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Comptia A+ Cert > Comptia A+ Intermediate > Flashcards

Comptia A+ Intermediate Flashcards

1
Q

What type of disk drive uses an 80-wire ribbon cable?

A

Slower PATA drives (33 MBps and slower) can get by with a 40-pin ribbon cable. Drives that go 66 MBps or faster require an 80-wire cable. The following table shows the types of PATA drives you might see in the field.

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2
Q

What’s the difference between SATA and eSATA?

A

External SATA (eSATA) extends the SATA bus to external devices, as the name implies. The eSATA drives use similar connectors to internal SATA, but they’re keyed differently so you can’t mistake one for the other.

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3
Q

What is the main problem with PATA ribbon cables?

A

They impede the airflow inside the PC case.

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4
Q

When were ATA drives introduced?

A

While ATA drives have been around since the beginning of the PC, they’ve advanced a lot since the early days.

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5
Q

What is a host adapter in relation to SCSI drives?

A

The SCSI host adapter provides the interface between the SCSI chain and the PC.

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6
Q

What are 2 other names for an ATA drive?

A

Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE)

Enhanced IDE (IDE)

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7
Q

What is a SATA drive?

A

Serial ATA (SATA) is the newer ATA drive standard.

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8
Q

What is the main improvement of SATA over PATA drives?

A

The big news, however, is in data throughput. .. A SATA device’s single stream of data moves much faster than the multiple streams of data coming from a PATA device—theoretically up to 30 times faster.

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9
Q

How many devices can be on a SCSI chain?

A

up to 15 devices to one host adapter.

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10
Q

What is the SCSI termination rule?

A

The rule with SCSI is that you must terminate only the ends of the SCSI chain. You have to terminate the ends of the cable, which usually means that you need to terminate the two devices at the ends of the cable. Do not terminate devices that are not on the ends of the cable.

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11
Q

What is this photo depicting?

A

Master/slave jumpers on a hard drive on a PATA hard drive.

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12
Q

How does Cable Select work?

A

Many current PATA hard drives use a jumper setting called cable select, rather than master or slave. As the name implies, the position on the cable determines which drive will be master or slave: master on the end, slave in the middle. For cable select to work properly with two drives, both drives must be set as cable select and the cable itself must be a special cable-select cable. If you see a ribbon cable with a pinhole through one wire, watch out! That’s a cable-select cable.

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13
Q

When choosing a drive for your system what are the three types of drives that you may encounter?

A

SCSI

PATA

SATA

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14
Q

What type of drive has the master/slave concept for drive pairs?

A

PATA

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15
Q

How many SATA drives can be plugged in to each SATA controller?

A

One.

SATA supports only a single device per controller channel. Simply connect the power and plug in the controller cable; the OS automatically detects the drive and it’s ready to go.

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16
Q

What could happen if you incorrectly connect a SCSI cable?

A

You can reverse a PATA cable, for example, and nothing happens except the drive doesn’t work. If you reverse a SCSI cable, however, you can seriously damage the drive. Just as with PATA cables, Pin 1 on the SCSI data cable must go to Pin 1 on both the drive and the host adapter.

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17
Q

When would you need to set a drive as a slave?

A

PATA drives. If you have only one hard drive, set the drive’s jumpers to master or standalone. If you have two drives, set one to master and the other to slave.

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18
Q

What type of partition can do spanning?

A

Dynamic Disk

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19
Q

What kind of volume goes across more than one drive?

A

Spanning Volume

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20
Q

How many partitions does basic disk support?

A

4

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21
Q

What special setting in the partition table is used to determine which OS to boot from?

A

Active

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22
Q

Where is the the master boot record (MBR) and partition table stored on the partition?

A

Boot Sector

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23
Q

What is the identifier that Windows uses to identify different partitions?

A

Drive Letter

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24
Q

After you create an extended partition what musts you create in it to assaign drive letter?

A

Logical Drives

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25
Q

What does Microsoft call a hard drive that uses the MBR partitioning scheme?

A

Basic Disk

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26
Q

What does Microsoft call a hard drive that uses the dynamic storage partitioning scheme?

A

Dynamic Disk

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27
Q

What is a logical drive called when you assign it as a directory?

A

Mounted Volume

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28
Q

What type of partitions are designed to support bootable operating systems?

A

Primary Partitions

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29
Q

What feature in NTFS can you enable on folders and files that will compress them? What is the downside?

A

Compression

Access time of the data is slower

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30
Q

What feature in NTFS allows you to limit the amount of data users can use?

A

Disk Quota

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31
Q

What feature in NTFS allows you to encript files and folders

A

Encrypting File System (EFS)

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32
Q

What file system is support by all Windows OS’s?

