COMPTIA CORE 1 Flashcards

1
Q

CPU SOCKETS
-LGA (who’s uses it?)
-PGA (who uses it?)

A

LGA- land grid array, used by Intel
PGA- pin grid array, used by AMD

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2
Q

Firmware

A

Software on a chip, “software for hardware”, that controls a device it is connected to
-BIOS/UEFI programs
-stored on a ROM chip (MB chip that
holds the firmware used for the boot process)

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3
Q

Trouble shooting methodology

A
  1. Identify problem (ask questions)
  2. Establish theory of cause
  3. Test theory to determine the cause
  4. Establish plan of action to resolve problem
  5. Verify full system functionality and add preventative measures if possible
  6. Document findings, actions and outcomes
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4
Q

Safety concerns

A

-Personal safety (eye protection
-Component safety (protect against ESD)
- electrical safety- power off and unplug systems you’re working on
-chemical safety (thermal paste, lithium batteries)

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5
Q

ESD

A

Electro-static discharge
-gathered and destroys components when discharged

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6
Q

MB (mother board) processing steps

A
  1. Input
  2. Processing
  3. Output
  4. Storage
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7
Q

ATX

A

Advanced technology extended
-MB form factor, full size

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8
Q

CPU connectors

A

4, 6, or 8 pin connectors
-some 8
-some 4+4

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9
Q

Main board/MB connectors

A

20-pin, 24-pin, or 20+4 pin
-24 and 20+4 are most common

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10
Q

PCIe power connectors/adapter ports

A

These cards can get power from PSU as well as the MB slots
-usually 8 or 6+2 pin connectors

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11
Q

SATA power connectors

A

Used to power optical or internal drives
-15-pins
-L-shaped connector

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12
Q

Molex connectors

A

Legacy connector
-used for PATA and old drives

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13
Q

Y connector

A

Can be used to connect multiple devices

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14
Q

US-based power supply

A

120V AC (low line power)

(Range is 110-120V)

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15
Q

Europe and Asia power supply

A

230V AC (high power line)
(Range is 220-240V)

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16
Q

Voltage sensing/dual voltage

A

Detects the outlet and converts it into the voltage of DC

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17
Q

Three voltage levels for PC systems

A

3.3V, 5V, and 12V
-all are DC current

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18
Q

Rail (current/power)

A

Wire that provides current at a particular level

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19
Q

Wattage is calculated by…

A

Amperage x voltage

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20
Q

HDDs

A

Hard disk drives
-storage

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21
Q

SSDs

A

Solid state drives
-storage

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22
Q

RAM

A

Random access memory
-memory, volatile but fast

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23
Q

Multi-channel memory

A

Can have single, dual, triple or quad channel memory modules
-this increases speed and performance for RAM/memory
-must use same model, speed and throughout for all modules in a system

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24
Q

ECC

A

Error correction code
-a feature on some memory modules that detects AND CORRECTS data errors
-must be ALL or NONE for these types of sticks in a single system

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25
Q

Virtual memory/page file

A

A OS allocated portion of a hard disk dedicated to memory
-can be used in a pinch, but is slower and less ideal than physical memory (RAM)

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26
Q

BIOS

A

Basic input/output system
-firmware that is used by PC to start system
-only suppers 32x CPUs
-no GUI

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27
Q

UEFI

A

Unified extensible firmware interface
-firmware, more advanced than BIOS
-can support 64x CPUs
-supports GPT partitioning
-has gui and more options

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28
Q

POST

A

Power on self-test
-first step of boot process
-verifies hardware and runs
diagnostics on hardware and BIOS
-can be configured to include beeps to alert things with the hardware/boot process

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29
Q

Flashing

A

Process of updating/replacing firmware, usually used through a file on a USB
-make sure to backup computer before flashing the ROM

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30
Q

Secure boot

A

A procedure during the boot process that ensures an OS being loaded can be trusted and isn’t infected with malware

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31
Q

Hardware RoT

A

Hardware root of trust
-foundation of all secure operations in a computing system
-cryptographic module embedded in PC system that endorses trust and attests to boots settings and metrics
-digital certificate embedded in ROM chip as part of the firmware
-examples: TPM and HSM

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32
Q

TPM (what three things do I need to know?)

