stored withing a given network. EHR’s generally contain multiple EMR’s collected from various facilities and providers within a provider network or umbrella organization.

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84
Q

Eligible Provider

A

A healthcare provider that meets legally defined criteria and thus is eligible for incentive payments for the implementation of EHR systems.

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85
Q

Email

A

Electronic messages sent between users or groups.

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86
Q

EMI

A

(Electromagnetic Interference) disturbances caused by electromagnetic radiation emitted from any external source, which may interrupt, obstruct, degrade, or limit the performance of an electrical circuit.

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87
Q

Encryption

A

A process in which information is transcribed into an unreadable form by anyone who does not have the encryption key.

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88
Q

Examination Room

A

A private room where a patient is examined and diagnosed by a medical practitioner.

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89
Q

External Devices

A

Devices that provide alternative input or output methods or additional data storage though a connection to the system unit via cable or a wireless connection.

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90
Q

Fax Printer

A

A device used to fax prescription or to print out prescription information for the EMR/EHR system.

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91
Q

Fax Server

A

A device that manages all fax messages sent with a network.

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92
Q

FDA

A

(Food and Drug Administration) The federal agency that oversees the regulation of food safety, tobacco products, prescription and over-the-counter medication, dietary supplements, vaccines, medical devices, sanitation requirements, and other related public health products and services.

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93
Q

Fiber

A

A type of cable in which one or more glass or plastic strands, plus additional fiber strands or wraps, are surrounded by a protective oyster jacket. Light pulses carry the signal though fiber optic cable.

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94
Q

File Server

A

A server that is primarily used to share, store, and access files.

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95
Q

Final Rule

A

An effort to set standards, specifications, and criteria for the implementation, use, and security of healthcare IT systems.

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96
Q

Fire Suppression

A

A system that extinguishes fire using special gases.

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97
Q

Firewall

A

A software or hardware device that protects a system or network by blocking unwanted network traffic.

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98
Q

FireWire Connection

A

A high-speed serial bus developed by Apple and Texas Instruments that allows for the connection of up to 63 devices. Originally a trademarked term for IEEE 1394, but is now used interchangeably.

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99
Q

Flash

A

An Adobe platform that allows developers to create animations, videos, and other interactive components using the ActionScript programming language.

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100
Q

Float Room

A

Any room used to temporarily house patient when they are in transition between their patient room and another location, such as before or after testes or surgeries.

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101
Q

For-Profit Hospital

A

An investor-owned hospital, usually owned by a corporation or group of private individuals, that aims to gain profits for the services provided which are then paid to those invested in the ownership.

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102
Q

Formulary Checking

A

the automatic process for checking a prescription for medication against a patents’s known allergies for possible drug-allergy reactions, and against current medications for possible adverse drug-drug interactions.

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103
Q

FTP Server

A

A server that uses the File Transfer Protocol(FTP) to exchange files over an Internet connection.

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104
Q

FTP

A

(File Transfer Protocol) A communication protocol that enables the transfer of files between a user’s workstation and a remote host

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105
Q

Full Backup

A

A backup that backs up all selected files regardless of the state of the archived bit.

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106
Q

General/Community Hospital

A

a hospital that treats a wide variety of medical issues including emergencies and inpatient/outpatient care, and performs general surgeries.

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107
Q

Hardware Attack

A

An attack that targets a computer’s physical components and peripherals, including hard disk, motherboard, keyboard network cabling, or smart card reader.

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108
Q

HDD

A

(Hard Disk Drive) a personal computer storage device that uses fixed media and magnetic data storage.

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109
Q

HHS

A

(U.S. Department of Health and Human Services) The U.S. Agency charged with protecting the health of the population and providing various human services.

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110
Q

HIPAA

A

(Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) A U.S. law that established rules for the governance of health information privacy, security, breach notification administrative simplification, and enforcement.

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111
Q

HITECH

A

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act) the part of the ARRA that promote the adoption in meaningful use of healthcare IT through enchanced enforcement and extension of HIPAA policies.