A

FAT

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33
Q

What’s the largest disk partition FAT can create?

A

2.1 GB

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34
Q

What’s the largest disk partition FAT32 can use?

A

2 TB

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35
Q

Using the FORMAT command, how would you create an NTFS file system for a D: drive?

A

format d: /fs:ntfs

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36
Q

What are the 3 ways to create a file system in Windows?

A

DOS Command Line

My Computer

Disk Management

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37
Q

Hard drive maintenance can be broken down into what 2 distinct functions?

A

checking the disk occasionally for failed clusters

keeping data organized so that it can be accessed quickly

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38
Q

What are the names of the 2 tools used to check for bad hard drive clusters?

A

ScanDisk

CHKDSK

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39
Q

What is Windows’ term for a hard drive cluster?

A

Allocation Unit

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40
Q

What function in BIOS will not allow your system to see a hard drive unless it was installed correctly?

A

Auto-detection

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41
Q

What are two ways you should check for hard drive connectivity errors?

A

Inspecting the entire connection system (including electricity) and find any sily mistakes

Remove and reseat the controller (if it’s on an expansion card) if you get an HDD controller failure

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42
Q

What do you need to do to a hard drive to make it able to hold data? Failing to do this would cause a “drive not accessible” error.

A

Format it

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43
Q

What are the 2 catargories of partitioning failure?

A

Failing to partition at all

Making the wrong size or type of partition

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44
Q

Which RAID level does not provide data redundancy?

A

RAID 0—Disk Striping: Disk striping requires at least two drives. It does not provide redundancy to data. If any one drive fails, all data is lost.

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45
Q

To set up software RAID in Windows what utility do you use?

A

Disk Management.

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46
Q

Which RAID level uses Disk Mirroring?

A

RAID 1—Disk Mirroring/Duplexing: RAID 1 arrays require at least two hard drives, although they also work with any even number of drives. RAID 1 is the ultimate in safety, but you lose storage space since the data is duplicated—you need two 100-GB drives to store 100 GB of data.

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47
Q

Which RAID level uses Disk Striping to replicate data?

A

RAID 5—Disk Striping with Distributed Parity: Instead of dedicated data and parity drives, RAID 5 distributes data and parity information evenly across all drives.

Note that if you see an exam question about something called striping with parity, you should assume the question is asking about RAID 5.

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48
Q

What does JBOD stand for?

A

In your studies and your work as a PC tech, you’ll probably come across the term JBOD, which stands for just a bunch of disks (or drives). This describes any storage system made up of multiple independent disks, rather than disks organized using RAID.

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49
Q

What are the two ways to implement RAID?

A

All RAID implementations break down into either hardware or software methods.

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50
Q

What is the advantage of a software implementation of RAID?

A

Software is often used when price takes priority over performance.

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51
Q

What is the advantage of harware implementation of RAID?

A

Hardware is used when you need speed along with data redundancy.

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52
Q

What is the Windows command line tool for disk error-checking?

A

You’ll use tools that are generically called error-checking utilities, although the terms for two older Microsoft tools—ScanDisk and CHKDSK (pronounced checkdisk)—are the most popular. Microsoft calls the tool Error-Checking in Windows XP and Vista.

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53
Q

Why is it important to regularly defragment disks?

A

Fragmentation of clusters can make your drive access times increase dramatically.

(or to put it another way, you systems slows down)

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54
Q

What does the Disk Cleanup tool do?

A

It finds and deletes trash files that are serving no purpose.

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55
Q

What is the main thing that disk Error Checking tools do?

A

Whatever the name of the utility, each does the same job: When the tool finds bad clusters, it puts the electronic equivalent of orange cones around them so that the system won’t try to place data in those bad clusters.

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56
Q

How often should you run Error checking on disk drives?

A

A reasonable maintenance plan would include running it about once a week. Error-Checking is fast (unless you use the Scan for and attempt recovery option), and it’s a great tool for keeping your system in top shape.

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57
Q

How often should you run disk defragmentation on disk drives?

A

It’s a good idea to defragment—or defrag—your drives as part of your monthly maintenance.

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58
Q

Installing a drive and getting to the point at which it can hold data requires what 4 steps?

A

Connectivity

CMOS

Partitioning

Formatting

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59
Q

What do ATA drives do to compensate for hard drive sectors going bad?

A

They automatically replace the bad sectors with hidden sectors

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60
Q

If error checking fails to more important system files Windows needs to load, how will you find those system files?

A

Get the file from a CAB file.

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61
Q

What command should you use to look for a particular system file in a CAB file?

A

EXPAND

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62
Q

What should you do if a hard drive dies and it’s not very old?

