CompTIA A+ Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of memory is typically used for cache?
- a) DRAM
- b) SRAM
- c) VRAM
- d) Flash memory

A

b) SRAM

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2
Q

What is the purpose of a motherboard’s chipset?
- a) To store the operating system
- b) To connect the CPU to other components
- c) To provide power to the CPU
- d) To cool the CPU

A

b) To connect the CPU to other components

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3
Q

Which type of RAM is used in laptops due to its smaller size?
- a) DIMM
- b) RIMM
- c) SIMM
- d) SO-DIMM

A

d) SO-DIMM

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4
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0?
- a) 480 Mbps
- b) 5 Gbps
- c) 10 Gbps
- d) 20 Gbps

A

b) 5 Gbps

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5
Q

Which type of connector is commonly used for analog video output?
- a) HDMI
- b) DisplayPort
- c) VGA
- d) DVI

A

c) VGA

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6
Q

What is the function of a power supply unit (PSU) in a computer?
- a) To provide network connectivity
- b) To supply electrical power to the components
- c) To cool the CPU
- d) To store data

A

b) To supply electrical power to the components

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7
Q

Which of the following is an example of non-volatile memory?
- a) RAM
- b) Cache
- c) ROM
- d) Register

A

c) ROM

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8
Q

Which type of storage uses magnetic disks to store data?
- a) SSD
- b) HDD
- c) USB flash drive
- d) Optical disk

A

b) HDD

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9
Q

Which port is typically used to connect a printer to a computer?
- a) VGA
- b) HDMI
- c) USB
- d) RJ45

A

c) USB

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10
Q

Which tool can be used to test the functionality of a power supply?
- a) Multimeter
- b) POST card
- c) Cable tester
- d) Loopback plug

A

a) Multimeter

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11
Q

What is the primary function of a switch in a network?
- a) Route data between different networks
- b) Provide IP addresses to devices
- c) Connect multiple devices within the same network
- d) Store and manage files

A

c) Connect multiple devices within the same network

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12
Q

Which protocol is used to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses?
- a) DHCP
- b) DNS
- c) ARP
- d) FTP

A

c) ARP

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13
Q

What is the default port number for HTTP?
- a) 20
- b) 21
- c) 80
- d) 443

A

c) 80

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14
Q

Which type of network cable uses light to transmit data?
- a) Twisted pair
- b) Coaxial
- c) Fiber optic
- d) Serial

A

c) Fiber optic

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15
Q

What is the primary purpose of DHCP in a network?
- a) To resolve domain names to IP addresses
- b) To dynamically assign IP addresses to devices
- c) To provide secure remote access
- d) To manage file sharing

A

b) To dynamically assign IP addresses to devices

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16
Q

Which wireless standard operates at 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies?
- a) 802.11a
- b) 802.11b
- c) 802.11g
- d) 802.11n

A

d) 802.11n

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17
Q

What is the function of a firewall in a network?
- a) To filter and block unauthorized access
- b) To provide IP addresses to devices
- c) To store and manage files
- d) To connect multiple devices within the same network

A

a) To filter and block unauthorized access

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18
Q

Which device connects multiple networks and directs data packets between them?
- a) Switch
- b) Router
- c) Hub
- d) Bridge

A

b) Router

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19
Q

Which IP address class allows for the largest number of individual host addresses?
- a) Class A
- b) Class B
- c) Class C
- d) Class D

A

a) Class A

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20
Q

What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation)?
- a) To translate domain names to IP addresses
- b) To secure data transmission over the internet
- c) To convert private IP addresses to public IP addresses
- d) To route data packets within a local network

A

c) To convert private IP addresses to public IP addresses

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21
Q

Which component in a mobile device is responsible for detecting its orientation?
- a) Gyroscope
- b) Accelerometer
- c) Magnetometer
- d) Proximity sensor

A

b) Accelerometer

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22
Q

Which operating system is primarily used on Apple mobile devices?
- a) Android
- b) iOS
- c) Windows Mobile
- d) BlackBerry OS

A

b) iOS

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23
Q

What type of display technology is commonly used in modern smartphones?
- a) CRT
- b) LCD
- c) OLED
- d) Plasma

A

c) OLED

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24
Q

Which feature allows a smartphone to make contactless payments?
- a) Wi-Fi
- b) Bluetooth
- c) NFC
- d) GPS