A

Trusted platform module
-it’s a hardware RoT
-ensures secure boot up
-can also provide encryption for storage devices

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33
Q

HDD

A

Hard disc drive
-storage device/drive
-spins

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34
Q

SATA data cable

A

7 pins, L-shaped

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35
Q

RAID 0

A

-RAID 0- striping
○ 2 discs, each hold half of the data
○ No redundancy, faster

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36
Q

RAID 1

A
  • RAID 1- mirroring (fault tolerant, failure resistant)
    -Two discs as copies of each other, “mirrored”
    -Redundancy, all the data is on both discs
    -Less space total
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37
Q

RAID 5

A
  • RAID 5- redundancy through parity (fault tolerant, failure resistant)
    ○ Minimum of 3 discs, has one parity drive/disc
    ○ Creates parity memory, if one drive is lost it is still there
    ○ Redundancy while still having more space
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38
Q

RAID 6

A
  • RAID 6- striping with dual parity (fault tolerant)
    ○ Minimum of 4 discs
    ○ Has 2 parity drives/discs
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39
Q

RAID 10

A
  • RAID 10- striping and mirroring (disaster tolerant)
    ○ a mirrored sets of 2 striped discs
    ○ At least 4 discs
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40
Q

SSD/SSD cables

A

Solid state drive
-electronic chip, faster and more expensive than a hard drive

Cable types
-M.2
-mSATA (SSDs that use one cable for data and power)
-NVMe (used with M.2 SSD to plug directly into MB)
-SATA if it’s a SATA SSD

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41
Q

Hot swappable

A

Drives that can be disconnected and unplugged without turning off the computer
-USBs, thunderbolts, eSATA

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42
Q

AHCI

A

Advanced host controller interface
-allows SATA drives to be hot swapped if paired with eSATA cables
-allows for some advanced drive features

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43
Q

CD

A

Compact disc
-stores 650-700 MB

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44
Q

DVD

A

Digital versatile disc
-stores 4.7 or 8.4 GB (bigger is dual layer)

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45
Q

BD

A

Blu-ray Disc
-stores 25 or 50 GB (depends on if dual layer or not)

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46
Q

Virtualization

A

Running a VM (virtual machine) from a hyper visor (software used to install and launch VMs)
-type 1 hyper visor is a bare metal and run straight from hardware
-type 2 hyper visor is run from the host OS

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47
Q

Containers

A

Type of virtualization applied by host OS to make an isolated environment for an app to run, not a VM tho
-does not use hyper visor
-

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48
Q

Emulators

A

Software used to imitate a different system that is not compatible with the hardware installed on your PC

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49
Q

Virtual machine resource requirements

A

-CPU (needs virtualization feature capable processor I.e. VT-x for Intel and AMD-V for AMD)
-memory- more hardware memory the better/more that can be allocated for the VM
-storage- bigger drives mean more space for the VM to be stored, more storage for VM itself
-network- hypervisor will create a virtual network for the VMs to use, need better NICs for multiple guest VMs on one host

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50
Q

Capabilities of cloud computing

A

-high availability: measured in percentage
-they’re scalable, able to increase resources vertically or horizontally to accommodate level of usage
-rapid elasticity- ability of cloud platforms to quickly scale up or down according to usage
-uses metered utilization (vs measured which is paying for a base amount no matter how much you use)
-share resources- physical server resources can be divided and shared to multiple networks/users since it is remote
-file sync- file sharing due to files being stored on remote machines accessible over the cloud

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51
Q

NIC

A

Network interface card
-allows Ethernet connection to a device, can use PCIe x1 slot on MB

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52
Q

Switch

A

Network device that remembers what ports are being used and by which devices, directs Internet traffic to those ports
-connects devices in a local network, allowing them to communicate together

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53
Q

WAP

A

Wireless access point
-allows wireless connection to a wired network

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54
Q

VDI

A

Virtual desktop infrastructure
-cloud based virtual desktops
-hosted on remote servers
-can be offered as DaaS (desktop as a service)

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55
Q

SDN

A

Software defined network
-using software to manage networks
- Breaks down into 4 parts
1. Application layer
2. Control layer
3. Infrastructure layer
4. Management plane

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56
Q

Router

A

Network device that routes Internet traffic and connects networks to other networks