A

Look up the warranty and she if you can get a free replacement.

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63
Q

What file type would you save a perfect copy if a CD as?

A

ISO file

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64
Q

What can cause the biggest problems with obtical drives?

A

New Installations

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65
Q

What are the 2 most common connectors of optical drives and what are the 2 less common connectors?

A

PATA and SATA

SCSI and USB

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66
Q

What are the 2 capacities for CD’s?

A

650 MB and 700 MB

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67
Q

What is the most common way to clean a CD disk?

A

Clean it with a damp rag.

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68
Q

What is the definition of removable media?

A

The term removable media refers to any type of mass storage device that you can use in one system and then physically remove and use in another.

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69
Q

What’s the difference between a single-layer DVD and double-layer DVD?

A

Single-layer means there is only 1 layer of data on the DVD. Double-layer means there are 2 layers of data on the DVD.

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70
Q

What are the two drive letters reserved for floppy drives in Windows?

A

A:\ and B:\

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71
Q

What is the capacity of a modern floppy disk?

A

The current floppy disks are 3.5 inches wide and store 1.44 MB.

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72
Q

What are the three steps of installing a floppy drive?

A
  1. Ribbon cable. pin 1 to pin 1.
  2. Power connector. Get it wrong and burn the house down.
  3. CMOS. Usually already set up for 3.5/1.44
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73
Q

Is it possible to run standard HDD Error checking on a floppy disk?

A

Yes. You can run Error-Checking on floppy disks, just as you would on a hard drive.

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74
Q

What is a CF flash card?

A

Memory cards come in a number of different incompatible formats, such as CompactFlash (CF), Secure Digital (SD), and Extreme Digital (xD) Picture Card.

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75
Q

Does it hurt anything to mess with the metal contacts on flash cards?

A

Of course it does.

Aside from keeping the media clean, there’s not much to do with flash media. Don’t send it through the wash in your jeans (I’ve done this more than once), and don’t touch the contacts on flash memory cards with your fingers.

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76
Q

What are the two types of flash memory?

A

Flash memory comes in two different families: USB thumb drives and memory cards.

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77
Q

What’s the difference between a thumb drive and a jump drive?

A

No difference..

USB flash memory drive, also known as the USB thumb drive, jump drive, or flash drive.

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78
Q

What’s the capacity of a single-layer single-sided DVD disk?

A

4.7 GB

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79
Q

What’s the capacity of a doule-layer single-sided DVD disk?

A

9.4 GB

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80
Q

What’s the capacity of a dual-layer single-sided DVD disk?

A

8.5 GB

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81
Q

What’s the capacity of a dual-layer double-sided DVD disk?

A

17.1 GB

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82
Q

How much data does FireWire transfer per second? What’s special about the transfer of data?

A

400 Mbps

Sustained data transfer

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83
Q

How much data does Hi-Speed USB transfer per second? What’s special about the transfer of data?

A

480 Mbps

Burst data transfer

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84
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of doing a “clean install” vs an “upgrade install”?

A

The advantage to doing a clean installation is that you don’t carry problems from the old OS over to the new one, but the disadvantage is that all applications have to be reinstalled and the desktop and each application reconfigured to the user’s preferences.

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85
Q

What do you have to configure in order to do a clean OS installation?

A

You perform a clean install by resetting your CMOS to tell the system to boot from the optical drive before your hard drive.

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86
Q

What is the Windows Logo’d Products List?

A

This list is the definitive authority as to whether your component is compatible with the OS. Every component listed on the Windows Logo’d Products List has been extensively tested to verify it works with Windows XP through Windows 7 and is guaranteed by Microsoft to work with your installation.

Formerly known as the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL).

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87
Q

What is an “image installation”?

A

An image installation is a complete copy of a hard disk volume on which an OS and, usually, all required application software has been preinstalled.

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88
Q

What are locale settings on an OS?

A

The locale settings determine how date and time information is displayed and which math separators and currency symbols are used for various locations.

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89
Q

What is a multi-boot OS installation?

A

Both Windows 2000 and Windows XP can install in a separate folder from your existing copy of Windows. Then every time your computer boots, you’ll get a menu asking you which version of Windows you wish to boot.

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90
Q

What is “RIS” in relation to OS installation?

A

Beginning with Windows 2000 Server, Microsoft added Remote Installation Services (RIS), which can be used to initiate either a scripted installation or an installation of an image.

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91
Q

What is a Windows “stand alone” installation?

A

One role, called stand-alone, is actually a non-network role, and it simply means that the computer doesn’t participate on a network.

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92
Q

What does EULA stand for?

A

One of the first things you will do in any Windows install is read through the End User License Agreement (EULA), which you must accept for the setup to continue.