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112
Q

HL7

A

Specific healthcare industry standards and a framework concerning the exchange and integration of patient’s electronic information between software systems, which are adhered to by vendors developing interfaces, ensuring that of this disparate software applications are used by healthcare organizations and the interfaces that communicate between them are all speaking the same electronic language to accurately exchange patient medical data.

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113
Q

Hoax

A

Any message containing incorrect or misleading information that is disseminated to multiple users though unofficial channels.

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114
Q

Home Healthcare

A

A wide variety of medical services that are provided in a patient’s home by an accredited home health aide, often including physical therapy and medication delivery thought more complicated methods like injection intravenous therapy, etc.

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115
Q

Hospice Care

A

A residential facility for terminally ill patients who have reached the end stages of their condition. Hospice care is designed to provide comfort and care for patients and support for the patient’s family during end-of-life.

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116
Q

Host Computer

A

A powerful, centralized computer system that performs data storage and processing tasks on behalf of clients and other network devices.

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117
Q

HTML

A

(Hypertext Markup Language) The standard language that defines how web pages are formatted and displayed.

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118
Q

HTTPS

A

(Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) A secure version of HTTP that supports e-commerce by providing a secure connection between a web browser and a server.

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119
Q

Human Interface Devices

A

Hardware components that enable users to interact with computers.

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120
Q

IaaS

A

(Infrastructure as a Service) A method that uses the cloud to provide any or all infrastructure needs.

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121
Q

ICD-10

A

(International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th revision) One of several internationally endorsed medical codding classifications list which gives a numeric code to diseases, signs and symptoms, possible complaints, abnormalities, and possible causes of injuries and diseases..\

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122
Q

ICMP

A

(Internet Control Message Protocol) A service added to the IP protocol that attempts to report on the condition of a connection between two nodes.

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123
Q

IDF

A

(International Distribution Frame) Systems that store networking hardware and provide networking services to local area networks within a medical environment.

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124
Q

IDS

A

(Intrusion Detection System) A software and/or hardware system that scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress.

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125
Q

IEEE

A

(Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers) Pronounced “I-triple-E.” An organization of scientists, engineers, and student of electronics and related fiends whose technical and standards committees develop, publish and revise computing and telecommunications standards.

126
Q

IM

A

(Instant Messaging) A type of communication service which involves a private dialogue between two persons via instant-text-based messages over the internet.

127
Q

Imaging Center

A

An area where all medical imaging procedures are conducted.

128
Q

Imaging

A

The use of various technologies to create images of the human body for use in the clinical field, such as diagnosis, treatment, and tracking of a disease or medical issue within the body.

129
Q

Incremental Backup

A

A back up that backs up all files in a selected storage location that have changed since the last full or differential backup.

130
Q

Inpatient Treatment

A

Treatment provided when a patient’s medical condition reqires being admitted a healthcare facility for anywhere from an overnight stay to a long-term sstay, due to the fact that the patient’s condition must be closely monitored.

131
Q

Input Devices

A

Personal computer components that enable users to enter data or instructions into a computer.

132
Q

Integrity

A

The fundamental security goal of ensuring that electronic data is not altered or tampered with.

133
Q

Interference

A

Within wireless networking, the phenomenon by which radio waves from other devices interfere with the 802.11 wireless signals.

134
Q

Intermediate Care facility

A

A residential facility for individuals with persistent medical conditions who are currently unable to live independently, but do not need constant medical care or supervision.

135
Q

Internet Modem

A

A network device that modulates digital information onto an analog signal at one end, and demodulates the analog signal back to digital data, used for dial-up Internet connections.

136
Q

ipconfig

A

A command line utility used to display the connection-specific DNS suffix, IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

137
Q

Isolation Room

A

An area within a medical facility designed to prevent the spread of airborne infections though the use of negative pressurization control of the air inside and outside the room.

138
Q

ISP

A

(Internet Service Provider) A company that provides access to the Internet.

139
Q

IV Attack

A

An attack where the attacker is able to predict of control the IV of an encryption process, thus giving the attacker access to view the encrypted data that is supposed to be hidden from everyone else except the user of network.