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57
Q

Firewall

A

Scans and blocks traffic trying to enter or leave a network

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58
Q

Patch panel

A

Has ports for RJ45 connections to connect to, patch panel itself connects to switch

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59
Q

Cable modem

A

Translates coaxial cable signals into radio frequency signals

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60
Q

DSL modem

A

Digital subscribe line
-translates coaxial cable signals into phone lines

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61
Q

Types of networks (5 main ones)

A

-PAN (personal area network)
-LAN (local area network)- 100 meters
-CAN (Campus area network)- several miles
-MAN (metro area network)- up to 25 miles
-WAN (Wide area network)- state, country, world

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62
Q

IoT
-what are the 4 kinds?

A

Internet of things
-devices that can connect to a network but will need a separate network
-smart devices, hvac, science equipment
Broken into 4 parts-
-hub and control
-smart devices
-wearables
-sensors

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63
Q

Twisted pair cables
1. Two different kinds
2. Two different connectors (what are they for)
3. What is bandwidth and throughput?

A

4 pairs of twisted copper wires
1. a. UTP (unshielded twisted pairs): plastic coating with no metal
1. b. STP (shielded twisted pairs): has metal coating
2. RJ45 (8-pins, for data networks) and RJ11 (6-pins, for phones networks)
3. Bandwidth is how much data COULD be transferred from a source. Throughout put is how much data is ACTUALLY transferred

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64
Q

Twisted pair categories (5 kinds w/ standard, speed and max length)

A

Cat 5
-100BASE-TX
-100Mbps
-10meters
Cat 5e
-1000BASE-T
-1000Mbps
-100meters
Cat 6
-1000BASE-T OR 10GBASE-T
-1000Mbps OR 10Gbps
-100meters OR 55meters
Cat 6a AND Cat 7
-10GBASE-T
-10Gbps
-100
Cat 8
-40GBASE-T
-40Gbps
-30 meters

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65
Q
  1. Straight though/patch cable
    vs
  2. cross-over cables
A
  1. Same pin outs on both ends of cable
  2. Swaps send and receive pins on opposite ends of the cable
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66
Q
  1. Plenum cable
    Vs
  2. Non-plenum cable
A
  1. Plenum has a coating that is fire-retardant, ALL COVERED CABLING NEEDS TO BE PLENUM (walls, ceilings, floors, hvac, etc)
  2. Non plenum has no fire-retardant coating
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67
Q

WiFi standards:
Standard band:
Standard bandwidth:

A

-802.11a
5 GHz
54 Mbps

-802.11b
2.4 GHz
11 Mbps

-802.11g
2.4 GHz
54 Mbps

-802.11n (WiFi 4)
2.4 and 5 GHz
150/600 Mbps (MIMO)

802.11ac (WiFi 5)
5 GHz
6.9 Gbps (MU-MIMO)

802.11ax (WiFi 6)
2.4, 5, and 6 GHz
9.6 Gbps (MU-MIMO)

68
Q

ACL

A

Access control list
-firewall feature that controls users rights and permissions
-allows or disallows traffic through certain interfaces
-can be placed on different network devices
-rules are enforced from the top down

69
Q

NFC

A

Near-field communication
-radio waves between devices to allow them to communicate, often for payments or authentication
-often for mobile devices

70
Q

TCP/IP

A

Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet protocol
-core protocols of the Internet

71
Q

Public IP vs Private IP address

A

Public (routable) IP addresses- can be accessed over the Internet and is assigned to the network by an ISP

Private (non-routable) IP addresses- are freely available, but only on a private network

72
Q

Private IP address ranges

A

-10.xx.xx.xx
-172.16-172.31
192.168

73
Q

APIPA addresses

A

Addresses auto assigned to machines when DHCP isn’t working
-169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255
-only local
-can’t get past the router, no internet

74
Q

4 things needed for an IP addressing, also assigned by the DHCP server

A
  1. IP address
  2. Subnet mask
  3. Default gateway (router)
  4. DNS/WINS server
75
Q

FQDN

A

Fully qualified domain name
-domain name under a top level provider
-contains “www” thing, domain name and top-level domain provider (.com, .org, etc)

76
Q

URL

A

Uniform resource locator
-contains FQDN (www.”website”.com) and method of accessing info (http://, https://,etc)

77
Q

VLAN

A

Virtual local area network
- different networks using the same hardware, has added security and efficiency
-allows different subnetwork addresses to be assigned to different ports on the same switch

78
Q

VPN

A

Virtual Private network
-encrypts your internet connection
-Internet traffic is routed through a connected tunnel so that other people can’t see your activity and information

3 types:
-Site-to-site
-client-to-site
-clientless
-browser

79
Q

Mobile display types
A. Two types of input recognition
B. Three types of displays
C. What are OLED screen susceptible to?