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93
Q

What is the difference between Registration and Activation?

A

Registration is supplying personal information to Microsoft and is completely optional. Activation is the process of licensing the OS for use.

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94
Q

When something is wrong with the OS, what does Microsoft send out to every computer with the Windows OS on it to fix the problem?

A

Patch

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95
Q

What does windows require the user to enter when setting up a new computer to autenticate the Windows OS?

A

Product key

96
Q

When there are many things that go wrong with the Windows OS, what does Microsoft send to every computer with the Windows OS on it to fix all those issues?

A

Service Pack

97
Q

What is the it called when Microsoft sends important data to a computer with Windows on it?

A

Update

98
Q

What is it called when the install of Windows has an issue?

A

Installation problem

99
Q

What log file tracks the complete installation process, logging the success or failure of file copying, Registry updates, reboots, and so on?

A

SETUPLOG.TXT

100
Q

What log file tracks each piece of hardware as it is installed?

A

SETUPAPI.LOG

101
Q

What type of files keep track of the progress of certain processes?

A

Log file (.log)

102
Q

What tool allows you to take a snapshot of critical files and settings and be able to return to that?

A

System Restore

103
Q

What applet in control panel contains almost all the snap-ins?

A

Administrative Tools

104
Q

What are the programs called that are in the control panel?

A

Applets

105
Q

How do you go to computer management in Windows XP, Vista and 7?

A

Open start > right click computer > click manage

106
Q

What tool in windows allows you to look at what happened with you computer like who attempted to login?

A

Event Viewer

107
Q

What tool can be used to transfer files and settings from an old computer computer to a new one?

A

Files and Settings Transfer Wizard

108
Q

What shell program in Windows is used to place utilities called snap-ins?

A

Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

109
Q

What utility in Windows allows you to schedule the start and stop any program any time?

A

Scheduled Tasks

110
Q

What applet lets you control the security for the computer?

A

Security Center

111
Q

What is a program called that runs in the background?

A

Service

112
Q

What applet allows you to see all the services that are running?

A

Services applet

113
Q

What applet in Windows gives you hardware and software information

A

System Information

114
Q

What tool in Windows allows you to access commonly used tools like Disk Defragment and System Information?

A

System Tools

115
Q

What is the protection scheme in Windows that your computer sends Microsoft a unique code based on the product key and a number of hardware features?

A

Windows Product Activation (WPA)

116
Q

What are shortcuts in Windows that allows you to go to different programs and places?

A

Hot keys

117
Q

Is it possible to have a blank password on the login screen in Windows?

A

Yes.

You can have a blank password, but that makes your system insecure, and I’m not talking about self-esteem issues, either!

118
Q

How do you display the Quick Launch toolbar if it is not being displayed?

A

On Windows XP systems, the Quick Launch toolbar is not displayed on the taskbar by default. To display the Quick Launch toolbar, right-click the taskbar, select Properties, and check Show Quick Launch.

119
Q

What’s the first thing you come to after logging into Windows?

A

Logging in reveals the Windows desktop, your primary interface to the computer. It’s always there, underneath whatever applications you have open.

120
Q

What’s an entry point for getting to important tech utilities?

A

The Start Menu gives you access to important tech utilities.

121
Q

What are the four sections of the taskbar?

A

Starting at the left side, these are: the Start button, the Quick Launch toolbar, the running programs area, and the notification area.

122
Q

What does My Network show you?

A

This shows all the current network connections available to you. You’ll learn about My Network Places/Network in the Advanced A+ course.

123
Q

How do you get Windows to start showing file extensions, and why are those always hidden by default?

A

To see the extensions in Windows 2000/XP, select Tools > Folder Options to open the Folder Options dialog box . Click the View tab and uncheck Hide extensions for known file types. In Vista, click on Organize | Folder and Search Options | View tab to see the same dialog box.

I have no idea.

124
Q

How do you break out of the stupid “My *” box and see what’s on your computer?

A

In every version of Windows prior to XP, Windows Explorer acts like a separate and distinct tool from My Computer/Computer, showing file and folder information in a double-paned fashion rather than all in a single pane. Windows XP later merged the two into a single tool, but you can still get the Explorer-like interface by right-clicking a folder and selecting Explore from the options, or by clicking on the Folder button on the toolbar.

125
Q

How do you set the Recycle Bin so that it will not eventually fill up your hard drive?

A

To access its properties, right-click the Recycle Bin and select Properties. You can set the amount of drive space to use for the Recycle Bin here, 10% being the default amount. If a hard drive starts to run low on space, this is one of the first places to check!

126
Q

How do you make the Control Panel easier to work with?