A

c) NFC

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25
Q

What is the purpose of a VPN on a mobile device?
- a) To increase battery life
- b) To enhance data transmission speed
- c) To secure data transmission over public networks
- d) To store backup data

A

c) To secure data transmission over public networks

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26
Q

Which type of mobile device connectivity allows for high-speed internet access on the go?
- a) Wi-Fi
- b) Bluetooth
- c) Cellular
- d) NFC

A

c) Cellular

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27
Q

What is the purpose of a SIM card in a mobile device?
- a) To store applications
- b) To connect to Wi-Fi networks
- c) To identify the subscriber to the mobile network
- d) To increase storage capacity

A

c) To identify the subscriber to the mobile network

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28
Q

Which wireless technology is commonly used for short-range communication between devices?
- a) Wi-Fi
- b) Bluetooth
- c) Cellular
- d) GPS

A

b) Bluetooth

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29
Q

What is the purpose of the IMEI number on a mobile device?
- a) To identify the device on a mobile network
- b) To store user data
- c) To enable Wi-Fi connectivity
- d) To provide GPS location

A

a) To identify the device on a mobile network

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30
Q

Which mobile device feature allows for wireless charging?
- a) NFC
- b) Bluetooth
- c) Inductive charging
- d) Wi-Fi

A

c) Inductive charging

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31
Q

What is the first step in the troubleshooting process?
- a) Establish a theory of probable cause
- b) Identify the problem
- c) Test the theory to determine cause
- d) Document findings, actions, and outcomes

A

b) Identify the problem

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32
Q

Which tool can be used to test the integrity of network cables?
- a) Multimeter
- b) POST card
- c) Cable tester
- d) Loopback plug

A

c) Cable tester

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33
Q

What is a common symptom of a failing hard drive?
- a) Slow performance
- b) Blue screen errors
- c) Unusual noises
- d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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34
Q

Which utility can be used to check the health of a hard drive in Windows?
- a) Disk Cleanup
- b) Task Manager
- c) Disk Management
- d) chkdsk

A

d) chkdsk

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35
Q

What should you do if a computer does not power on when the power button is pressed?
- a) Check the power supply connection
- b) Replace the motherboard
- c) Reinstall the operating system
- d) Reset the BIOS

A

a) Check the power supply connection

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36
Q

What is the purpose of safe mode in Windows?
- a) To perform regular tasks with enhanced performance
- b) To access the internet safely
- c) To troubleshoot and fix system issues with minimal drivers and services
- d) To secure data from unauthorized access

A

c) To troubleshoot and fix system issues with minimal drivers and services

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37
Q

Which component is likely failing if a computer displays the “blue screen of death” (BSOD)?
- a) RAM
- b) CPU
- c) Hard drive
- d) Any of the above

A

d) Any of the above

38
Q

What is the purpose of a POST (Power-On Self-Test)?
- a) To check for software updates
- b) To test the computer’s hardware components
- c) To clean the operating system
- d) To optimize system performance

A

b) To test the computer’s hardware components

39
Q

What should you check if a laptop’s display is flickering?
- a) The graphics driver
- b) The display cable connection
- c) The power settings
- d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

40
Q

Which tool can help determine if a network issue is caused by a faulty network interface card (NIC)?
- a) Cable tester
- b) Loopback plug
- c) Multimeter
- d) POST card

A

b) Loopback plug

41
Q

What is the primary benefit of virtualization?
- a) Enhanced physical security
- b) Reduced hardware costs
- c) Faster internet speeds
- d) Improved graphical performance

A

b) Reduced hardware costs

42
Q

Which type of cloud service provides virtual machines and other resources over the internet?
- a) SaaS
- b) PaaS
- c) IaaS
- d) DaaS

43
Q

What is the purpose of a hypervisor?
- a) To provide network connectivity
- b) To manage virtual machines
- c) To store data securely
- d) To perform system backups

A

b) To manage virtual machines

44
Q

Which cloud service model delivers software applications over the internet?
- a) SaaS
- b) PaaS
- c) IaaS
- d) DaaS

45
Q

What is a characteristic of public cloud services?
- a) Owned and operated by the user
- b) Accessible only within a private network
- c) Shared resources among multiple users
- d) Higher level of control over the infrastructure

A

c) Shared resources among multiple users

46
Q

Which type of virtualization allows for running multiple operating systems on a single hardware platform?
- a) Server virtualization
- b) Network virtualization
- c) Storage virtualization
- d) Desktop virtualization