A

A. Capacitive touch, multi touch
B. LCD (liquid crystal display, has back light), LED (light emitting diode, led backlight), OLED (organic LED)
C. Burn in, permanent discoloration of an OLED screen from consistently the same image

80
Q

Embedded system

A

System within a machine designed for a specific function

81
Q

Digitizer

A

Component in mobile touch devices that detects touch (multi or capacitive). Lies under the layer of protective glass

82
Q

Mobile input types (2)

A
  1. Capacitive touch screen- only one touch at a time
  2. Multitouch
83
Q

Accelerometer

A

Component/software in mobile devices that measures the velocity, rotation and shaking of a mobile device. Detects only pitch (y) and roll (x)

84
Q

Gyroscope

A

Better than the accelerometer. Detects pitch (y), roll (x) and yaw (z) and measures the orientation of a mobile device

85
Q

3 main cloud storage providers

A

-Google Workspaces
-Microsoft 365
-iCloud

86
Q

Mobile data sync options

A

-cloud
-computer (cable to phone)
-automobile to phone

87
Q

EMM (enterprise mobility management)
What two kinds?

A

MDM (mobile device manager)- can control the devices themselves

MAM (mobile application manager)- can set restrictions or put requirements on devices for apps and permissions

88
Q

5 kinds of authentication

What is MFA?

A

-Knowledge factor- something you know
-possession factor- something you have
-Inherence factor- something you are
-behavior factor- something you do
-location factor- someWHERE you are

MFA is multi factor authentication and it involves using more than one of these types of authentication for one login/access

89
Q

Mobile device location services

A

-coarse positioning- old, not precise
-GPS (global positioning system)- satellites, radio based, more accurate
-IPS (indoor positioning system)- even more accurate

90
Q

2 different kinds of PDLs (page description language) and 2 main kinds of virtual printers (the management software not the device)

A

-PostScript and PCL

-PDF and XPS

91
Q

2 ways to share a printer

What is the print spooler?

A

-with a print server- let it manage and share out the printer over the network

-print share- shared directly from a workstation

Print spooler is the Windows service that queues print jobs and manages them

92
Q

4 ways to secure printing

A

-authentication
-audit logs
-secured print
-badging

93
Q

Bonjour

A

Apples zero-config network protocol
-automates some network protocols

94
Q

Laser printer components

A

○ Image drum- main component that creates the image to be applied to paper
○ Fuser assembly- heats up and melts the toner onto the page
○ Transfer belt- combines the 4 colors (CMYB) before transferring to the paper
*Transfer roller- applies electric charge to paper so it attracts the toner
○ Pickup rollers- pick up paper and feed it through the system
○ Paper separation pad- helps pickup rollers only pick up one paper at a time
○ Duplexing assembly- moves the paper from the front to the back, helps print on both sides
○ Toner cartridges- plastic housing that contains toner powder

95
Q

What to make sure to do before servicing any printer? (Two things)

A
  1. Make sure it is shut off and unplugged
  2. Make sure it has cooled down as some components may be hot
96
Q

Inkjet printer components

A

○ Ink cartridges hold all CMYB colors
○ Printhead- device that takes droplets of ink and directs them at the paper
○ Roller- responsible for moving the paper through the inkjet printer
○ Feeders- responsible for feeding one paper to the roller at a time
○ Duplexing assembly- allows inkjet printer to print on both sides of the printer
Carriage belt- moves the printhead back and forth across the page

97
Q

What is an inkjet printer?