A

In Windows XP and Vista, the Control Panel opens into the Category view, in which all the icons are grouped into broad categories such as Printers and Other Hardware . This view requires an additional click (and sometimes a guess about which category includes the icon you need), so most techs use the Switch to Classic View link to get back to the icons.

127
Q

Name a couple of ways to get to the Device Manager?

A

There are many ways to get to the Device Manager—make sure you know all of them!

  1. The first way is to open the Control Panel and double-click the System applet icon. This brings up the System Properties dialog box.

In 2000/XP, you access the Device Manager by selecting the Hardware tab and then clicking the Device Manager button.

  1. You can also get to the System Properties dialog box by right-clicking My Computer/Computer and selecting Properties. And then clicking Device Manager.
  2. hold down the WINDOWS key and press the PAUSE key. From the System Properties dialog box, the path to Device Manager is the same as when you access this dialog box from the Control Panel.
  3. right-click My Computer/Computer and select Manage. This opens a window called Computer Management, where you’ll see Device Manager listed on the left side of the screen, under System Tools.
128
Q

NTFS has an advanced FAT called what?

A

Master File Table (MFT)

129
Q

What is the core power of the Windows OS, handling all of the memory management and multitasking?

A

NT Executive

130
Q

Whereas all previous Microsoft OSs used either FAT16 or FAT32, modern versions of Windows use a far more powerful and robust file system called what?

A

NT File System (NTFS)

131
Q

What NTFS feature defines exactly what a particular account can or cannot do to the file or folder on an NTFS volume and are thus quite detailed and powerful?

A

NTFS Permissions

132
Q

When the system boots up, the master boot record (MBR) or MFT on the hard drive starts what program?

A

NTLDR Program

133
Q

What is a handy CLI keyin to find and go to the SystemRoot location?

A

cd %SystemRoot%

134
Q

What is RAM cache, and what are 3 other names for it?

A

Windows uses a portion of the hard drive as an extension of system RAM, through what’s called a RAM cache. A RAM cache is a block of cylinders on a hard drive set aside as what’s called a swap file, page file, or virtual memory. When the PC starts running out of real RAM because you’ve loaded too many programs, the system swaps programs from RAM to the page file, opening more space for programs currently active.

135
Q

What is a class object and where are they defined in the registry?

A

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

This root key defines the standard class objects used by Windows. A class object is a named group of functions that define what you can do with the thing it represents. Pretty much everything that has to do with files on the system is defined by a class object.

136
Q

Which key in the registry determines the file association, which is the Windows term for what program to use to open a particular type of file.

A

In HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT it is the open/command key. You find that key by first searching for the file type you are interested in and then searching on the Default value for that type.

Example:

search for: .mp3, see “Winamp.File

Search for: Winamp.File, see open -> command.

value = C:\bla\bla\bla\winamp.exe

137
Q

What is The Registry?

A

The Registry is a huge database that stores everything about your PC, including information on all the hardware in the PC, network information, user preferences, file types, and virtually anything else you might run into with Windows. Almost any form of configuration done to a Windows system involves editing the Registry.

138
Q

Where is The Registry on the computer?

A

The numerous Registry files (called hives) are in the **%SystemRoot%\System32\config** folder. Fortunately, you rarely have to access these massive files directly.

139
Q

How do you manually edit the registry?

A

At the command prompt or the Start/Run box key in regedit.

140
Q

What’s the name of the account that can do everything in Windows?

A

Administrator

141
Q

What system is designed to enable your PC to use any hard drive, including removable devices, to boot Windows?

A

ARC naming system

142
Q

What file is a text file that lists the operating systems available to NTLDR and tells NTLDR where to find the boot partition (where the OS is stored) for each of them?

A

BOOT.INI

143
Q

What is a collection of accounts that share the same access capabilities?

A

A Group.

144
Q

What is the access level higher than ownership of a file?

A

Administrator.

If you own a file, you can prevent anyone from accessing that file. An administrator who you have blocked, however, can take that ownership away from you and then access that file!

145
Q

The proper way to write a command is called what?

A

Syntax

146
Q

What are the 256 characters called that you access by holding down the ALT key on your keyboard and pressing a three-number combination on the number pad?

A

Unicode

147
Q

All files have four special values called what that determine how programs (like My Computer) treat the file in special situations?

A

Attributes

148
Q

What file is nothing more than a text file that stores a series of commands?

A

Batch file

149
Q

What’s the command for changing directory to the root directory of the drive that you are on?

A

**cd **

150
Q

What’s a way to enter unusual character on the command line such as Unicode and ASCII?

A

Hold down the ALT key and press a three-number combination on the number pad.