140
Q

IV

A

(Initialization Vector) A technique used in cryptography to generate random numbers to be used along with a secret key to provide data encryption.

141
Q

Keyfob

A

A portable electronic security token that contains biometric user data, or other identification information.

142
Q

L2TP

A

(Layer Two Tunneling Protocol) The de facto standard VPN protocol for tunneling PPP sessions across a variety of network protocols such as IP, frame relay, or ATM.

143
Q

LAN

A

(Local Area Network) a LAN implementation in which nodes use a wireless network card to connect to other stations.

144
Q

LEAP

A

(Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol) Cisco Systems’ proprietary EAP implementation.

145
Q

Legal Health Record

A

The official record that an organization would release if requested.

146
Q

Level I Trauma Center

A

A trauma center that can provide the highest possible level of surgical care to trauma patients, with a full range of specialists and technology available 24 hours a day. It is required to have an ongoing research program and trauma education/ prevention services.

147
Q

Level II Trauma Center

A

A trauma center that can provide essential trauma care 24 hours a day with all available specialties, personnel, and equipment. It provides comprehensive trauma care and clinical assistance to a level I facility as needed. It is differentiated from Level I because it is not required to have ongoing research programs or surgical residency.

148
Q

Level III Trauma Center

A

A trauma center that can provide treatment, surgery and intensive care to most trauma patients but does not have all available specialist and their equipment in facility. It has transfers agreements with a Level I or II facility for the treatment of severe injuries that the Level III cannot treat.

149
Q

Level IV Trauma Center

A

A trauma center that can provide initial evaluation stabilization, and diagnosis of a trauma patient, but then the patient must be transferred to a Level I, II, or III facility for treatment and care. It is required to provide services 24 hours a day.

150
Q

Level V Trauma Center

A

A trauma center that can provide initial evaluation stabilization, and diagnosis of a trauma patient, but then the patient must be transferred to a Level I, II, or III facility for treatment and care. It is differentiated from a Level IV because it is not required to have services available 24 hours a day, but must have an after-hours trauma response plan in place.

151
Q

Liability Waiver

A

A legal document that may be signed by a patient (or those acting legally on behalf of a patient) to acknowledge the risks involved in a specific medical procedure or medication.

152
Q

Liability

A

The condition of being actually or potentially subject to a legal obligation based on one’s actions or omissions.

153
Q

Logic Bomb

A

A piece of code that sits dormant on a user;s computer until it is triggered by a specific event such as a specific date. Once the code is triggered the logic bomb “ detonates, : erasing and corrupting data on the user’s computer.

154
Q

Logical Access Control

A

Protection mechanism used to identify, authenticate, and authorize access to computers and their corresponding systems.

155
Q

Logical Security

A

Software protection systems in an organization.

156
Q

Long-stay Facility

A

A facility that provides long-term services, such as rehabilitation, that address more permanent or long-term medical conditions like mental illness.

157
Q

Mail Server

A

A server that receives email request from hosts on a network, and redirects them to the intended recipient.

158
Q

Main Frame

A

See Host Computer

159
Q

Man-in-the-middle

A

a form of eavesdropping where the attacker makes an independent convection between two victims and steals information to use fraudulently.

160
Q

Mantrap

A

A physical security control system that has a door at each end of a secure chamber.

161
Q

MDF

A

(Main Distribution Frame) A hardware rack that holds networking equipment to provide connections from public lines coming into the physical building generaly from the ISP, to all the IDFs located what a medical facility

162
Q

Meaningful Use

A

A regulatory concept describing the ideal of effectively and efficiently leveraging EHR technology in the medical workplace.

163
Q

Medicaid

A

The U.S. federal program to provide healthcare for certain low-income individual and families.

164
Q

Medical Coding

A

The process is assigning a universally recognized and used medical code number to a specific medical diagnosis or procedure.

165
Q

Medical Interfaces

A

Software systems solutions developed using specific industry standards and rules that allow all the myriad medical systems to communicate as seamlessly as possible with one another.