A

Printer that uses ink cartridges that spray or shoot the ink in a pattern across the paper, louder and slower than a laser printer

98
Q

Laser printer

A

Printer that uses toner cartridges (with toner power that is heated up and melted on the page using ionization) and is quieter and faster than an inkjet printer

99
Q

Thermal printers

A

Like a receipt printer, lower quality images but can be higher and color with the right ribbons (thermal ribbon)

100
Q

Impact printer

A

Printer using rapid impact heads to make the design, like a transfer paper used to sign multiple copies at once (the same form with different layers of paper)

101
Q

Types of LCDs?

A

TN = twisted nemantic
IPS = in plane switching
VA = vertical alignment

102
Q

When repairing laptops, what is a good first step and and ESSENTIAL step?

A

Locate and note screw locations

103
Q

Different crash/catastrophic failure screens?

A

-Windows- BSoD (blue screen of death)
-macOS- pinwheel of death
-Linux- kernel panic

104
Q

With cooling issues with a machine what do you do…

A
  1. Check for heat with hand, carefully
  2. Make sure active/passive/liquid cooling is working properly
  3. Shut down the machine
  4. Boot to BIOS/UEFI
105
Q

Physical component integrity (cables, connectors, etc)

A

Don’t step on it, roll over it or abuse it. Be on lookout for burning or rancid smells

106
Q

Inaccurate/inconsistent PC time clock almost always means what?

A

That it’s time to replace the CMOS battery

107
Q

What is used to connect Cat 5e and above networks in and MDF or IDF?

A

110 punch down blocks

108
Q

What kind of IP address should be used in servers?

A

Static IP address

109
Q

Which channels should be configured in WAPs? And why?

A

1, 6, 11

To ensure no overlap between the channels being used

110
Q

Legacy system

A

System no longer supported by its vendor

111
Q

What’s the main cost effective type of coaxial cable connector?

112
Q

What coaxial cabling is best used for home TV/TV antennas/broadband (home stuff)?

113
Q

What coaxial cabling is best used for CCTV/analog video (usually enterprise stuff)?

114
Q

4 different sizes of PCIe slots on a MB

A

X1, x4, x8, x16

115
Q

PCL

A

Printer control language

-PDL that has faster outputs but has lower quality

116
Q

PostScript

A

-PDL that is slower to print but makes higher quality output

117
Q

Difference between IMAP and POP3

A

IMAP leaves emails on a server, allows reading and keeps the data on the server, even after the device downloads the email. POP3 has the emails sent to the device itself and then deletes the email from the server, and doesn’t allow multiple device sync.

118
Q

IPS (display)

A

Type of LCD display that has high color quality but lower refresh rates

119
Q

TN

A

Twisted nematic- LCD that has higher refresh rates but lower color quality

120
Q

VA (display)

A

Vertical alignment- LCD with good balance between refresh rate and color quality

121
Q

Hard drive form factors

A

1.8”, 2.5”, 3.5”

122
Q

If an LCD laptop screen is dimly lit, what is mostly likely the cause?

A

Problem with the “inverter”

123
Q

Inverter

A

Chip that is apart of an LCD screens assembly that supplies the correct AC power to the backlight which lights the screen

124
Q

MX record

A

DNS record for incoming (IMAP) and outgoing (SMTP) emails

125
Q

(T/F) you should NEVER attempt to fix anything that is wrong with a PSU

A

True.

PSUs should not be fixed by technicians, even if it’s just a faulty cooling fan. Just replace it

126
Q

What tool is used to test the power of a power circuit?

A

Multimeter

127
Q

How many volts are applied to the drum of a laser printer?

A

-600 volts

128
Q

What do you use/which code is used to fix the boot manager (BOOTMGR)?

A

The boot manager (BOOTMGR) needs to be repaired. Boot into recovery mode, go to command-line interface and type command “bootrec /fixmbr” for MBR partitions. For GPT partitions use the BCD command

129
Q

If a magnetic drive based system is taking a long time to boot, what is a good idea/first step to do?

A

Defragment hard drive in drive property tools. This only works for HDDs, and won’t help SSDs

130
Q

What three features does location services use in mobile devices?

A

GPS, WIFI, and cellular data

131
Q

What tool I used to test the wiring and continuity of network cables?

A

Cable tester

132
Q

SSID

A

Service set identifier
-name of a wireless network

133
Q

Maximum transmission distance for single-mode fiber cables?