151
Q

What are switches when referring to the command line?

A

Those are the extra options for commands. Example: DIR /OD

directory command sort results by Order Date.

152
Q

How do you enter directories and files that have spaces in them to command lines?

A

Use quotes around them: “a file name with spaces”

153
Q

What would be the command line to make a directory “a” with a subdirectory under “a” called “b”, that has a subdirectory called “c”?

A

MD a\b\c

154
Q

How would you remove a directory, called STEAM and all subdirectories under it, including all of the files in them?

A

RD STEAM /s

155
Q

What’s the command to rename files?

A

REN

Example:

REN RICO.TEX ARTURO.TXT

156
Q

How do you see the documentation on any command line command?

A

<command></command>

<strong> /?</strong></command>

157
Q

How do you see all of the available commands in Windows?

A

At the command promtp key in “help”.

158
Q

What’s the command to see or change the attributes on a file?

A

ATTRIB

159
Q

What’s the command to delete files?

A

del

160
Q

What the purpose of the semicolon in the Windows commad line interface?

A

It meas ‘end of line’ so anything after it is ignored.

161
Q

What would be the command to change all doc files to .sav files?

A

MOVE *.DOC *.SAV

162
Q

What’s the command to copy an entire directory structure?

A

XCOPY

163
Q

How do you bring up the old text editor program?

A

at the command line key in EDIT

164
Q

How do you save a sequence of commands that you can run later?

A

Put them in a text file with a .bat extension. To run it: <file>.bat.</file>

165
Q

What’s the command to see the Windows version?

A

ver

166
Q

What’s the command to see all of the environment variables that have been set in Windows?

A

SET

167
Q

What’s the command to see the contents of the current PATH variable?

A

PATH

168
Q

Windows XP and Windows Vista allow the currently logged-on user to create what that can be used in case of a forgotten password?

A

password reset disk

169
Q

What applet in Windows XP in the Control Panel replaces the Users and Passwords applet in Windows 2000 and further simplifies user management tasks?

A

User Accounts applet

170
Q

Where is the Windows Update applet in the latest versions of Windows?

A

In Windows Vista, go to Start > Control Panel > Windows Update to open the Windows Update dialog box.

171
Q

Where is the User Accounts applet in the latest versions of Windows?

A

Control Panel -> User Accounts

172
Q

Where is the tool called “Local Users and Groups”?

A

It is a sub-tool of Computer Management. Accessed by right-clicking MyComputer then Manage. Also access it from the Control Panel / Administrative tools.

173
Q

What tool is used to log resource usage so that you can track items such as CPU and RAM usage over time?

A

Performance Console

174
Q

What tool can be used to find information about running applications running processes, performance of the computer and the network?

A

Task Manager

175
Q

What Windows XP tool lets you create a backup of your system?

A

Automated System Recovery (ASR)

176
Q

What tool saves critical boot files and partition information and is your main tool for fixing boot problems in Windows 2000?

A

Emergency Repair Disk (ERD)

177
Q

What is a text-based startup of Windows that gets you to a command prompt similar to the Windows command promp?

A

Recovery Console

178
Q

Autorun files automatically run programs, usually installation processes, on removable media. What is the name of any autorun file?

A

AUTORUN.INF

179
Q

Where is the Add or Remove Programs applet in Windows?

A

The Control Panel.

180
Q

What is Data Execution Prevention and where is it located in Windows?

A

Microsoft introduced Data Execution Prevention (DEP) with Windows XP Service Pack 2. DEP works in the background to stop viruses and other malware from taking over programs loaded in system memory. It doesn’t prevent viruses from being installed on your computer, but makes them less effective.

Location is typical Windows menus garbage:

To access these options in Windows 2000/XP:
right-click My Computer and
select Properties,
click the Advanced tab, and
click the Options button (Windows 2000) or Settings button (Windows XP)
in the Performance section of that tab.

In Windows Vista:
right-click Computer.
Select Properties, and
then click the Advanced system settings option in the Tasks list.
Click on the Advanced tab and
click Settings in the Performance section of the tab.

181
Q

What is driver signing?

A

It is the process of verifying that the device driver has been verified by Microsoft to be compatible with this version of Windows.

Found in the Properties menus of any device.

182
Q

What are the Performance Options and where are they located?

A

Tune CPU, RAM, and virtual memory settings.

Located:

Windows 2000/XP,
right-click My Computer and
select Properties,
click the Advanced tab, and
click the Options button (Windows 2000)

In Windows Vista,
right-click Computer.
Select Properties, and
then click the Advanced system settings option in the Tasks list.
Click on the Advanced tab and click Settings in the Performance section of the tab.