166
Q

Medical Record Controls

A

Mechanism that are put in place to limit access to electronic health information.

167
Q

Medicare

A

A federal health insurance program for the elderly and some disable individuals in the United States, with three main parts: Part A for inpatient, Part B for outpatient, and prescriptions drug coverage.

168
Q

Medication Reconciliation

A

A process in which a list of patient’s medication orders is compared to a list of those that the patient has been taking in order to avoid any possible medication errors such as duplicated prescriptions, errors in dosage, or potentially hazardous drug interactions.

169
Q

Metadata

A

Data that is added to a patient EMR to allow for quick searching and file location.

170
Q

Mixed Mode

A

A network that displays characteristics of more than one of the three standard network models.

171
Q

MOU

A

Memorandum of Understanding - A document that lists agreed upon actions between two parties.

172
Q

NAC

A

Network Access Control - The compilation of protocols, polices, and hardware that govern access on devices to and from a network.

173
Q

NAS

A

Network Attached Storage - A Specialized file server that is designed and dedicated to support only data storage needs.

174
Q

National Drug Code Directory

A

A list of all NDC identification numbers, compiled and published by the Food and Drug Administration.

175
Q

NDC ID

A

National Drug Code Identification - A unique 10-digit, three segment numeric code assigned to each registered drug manufactured, processed, and distributed by registered drug manufacturers.

176
Q

Network Administrator

A

An IT role that is responsible for the network infrastructure and components withing an organization.

177
Q

NIC

A

Network Interface Card - A device that provides network connectivity capabilities for computer systems.

178
Q

NIST

A

National Institute of Standards and Technology - An agency of the U.S. Department of Commerce. NIST’s mission us to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve our quality of life.

179
Q

Non-profit Hospital

A

A hospital owned by a not-for-profit organization, religious organization, or government organization. Profits do not go to individual investors, but reinvested back into hospital or community.

180
Q

Nursing Home

A

A residential facility for patients who need constant medical or nursing care and supervision.

181
Q

OCR

A

Optical Character Recognition - the process of transforming handwritten, scanned images of text or typed text into machine-encoded text.

182
Q

ONC

A

Office of the National Coordinator - A part of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, OCN is scared what encouraging, administering, and regulating the advancement of IT in healthcare.

183
Q

Optical Disk

A

A personal computer storage decide that stores data optically, rather than magnetically.

184
Q

OR

A

Operating Room - An area where surgical procedures are performer in a sterile environment.

185
Q

Outpatient Treatment

A

Medical services that can be proved to a patient without the need for the patient to be admitted to any type of healthcare facility.

186
Q

P2P

A

Peer-to-peer - A network that has a broadcasting application architecture that distributes tasks between peer systems who have equal privileges, and in which resources sharing, processing, and communication controls are decentralized.

187
Q

PaaS

A

Platform as a Service - a method that uses the l=cloud to provide any platform-type service.

188
Q

Packet Sniffing

A

An attack on wireless networks where an attacker captures data and registers data flows in order to analyze what data is contained in a packet.

189
Q

PACS

A

Picture Archiving and Communications System - Application system where medical images of almost all kinds, including MRIs, CAT scans, ultrasounds, mammograms, etc., can be stored and retrieved electronically by various members of a health organization.

190
Q

PAN

A

Personal Area Network - a network that connects wireless devices in a very close proximity but not though a wireless access point.

191
Q

Parallel Connection

A

A personal computer connection type that transfers data, usually 8 bits at a time, over eight wires and is often used for a printer.

192
Q

PATA Connection

A

Parallel Advanced Technology Attachment - A personal computer connection that provides a parallel data channel from a disk controllers to the disk driver.

193
Q

Parallel Tracking Software

A

Software that allows staff to track a patient’s flow of care in the system from registration thought treatment, and during and after discharge.

194
Q

PCP

A

Primary Care Physician - A doctor who serves as the frist contact for a a patient for a variety of medical services, including physicals or well-visits, and who also serves as either the diagnosing doctor or the referring doctor when a patient presents a medical condition that he or she cannot treat.