134
Q

What is a crimping tool?

A

A tool used to connect Cat cables to connectors like RJ-45 and RJ-11

135
Q

What is a repeater?

A

A device used to extend or amplify a wireless signal to cover a larger area

136
Q

What cables are immune to EMI?

A

Fiber optic cables
-they transmit light instead of electricity

137
Q

What is a loopback plug?

A

A device that plugs into a network port to test the transmission and reception capabilities of a network card or port. Loops the signal back to itself

138
Q

Modular PSU

A

Can plug in and unplug the power cables that you need

139
Q

Metered billing

A

Metered- per usage

140
Q

Why are VMs good for testing things?

A

They are an isolated, separate environment and OS, so the problem/solution can be tested without harm to the hardware on the physical computer

141
Q

If a PC powers on but there is not POST/POST beeps and no display, what is the problem?

A

that likely means there is an issue with how the CPU and RAM is seated

142
Q

(T/F) The BIOS/UEFI can show power/temperature and fan settings?

143
Q

What does the “input not supported” error mean on a monitor?

A

The monitor is receiving display setting input (from the computer) that it cannot handle

144
Q

Black screen with blinking cursor means…

A

Boot sector issues. The CPU is not finding a bootable drive, either due to boot sector or BOOTMGR problems or boot order in bios

145
Q

If a computer is powered on and the fans are spinning but there’s no display or POST beeps/test, what is likely the issue?

A

Not enough wattage coming from the power supply

146
Q

What can happen with security updates in reference to the NIC?

A

It can update the driver, which will reduce the connection speed to 100 mbps. Should revert back to previous nic driver version

147
Q

USB, types and speeds

A

Universal Serial Bus
-type A (normal), B, C, mini and micro, SS micro (the weird double sided one)

Type A speeds/power
-1.1: 12 mbps/2.5W
-2.0: 480 mbps/2.5W
-3.0 and 3.1: 5 and 10 Gpbs/4.5W

148
Q

OLED

A

Organic light-emitting diode
-Deeper colors, thinner and lighter, no back light

149
Q

Voltages used by laser printers

A

-5 and +5 for the logic board

+24 for the motor power the rollers

150
Q

Analog video connectors

A

S-video, RCA, and VGA

151
Q

Digital video connectors

A

HDMI, DVI, display port

152
Q

Cellular tech that uses HSPA+ and EV-DO to achieve higher speeds compared to older cellular data protocols?

153
Q

ICS

A

-Industrial control systems
Used to control industrial plants and systems

154
Q

SCADA

A

Supervisory control and data acquisition
-system that monitors and controls industrial processes remotely

155
Q

If virtualization is installed, where do you enable it?

156
Q

What will a CDMA phone use when traveling?

A

PRL (preferred roaming list: list of providers when roaming) and PRI (preferred roaming index: provides several lines for data and voice for the best quality and service)

157
Q

If a computer reboots without warning, what are some things to try?

A
  1. Reseat CPU and RAM
  2. Check temperature settings (overheating)
  3. Test power supply
158
Q

Three steps to set up a thin-client

A
  1. Connect thin client computer to the network l
  2. Update everything (specifically security software and settings)
  3. Install/configure any apps need to access the VDI environment
159
Q

Keystone setting on projectors

A

THIS IS AN IMAGE DISTORTION
-Keystone effect is when the top of an image is wider or narrower than the rest, adjust this setting to fix this DISTORTION

160
Q

What will the screen look like if pins are broke off in a VGA connector?

A

The screen will either be discolored or not display at all

161
Q

What metrics should be considered to compare SSD and HDD performance?

A

IOPS (input/output operations per second)

162
Q

Proxy server

A

Server that receives and forwards Internet traffic between a client and the desired Internet destination

163
Q

BSOD

A

Blue screen of death
-Windows stop error, it will provide a “stop code” that can be used to research why the crash occurred

164
Q

DKIM

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail
-for providing secure authentication for emails
-provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism for sending email
-NOT for encrypting emails themselves.

165
Q

(T/F) You can apply a SMALL amount of oil to the ball bearings of cooling fans to reduce the noise they make?

166
Q

UTM

A

Unified threat management
-combines the work of a firewall, malware scanner, and intrusion detection/prevention