183
Q

What’s the differenence between Recovery CD/partition and Recovery console?

A

Recovery CD/partitions come from OEMs and are used to set the entire system back to the factory state and everything on the computer is wiped out.

The Recovery console is a Microsoft utility that is used to investigate or repair various system problems.

184
Q

How do you get to the Advanced Startup Options?

A

If Windows fails to start up, use the Windows Advanced Startup Options menu to discover the cause. To get to this menu, restart the computer and press F8 after the POST messages, but before the Windows logo screen appears.

185
Q

Can you recover from a BSoD?

A

Yes.

Sometimes the BSoD screen is helpful.

Or a new device is causing it.

Or the registry is corrupted.

Lots can be done, google it.

186
Q

What is the Windows startup option that uses the most recent system settings that worked correctly called?

A

Last Known Good Configuration

187
Q

What mode starts up Windows but loads only very basic, non–vendor-specific drivers for mouse, VGA monitor (not in Vista), keyboard, mass storage, and system services?

A

Safe Mode

188
Q

What is the official name for Blue Screen of Death (BSoD)?

A

Stop Error

189
Q

What tool is used to see and maintain every program (and service) that autoloads at startup?

A

System Configuration Utility (MSCONFIG.EXE)

190
Q

In a lazer printer what is the purpose of the fuser assembly?

A

It is the mechanism that fuses, using heat and pressure, the toner particles that are resting on the paper to the paper.

191
Q

What are printer consumables?

A

Things such as ink, ribbons, toner, paper that get consumed in the printing process.

192
Q

What is the stuff called in a laser printer that is a fine powder made up of plastic particles bonded to iron particles?

A

Toner

193
Q

What is the thin wire, usually protected by other thin wires, that applies a positive charge to the paper, drawing the negatively charged toner particles to the paper?

A

Transfer Corona

194
Q

How can some newer printer models connect?

A

With Bluetooth

195
Q

What cable name usually refers to a printer cable with a male DB-25 connector on one end and a 36-pin Centronics connector on the other?

A

Standard Parallel Cable

196
Q

Almost all wired networks use a technology called what?

A

Ethernet

197
Q

Windows uses what component of the operating system to handle print functions?

A

Graphical Device Interface (GDI)

198
Q

What type of printer comes with its own onboard network adapter that uses a standard RJ-45 Ethernet cable to connect the printer directly to the network?

A

Network Printer

199
Q

What does dpi stand for?

A

Dots Per Inch.

It is the key metric of printer resolution.

200
Q

What does sublimation stand for in the printer technology dye-sublimation?

A

The term sublimation means to cause something to change from a solid form into a vapor and then back into a solid. This is exactly the process behind dye-sublimation printing, sometimes called thermal dye transfer printing.

201
Q

What is the key advantage of dye-sublimation printers?

A

Dye-sublimation printers are used mainly for photo printing, high-end desktop publishing, medical and scientific imaging, or other applications for which fine detail and rich color are more important than cost and speed.

202
Q

What is the Erase Lamp?

A

That is the first stage of a lazer print. The erase lamp exposes the drum to light which causes its surface particles to become electrically neutral.

203
Q

Why is it always important to turn off (or even better unplug) lazer printers?

A

The extremely high voltage of the high-voltage power supply makes it one of the most dangerous devices in the world of PCs! Before opening a printer to insert a new toner cartridge, it’s imperative that you always turn off a laser printer.

204
Q

What is a common usage of impact printers?

A

PCs used for printing multipart forms, such as point of sale (POS) machines that need to print receipts in duplicate, triplicate, or more, represent the major market for new impact printers.

205
Q

What are the four standard colors for ink cartridges?

A

cyan (blue), magenta (red), and yellow ink, and black to print colors using a method known as CMYK

206
Q

What is the one key feature that sets inkjet printers apart?

A

they can support a staggering array of print media. Using an inkjet printer, you can print on a variety of matte or glossy photo papers, iron-on transfers, and other specialty media; some printers can print directly onto specially coated optical discs, or even fabric.

And this:

some inks by Epson are projected to last up to 200 years

207
Q

What is the key advantage of laser printers?

A

high-quality and high-speed output of both text and graphics

208
Q

True or False:

Laser printers are used mostly for monochrome printing.

A

TRUE

Today, you can also buy a color laser printer, although the vast majority of laser printers produced today are still monochrome.

209
Q

What role does the laser play in laser printing?

A

The laser acts as the writing mechanism of the printer. Any particle on the drum struck by the laser becomes conductive, enabling its charge to be drained away into the grounded core of the drum.

210
Q

What pin count is considered near-letter quality with dot-matrix printers?