195
Q

PEAP

A

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol - Similar to EAP-TLS, PEAP is an open standard developed by a coalition made up of Cisco Systems, Microsoft, and RSA Security.

196
Q

Permission

A

A security setting that determines the level of access a user or group account has to be particular resource.

197
Q

PGP

A

Pretty Good Privacy - A method of securing emails created to prevent attackers form intercepting and manipulating emails and attachments by encrypting and digitally singing the contents of the emails using public key cryptography.

198
Q

Pharming

A

A type of social engineering attack where a request for a website, typicality an e-commerce site, is redirected to a similar looking, but fake, website.

199
Q

PHI

A

Personal Health Information - Information about an individual held by parties that are involved in the healthcare and billing process.

200
Q

Phishing

A

A common type of email-based social engineering attack where the attacker sends an email that seems to come form a respected bank or financial institution.

201
Q

PHP

A

A server-side programming language used to develop dynamic web pages by embedding its coded into an HTML pages.

202
Q

PHR

A

Personal Health Record - A patient maintained health record that can be shared with medical professionals. Generally not a part of Legal Heath Record.

203
Q

Physical Security Controls

A

Implemented security measures that restrict, detect, and monitor access to specific physical areas or assets.

204
Q

Physical Security

A

The implementation and practice of various control mechanisms that are intended to restrict physical access to facilities.

205
Q

Ping

A

A TCP/IP utility used to verity the network connectivity of a computer.

206
Q

Port Scanning

A

An attack were an attacker scans your systems to see which ports are listening in an attempt to find a way to gain unauthorized access/

207
Q

PPP

A

Point-to-Point Protocol - The VPN protocol that is an Internet standard for sending IP datagram packets over serial point-to-point links.

208
Q

PPTP

A

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol - A VPN protocol that is an extension of the PPP remote access protocol.

209
Q

Practice Management Software

A

An all-encompassing solution of many other IT-based pieces that streamlines the workflow processes of all activities needed to run a practice or facility while providing the ability to becomes a paperless office, including patient tracking, medical coding and billing, payment collection, rules compliance, and reporting.

210
Q

Preceptor

A

A senior, skilled medical staff member who serves as an instructor or supervisor, providing experience and feedback, to medical students or newly hired employees still in training.

211
Q

Print Server

A

A device that distributes and manages print jobs sent from client computers.

212
Q

Privacy Rule

A

The section of HIPAA that establishes a rule set to govern the use and disclosure of PHI by covered entities. The goal of the Privacy Rule is to protect a person’s health information while allowing adequate transfer of information to promote efficiency and better patient outcomes.

213
Q

Private Health Insurers

A

Privatem non-government businesses that contract with individual or employments to help pay medical expenses. These insurers also have seperate contracts with many health organization that specify negotiated rate structures for that health organization’s services. Patients usually pay a portion of the fee in the form of a co-payment or deductible.

214
Q

Private Health Record

A

Records that are not for public consumption and require appropriate release before they can be shared.

215
Q

Private Practice

A

An independent medical practice opened by one or more accredited medical practitioners of any specialty area in an office environment.

216
Q

Procedure Room

A

An area where minor procedures are perform, including minor surgeries not requiring anesthesia and post-operative care.

217
Q

Protected Health Information

A

Individually identifiable health information that is transmitted or maintained in any form or medium by a covered entity or business associate.

218
Q

Proxy Server

A

A server that isolates internal networks form the Internet by downloading and storing Internet files on behalf of internal clients.

219
Q

Public Health Record

A

Records that are released for public viewing.

220
Q

Public Hospital

A

A hospital owned and operated by a federal, state or city government. Typically provides subsidized medical services to patients unable to pay for medical services.

221
Q

RADIUS

A

Remote Authentication Dial-in User Services - A standard protocol for providing centralized authentication and authorization services form remote users.

222
Q

RDP

A

Remote Desktop Protocol - A protocol used to connect to and access a remote computer.

223
Q

Recover Room

A

An area where patients are housed after a surgical procedure or any procedure requiring anesthesia and are closely monitored for any indications of post-operative complications.