A

a) Server virtualization

47
Q

What is the primary function of a virtual private network (VPN)?
- a) To enhance internet speed
- b) To secure data transmission over public networks
- c) To provide cloud storage
- d) To create virtual machines

A

b) To secure data transmission over public networks

48
Q

Which cloud deployment model offers a combination of private and public cloud resources?
- a) Private cloud
- b) Public cloud
- c) Hybrid cloud
- d) Community cloud

A

c) Hybrid cloud

49
Q

What is a benefit of using cloud storage services?
- a) Higher latency
- b) Increased control over physical hardware
- c) Scalability and accessibility
- d) Reduced need for internet access

A

c) Scalability and accessibility

50
Q

Which tool can be used to manage multiple virtual machines on a single host?
- a) VPN
- b) Hypervisor
- c) Firewall
- d) Router

A

b) Hypervisor

51
Q

What is the purpose of a standard operating procedure (SOP)?
- a) To increase productivity
- b) To document routine tasks and processes
- c) To train new employees
- d) To manage network devices

A

b) To document routine tasks and processes

52
Q

Which type of documentation should be used to track changes to a system?
- a) Incident report
- b) Change log
- c) User manual
- d) Asset inventory

A

b) Change log

53
Q

What is the primary purpose of a service level agreement (SLA)?
- a) To define the scope of IT services
- b) To outline the responsibilities of the IT team
- c) To specify the expected level of service and performance
- d) To provide training for IT staff

A

c) To specify the expected level of service and performance

54
Q

Which best practice involves protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access?
- a) Asset management
- b) Data encryption
- c) System optimization
- d) Incident response

A

b) Data encryption

55
Q

What is the purpose of an incident report?
- a) To document routine maintenance tasks
- b) To track changes to a system
- c) To provide a detailed account of an unexpected event
- d) To outline the responsibilities of the IT team

A

c) To provide a detailed account of an unexpected event

56
Q

Which type of backup involves copying all files and data since the last full backup?
- a) Full backup
- b) Differential backup
- c) Incremental backup
- d) Snapshot

A

b) Differential backup

57
Q

What is the purpose of a knowledge base in an IT environment?
- a) To provide training materials for new employees
- b) To document common issues and solutions
- c) To manage network devices
- d) To monitor system performance

A

b) To document common issues and solutions

58
Q

Which tool can be used to monitor the performance of a network?
- a) Firewall
- b) Router
- c) Network analyzer
- d) VPN

A

c) Network analyzer

59
Q

What is the purpose of asset management in an IT environment?
- a) To increase productivity
- b) To document routine tasks and processes
- c) To track and manage IT assets
- d) To provide training for IT staff

A

c) To track and manage IT assets

60
Q

Which best practice involves creating a copy of data to prevent data loss?
- a) Data encryption
- b) Backup
- c) Change management
- d) Incident response

61
Q

What is the primary purpose of an antivirus program?
- a) To increase system performance
- b) To protect against malware
- c) To manage network connections
- d) To perform system backups

A

b) To protect against malware

62
Q

Which type of attack involves sending fraudulent emails to trick users into revealing personal information?
- a) Phishing
- b) DDoS
- c) Man-in-the-middle
- d) SQL injection

A

a) Phishing

63
Q

What is the purpose of a firewall in a network security context?
- a) To enhance internet speed
- b) To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic
- c) To provide cloud storage
- d) To create virtual machines

A

b) To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic

64
Q

Which type of encryption is commonly used to secure data transmitted over wireless networks?
- a) WEP
- b) WPA2
- c) DES
- d) AES

65
Q

What is the purpose of two-factor authentication (2FA)?
- a) To increase system performance
- b) To require two forms of identification for access
- c) To provide secure file storage
- d) To monitor network traffic

A

b) To require two forms of identification for access

66
Q

Which type of attack involves overwhelming a system with traffic to make it unavailable to users?
- a) Phishing
- b) DDoS
- c) Man-in-the-middle
- d) SQL injection

67
Q

What is the purpose of a digital certificate?
- a) To encrypt data
- b) To verify the identity of a website or user
- c) To manage network connections
- d) To perform system backups

A

b) To verify the identity of a website or user

68
Q

Which security measure can protect data on a lost or stolen mobile device?
- a) VPN
- b) Firewall
- c) Remote wipe
- d) Antivirus

A

c) Remote wipe

69
Q

What is the purpose of encryption?
- a) To increase system performance
- b) To convert data into a secure format
- c) To manage network connections
- d) To perform system backups