A

The 9-pin dot-matrix printers are generically called draft quality, while the 24-pin printers are known as letter quality or near-letter quality (NLQ).

211
Q

What does ppm stand for?

A

Pages Per Minute.

212
Q

Which print technology has a Photosensitive Drum?

A

Laser printing.

The photosensitive drum is an aluminum cylinder coated with particles of photosensitive compounds. The drum itself is grounded to the power supply, but the coating is not. When light hits these particles, whatever electrical charge they may have had drains out through the grounded cylinder.

213
Q

What is the Primary Corona in laser printing?

A

It is the second sage after the erase lamp, and is before the laser goes into action.

The primary corona wire, located close to the photosensitive drum, never touches the drum. When the primary corona is charged with an extremely high voltage, an electric field (or corona) forms, enabling voltage to pass to the drum and charge the photosensitive particles on the photosensived drum surface. The primary grid regulates the transfer of voltage, ensuring that the surface of the drum receives a uniform negative voltage of between ~600 and ~1000 volts.

214
Q

What is the typical metric for print resolution?

A

dpi, dots per inch

215
Q

Which printer technologies use a printhead?

A

dot matrix,

inkjet,

thermal printers

216
Q

Solid Ink printers are high quality, fast, and are very inexpensive, but what is their big downfall?

A

The only serious downside to solid ink printers is that the images they produce fade quickly. Xerox estimates that a document exposed to office light will fade within two months. A document tucked away into a filing cabinet will last about two years. For some purposes, such as real estate flyers or marketing materials, this quick fade would make no difference at all. If you’re trying to print the family photo album, on the other hand, solid ink is not for you.

217
Q

What part does the static charge eliminator play in laser printing?

A

To prevent the paper from wrapping around the drum, a static charge eliminator removes the charge from the paper.

218
Q

What are the two types of thermal printers?

A

You’ll see two kinds of thermal printers in use. The first is the direct thermal printer, and the other is the thermal-wax transfer printer.

219
Q

What is another term sometimes used for Dye-sublimation printers?

A

dye-sublimation printing, sometimes called thermal dye transfer printing

220
Q

In laser printing the toner cartridge has toner and what else typically?

A

The toner cartridge in a laser printer is so named because of its most obvious activity—supplying the toner (see below) that creates the image on the page. To reduce maintenance costs, however, many other laser printer parts, especially those that suffer the most wear and tear, have been incorporated into the toner cartridge. Although this makes replacement of individual parts nearly impossible, it greatly reduces the need for replacement. Those parts that are most likely to break are replaced every time you replace the toner cartridge.

221
Q

Where do you start to add a new printer on your system?

A

Start -> Printers and Devices -> Add Printer

222
Q

What’s a good website to study up on printer/monitor calibration?

A

www.DigitalDog.net

223
Q

What is the International Color Consortium (ICC)?

A

It is the international group that organizes color calibration on computer devices. You get ICC Color Profiles from them.

224
Q

What is the difference between a printer and a print device?

A

In Windows parlance a printer is a software setup on the system where a print device is an actual physical printer.

225
Q

What does the term printer emulation refer to?

A

Printer emulation simply means using a substitute printer driver for a printer, as opposed to using one made exclusively for that printer.

Some printers may require you to set them into anemulation mode to handle a driver other than their native one.

226
Q

What document do you look up to find the hazards and disposal recommendations for printers (and anything else).

A

Material safety data sheet (MSDS)

227
Q

What is the print spooler?

A

It is the software that queues up print jobs. You can pause, delete, restart print jobs as well as by-pass the spooler altogether. Accessed via Printer/Properties.

228
Q

Adobe systems developed what page description language in the early 1980s as a device-independent printer language capable of high-resolution graphics and scalable fonts?

A

PostScript

229
Q

you can purchase a stand-alone network device known as what to connect your printer to the network?

A

Print Server

230
Q

Hewlett Packard developed what as a more advanced printer language to supersede simple ASCII codes?

A

Printer Control Language (PCL)

231
Q

All modern networks use one common language, called what?

A

TCP/IP

232
Q

When you request a print, the CPU processes your request and sends a print job to an area of memory called the what?

A

Print Spooler

233
Q

A laser printer uses a chip called what to translate the raster image sent to the printer into commands to the laser?

A

Raster Image Processor (RIP)

234
Q

What does a laser printer generate of the page that represents what the final product should look like?

A

Raster Image (a pattern of dots)

235
Q

What enables the printer to insert smaller dots among the characters, smoothing out the jagged curves?

A

Resolution Enhancement Technology (RET)

236
Q

The dust that collects in a laserjet printer is usually called what?

A

Paper Dander

237
Q
A

Comptia A+ Cert (3 decks)

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