224
Q

Remote Access

A

The ability to connect to systems and services from an offsite or remote location using a remote access method.

225
Q

Replay

A

A type or network attack where an attacker captures network traffic and store it for re-transmission at a later time to gain unauthorized access.

226
Q

RFP

A

Request for Proposal - An invitation for vendors to submit a plan and bid for the delivery of a product or service.

227
Q

RHIO

A

Regional Health Information Organization - A health information organization comprised of key stakeholders in the health care industry a specific geographical region who oversee the health information exchange of healthcare providers in the area.

228
Q

Rogue Access Point

A

An unauthorized wireless access point on a corporate or private network, which allows unauthorized individuals to connect to the network.

229
Q

ROI Department

A

A department within a medical organization dedicated to handling ROI requests for EMR/EHR information release.

230
Q

Router

A

A device that connects multiple network that use the same protocol.

231
Q

SaaS

A

Software as a Service - A method that uses the cloud to provide application services to users.

232
Q

SATA Connection

A

Serial ATA Connection - A personal computer connection tat provides a serial data channel between the drive controller and the disk drives.

233
Q

Schedule I Controlled Substance

A

Classification for a drug or substance that has a high potential for abuse; currently has no accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and has a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision.

234
Q

Schedule II Controlled Substance

A

Classification for a drug or substance that has a high potential for abuse; is currently accepted for medical use in treatment in the United States; and abuse of which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.

235
Q

Schedule III Controlled Substance

A

Classification for a drug or substance that has less potential for abuse that those categorized as Schedule I or II; is currently accepted for medical use in treatment in the United States; and abuse of which may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence.

236
Q

Schedule IV Controlled Substance

A

Classification for a drug or substance that has low potential for abuse as compared those in categorized in Schedule III; is currently accepted for medical use in treatment in the United States; and abuse of which may lead to limited to physical or psychological dependence, especially in comparison to those categorized in Schedule III.

237
Q

Schedule V Controlled Substance

A

Classification for a drug or substance that has a lower potential for abuse as compared to those categorized in schedule IV; is currently accepted for medical use in treatment in the United States; and abuse of which may lead to limited to physical or psychological dependence, specially in comparison to those categorized in schedule IV.

238
Q

Scheduling Software

A

Online or electronic software that provides a stat-to-finish workflow from the time a patient is scheduled though their checkout after their appointment, including insurance verification, check-in, check-out, and payment.

239
Q

Scope of Practice

A

The procedures, processes, or actions, as defined by state and national licensing boards, that are permitted for an individual in a particular licensing area, usually driven by criteria such as specific education and experience requirements.

240
Q

SCSI

A

Small Computer Systems Interface - An older personal computer connection standard hat provides high-performance data transfer between the SCSI device and the other components of the computer. Pronounced “ scuzzy.”

241
Q

Secure Chat

A

An Instant messaging service that uses strong encryption to send and receive secure messages.

242
Q

Secure File Transfer Protocol

A

Secure FTP - A secure version of FTP that uses SSH as an encryption method to transfer, access, and manage files.

243
Q

Secure Shredding

A

A method used to securely remove data from hard drives and other electronic storage devices.

244
Q

Security Administrator

A

An IT role that is responsible for ensuring that an organization’s security policies are being followed by employees and that sufficient controls are in place to prevent unauthorized access to systems and facilities,

245
Q

Security Policy

A

A formalized statement that defines how security will be implemented within a particular organization.

246
Q

Security Rule

A

The section of HIPAA that establishes national standards for the security of personal electronic health information maintained by a cover entity.

247
Q

Sensitivity Label

A

A security designation that determines the clearance for an information zone within the EHR system.

248
Q

Serial Connection

A

A personal computer connection that transfers data one bit at a time over a single wire and is often used for an external modem.

249
Q

Server Load

A

The amount of work a server performs on a regular basis.

250
Q

Server Utilization

A

The management of performance levels of servers to ensure that critical operations are highly available to resources.