A

b) To convert data into a secure format

70
Q

Which type of malware encrypts a user’s files and demands payment for the decryption key?
- a) Virus
- b) Worm
- c) Trojan
- d) Ransomware

A

d) Ransomware

71
Q

What is an important aspect of effective communication in IT support?
- a) Using technical jargon
- b) Speaking quickly
- c) Listening actively
- d) Avoiding eye contact

A

c) Listening actively

72
Q

Which type of communication is most appropriate for documenting troubleshooting steps?
- a) Verbal communication
- b) Written communication
- c) Nonverbal communication
- d) Visual communication

A

b) Written communication

73
Q

What is the purpose of an escalation procedure in IT support?
- a) To handle high-priority issues
- b) To perform routine maintenance
- c) To increase system performance
- d) To secure data from unauthorized access

A

a) To handle high-priority issues

74
Q

Which quality is essential for IT support professionals when dealing with frustrated users?
- a) Patience
- b) Technical knowledge
- c) Speed
- d) Assertiveness

A

a) Patience

75
Q

What is the purpose of a user manual?
- a) To document changes to a system
- b) To provide instructions on how to use a product or service
- c) To track IT assets
- d) To manage network devices

A

b) To provide instructions on how to use a product or service

76
Q

Which skill is important for IT support professionals when explaining technical issues to non-technical users?
- a) Technical jargon
- b) Time management
- c) Problem-solving
- d) Simplifying complex concepts

A

d) Simplifying complex concepts

77
Q

What is the purpose of a feedback loop in IT support?
- a) To document troubleshooting steps
- b) To track changes to a system
- c) To gather user feedback for continuous improvement
- d) To manage IT assets

A

c) To gather user feedback for continuous improvement

78
Q

Which practice involves providing clear and concise updates to users during the troubleshooting process?
- a) Incident response
- b) Active listening
- c) Effective communication
- d) Time management

A

c) Effective communication

79
Q

What is the importance of documenting IT support activities?
- a) To provide training materials for new employees
- b) To track and resolve issues efficiently
- c) To manage network connections
- d) To monitor system performance

A

b) To track and resolve issues efficiently

80
Q

Which quality helps IT support professionals build trust with users?
- a) Technical knowledge
- b) Assertiveness
- c) Empathy
- d) Speed

A

c) Empathy

81
Q

Which tool would you use to test the integrity of a network cable?
- a) Multimeter
- b) Cable tester
- c) Tone generator
- d) Crimper

A

b) Cable tester

82
Q

What is the first step in troubleshooting a non-booting computer?
- a) Check the power supply
- b) Replace the motherboard
- c) Reinstall the operating system
- d) Test the RAM

A

a) Check the power supply connection

83
Q

Which of the following symptoms indicates a failing hard drive?
- a) Flickering monitor
- b) Frequent blue screen errors
- c) Slow internet speed
- d) Unresponsive keyboard

A

b) Frequent blue screen errors

84
Q

What is the purpose of a POST card in hardware troubleshooting?
- a) To test the network connectivity
- b) To diagnose boot process errors
- c) To measure power supply voltages
- d) To check for software issues

A

b) To diagnose boot process errors

85
Q

Which command-line tool can be used to release and renew an IP address in Windows?
- a) ipconfig
- b) netstat
- c) ping
- d) tracert

A

a) ipconfig

86
Q

What should you check if a laptop’s display is extremely dim?
- a) Screen resolution settings
- b) Power cable connection
- c) Brightness settings or inverter
- d) Network settings

A

c) Brightness settings or inverter

87
Q

Which RAID level provides redundancy and improved performance but requires at least four disks?
- a) RAID 0
- b) RAID 1
- c) RAID 5
- d) RAID 10

A

d) RAID 10

88
Q

What is the purpose of the Safe Mode boot option in Windows?
- a) To enhance system performance
- b) To troubleshoot and fix software issues
- c) To update the operating system
- d) To install new hardware

A

b) To troubleshoot and fix software issues

89
Q

What does the acronym UPS stand for in the context of computer hardware?
- a) Universal Power Supply
- b) Uninterruptible Power Supply
- c) Unified Power System
- d) User Power Supply

A

b) Uninterruptible Power Supply

90
Q

Which component is most likely to cause a computer to shut down unexpectedly due to overheating?
- a) Hard drive
- b) CPU
- c) RAM
- d) Network card