251
Q

Session Hijacking

A

An attack where the attacker exploits a legitimate computer session to obtain unauthorized access to an organization’s network or services.

252
Q

Short-stay Facility

A

Also known as an acute care facility. This facility proves services aimed to resolve immediate and short-term medical conditions like pregnancy or a heart attack.

253
Q

Signature Pads

A

A device used for patient billing to capture an electronic signature.

254
Q

Site Survey

A

An analysis technique that determines the coverage area of a wireless network, identifies any sources of interference, and establishes other characteristics of the coverage area.

255
Q

SLA

A

Service-level Agreement - a contractual agreement between a service provider and a customer that stipulates the precise services and support options the vendor must provide.

256
Q

Sniffing

A

A network attack that uses special monitor software to gain access to private communications on the network wire or across a wireless network. Also known as an eavesdropping attack.

257
Q

SNOMED CT

A

Systematized Nomenclature of Medicine-clinical Terms - An organized collection of numeric codes correlating to clinical information such as diseases, procedures, microorganisms, medications, and so forth that may be used in a patient’s records.

258
Q

Social Engineering Attack

A

A type of attack where the goal is to obtain sensitive data including user names and passwords, from network users though deception and trickery.

259
Q

Software Hotfix

A

A package of files used to address a specific problem, often specific to a particular customers’s problem and not released to all customers at large.

260
Q

Software Patch

A

A piece of software created to fix problems with or provide updates to a program or application. This may include fixing known vulnerabilities or bugs, or improving functionality or performance.

261
Q

Software Update

A

A piece of software created to fix problems with or provide updates to a program or application. This may include fixing known vulnerabilities or bugs, or improving functionality or performance.

262
Q

Solid State Storage

A

A personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape.

263
Q

Spam

A

Originally frequent and repetitive postings in electronic bulletin boards; more commonly unsolicited or distasteful commercial email form, anonymous sources.

264
Q

Specialized Hospital

A

A hospital specialized to treat a specific disease or condition or a specific type of patient.

265
Q

Spyware

A

Unwanted software that collects personal user data from a system and transmits it to a third party.

266
Q

SQL

A

Structured Query Language - A programming and query language common to many large scale database systems.

267
Q

SSH

A

Secure Shell - A protocol for secure remote logon and secure transfer of data.

268
Q

SSL

A

Secure Sockets Layer - A security protocol that uses certificates for authentication and encryption to protect web communication.

269
Q

SSTP

A

Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol - A protocol that uses the HTTP over SSL protocol and encapsulates an IP packet wit a PPP header and then with an SSTP header.

270
Q

Stat

A

Derived from the Latin “statim,” a term used to connote immediacy or urgency.

271
Q

Storage Server

A

A server that stores files and programs.

272
Q

Strong Password

A

A password that meets the complexity requirements that are set by a system administrator and documented in a password policy.

273
Q

Structured Data

A

Data that fits into a well-defined data model.

274
Q

Superbill

A

An itemized form containing all the information needed to file a claim. including patient information and services rendered for a visit, that is compiled by the healthcare provider’s medical biller and supplied to the insurance company as the source for the claim.

275
Q

Surgical Center

A

A healthcare facility that performs surgical procedures that does not require hospitalization. Surgeries are usually outpatient, meaning the surgery performed dos not require stay for recovery.

276
Q

Switch

A

A device that has multiple network ports and combines multiple physical network segments into a single logical network.

277
Q

Systems Administrator

A

An IT role that is responsible for the maintenance of an organization’s hardware systems. networks, and server systems.

278
Q

Tape Drive

A

A personal computer storage device that stores data magnetically on a removable tape.

279
Q

TCP/IP

A

Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol - A non-proprietary, routable network protocol suite that enables computers to communicate over all types or networks.

280
Q

Teaching Hospital

A

A hospital affiliated with a nearby medical school, allowing medical students and residents to gain hands-on learning and obtain real works experience by working in the hospital environment.

281
Q

The Joint Commission

A

An independent, non-regulatory, not-for-profit organization that provides accreditation and certification for healthcare organizations in the United States.

282
Q

Time Server

A

A server that proves the most accurate actual time to all clients in a computer network.

283
Q

TKIP

A

Temporary Key Integrity Protocol - A security protocol created by the IEEE task group to replace WEP.

284
Q

Tracert

A

A utility used to determine the route data takes to get to a particular destination.

285
Q

Tracking and Auditing Software

A

Software that provides a single system for tracking and managing compliance with medical claims audits that are performed by both government and commercial healthcare(insurance) organizations.

286
Q

Transitive Access

A

Access given to certain members in an organization to use data on a system without the need for authenticating themselves.

287
Q

Trauma Center

A

A facility equipped to treat patients suffering traumatic injuries.

288
Q

Treatment Team

A

A team of clinicians assigned to work with a specific patient at any given time.

289
Q

Trojan Horse

A

Malicious code that masquerades as a harmless file. When a user executes it, thinking it is a harmless application, it destroys and corrupts data on the user’s hard drive.

290
Q

TTL

A

Time to Live - A value that determines how many hops an IP packet ca travel before being discarded.

291
Q

Twisted Pair

A

A type of cable in which multiple insulated conductors are twisted together and clad in a protective and insulating out jacket.

292
Q

UPS

A

Uninterruptible Power Supply - A battery back up device that is intended to save computer components from damage due to power problems such as power failures, spikes, and sags.

293
Q

Urgent Care Facility

A

An outpatient facility where treatment can be provided for medical problems or conditions that need immediate medical attention, but are not an emergency.

294
Q

USB Connection

A

A personal computer connection that enables you to connect multiple peripherals to a single port with high performance and minimal device configuration.

295
Q

USB

A

Universal Serial Bus - A hardware interface standard designed to provide connections for numerous peripherals.

296
Q

Virtualization

A

A class of technology separates computing software from the hardware it runs via an additional software layer, allowing multiple operating systems to run on one computer simultaneously.

297
Q

Virus

A

A sample of code that spreads from one computer to another by attacking itself to other files. The code in a virus corrupts and erases files on a user’s computer, including executable files, when the files to which it was attached is opened or executed. The term often is used as an umbrella term to refer to many types of malicious software.

298
Q

VoIP

A

Voice over IP - An implementation in which voice signals are transmitter over IP networks.

299
Q

VPN Protocol

A

A protocol that provides VPN functionality.

300
Q

VPN

A

Virtual Private Network - A private network that is configured within a public network such as the Internet.

301
Q

WAN

A

Wide Area Network - A network that sans multiple geographic locations, connecting multiple LANs using long-range transmission media.

302
Q

War Chalking

A

Using symbols to mark off a sidewalk or wall to indicate that there is an open wireless networking which may be offering Internet access.

303
Q

War Driving

A

The act of searching for instances of wireless LAN while in motion, using wireless tracking devices like mobile phones, smartphones, tablets, or laptops.

304
Q

Web Server

A

A server that displays web pages to clients.

305
Q

WEP

A

Wired Equivalency Protocol - A protocol that provides 64-bit, 128-bit, and 256-bit encryption using the RC4 algorithm for wireless communication that uses the 802.11a and 802.11b protocols.

306
Q

WHO

A

World Health Organization - A division of the United Nations that manages the authority of international public health.

307
Q

Wireless Security

A

Any method of securing you wireless LAN network to prevent unauthorized network access and network data theft while ensuring that authorized users can connect to the network.

308
Q

Worm

A

A piece of code that spreads fro one computer to another on its own, not by attaching itself to another file. Like a virus, a worm can corrupt or erase files on your hard drive.

309
Q

WTLS

A

Wireless Transport Layer Security - The security layer of a WAP and the wireless equivalent of TLS in wired networks.

310
Q

XML

A

eXtensible Markup Language - A widely adopted markup language used in many documents, websites, and web applications.

311
Q

Zombie

A

Unauthorized software introduced on multiple computers to manipulate the computers into mounting a DDoS attack. Also called a drone.

Comptia HIT 001 (8 decks)

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