Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CompTIA A+ (Core 1) > CompTIA A+ (Core 1) > Flashcards

CompTIA A+ (Core 1) Flashcards

1
Q

POP3 (Name, port, description)

A

Post Office Protocol v3
tcp/110
Download/receive email to local email client (unsecure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

POP3S (Name, port, description)

A

Post Office Protocol v3 secure
tcp/995
Downloads/receive email to local email client (w/ Secure Socket layer settings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

IMAP4 (Name, port, description)

A

Internet Message Access Protocol v4
tcp/143
A newer email client protocol from POP3 and allows access to mail on a central server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IMAP4S (Name, port, description)

A

Internet Message Access Protocol v4 Secure
tcp/993
IMAP4 w/ Secure Socket Layer settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SMTP (Name, port w/+w/out authentication, description)

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
tcp/25 (no authentication)
tcp/587 (authentication)
Transfer email between mail servers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

FTP (Name, port x2, description)

A

File Transfer Protocol
tcp/20 (active mode data), tcp/21 (control the comms)
Sends/receives files between systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SSH (Name, port, description)

A

Secure Shell
tcp/22
Encrypted console access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Telnet (Name, port, description)

A

Telecommunication Network
tcp/23
Insecure console access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DNS (Name, port x2, description)

A

Domain Name System
udp/53, tcp/53
Convert domain names to IP addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HTTP (Name, port, description)

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol
tcp/80
Web server communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HTTPS (Name, port, description)

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure
tcp/443
Web server communication with encryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

RDP (Name, port, description)

A

Remote desktop protocol
tcp/3389
Graphical display of remote devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NetBIOS N (Name, port, description)

A

NetBIOS Name service
udp/137
Register, remove and find Windows services by name
-Older version of SMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

NetBIOS D (Name, port, description)

A

NetBIOS Datagram service
udp/138
Windows connectionless data transfer
-Older version of SMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

NetBIOS S (Name, port, description)

A

NetBIOS Session service
tcp/139
Windows connection-oriented data transfer
-Older version of SMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SMB (Name, port, description)

A

Server Message Block/Common Internet File System (CIFS)
tcp/445
Windows file transfers and printer sharing
-Newer version of NETBIOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

AFP (Name, port, description)

A

Apple Filing Protocol
tcp/548
Mac OS file transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SLP (Name, port x2, description)

A

Service location protocol
tcp/427, udp/427
Find Mac OS services by name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DHCP (Name, portx2, description)

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
udp/67, udp/68
Automate the IP address configuration process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

LDAP (Name, port, description)

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
tcp/389
Directory services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SNMP (Name, port, description)

A

Simple Network Management Protocol
udp/161
Gather metrics and manage network devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is TCP and what does it stand for?

A

Transmission Control Protocol - Connection oriented protocol + a reliable form of delivery.

  • Recovers from error.
  • Manage out -of-order messages/re-transmission.
  • Receiver acknowledges info was received to sender.
  • Flow control (Receiver manage how much data sent)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is UDP and what does it stand for?

A

User Datagram Protocol - Connectionless protocol + unreliable form of delivery.

  • No error recovery
  • No reorder of data or transmission
  • No acknowledgement from receiver when data is received
  • No flow control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which OSI layer does TCP/UDP take place in?

A

OSI Layer 4 - Transport layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a repeater?

A
  • Extends network connections for a specific topology
  • Receives signal, regenerate and resend (No forwarding decisions)
  • Goes into 1 connection and comes out another connection (i.e. Boosts copper/fiber connection, convert one network media to another etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a hub?

A
  • It is a multi-port repeater (traffic goes into 1 port and is repeated to every other port)
  • Half duplex (2 devices can’t communicate concurrently)
  • Becomes less efficient as network speeds increase/doesn’t scale when increasing network traffic
  • Ethernet hubs operate @ 10/100 megabits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a bridge?

A
  • A switch with 2-4 ports (forwarding decision based in software)
  • Connects different physical network topologies (i.e. WAP = a bridge as wire ethernet > wireless)
  • Distributes traffic based on MAC address
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a switch?

A
  • It is a bridge, but done in hardware.
  • Allows for scaling and forwards traffic based on data link address
  • Many ports/features and maybe power over ethernet
  • Multi-layer switch (based on MAC address)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a unmanaged switch?

A
  • Plug/play, fixed configuration, little integration with other devices
  • Low price point
  • No VLANs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is managed switch?

A
  • VLAN support (interconnect w/ other switches via 802.1Q)
  • Traffic prioritization
  • Redundancy support
  • Port mirroring (Capture packets for analysis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a router?

A
  • Routes traffic between IP subnets
  • Makes forward decisions based on IP address
  • Sometimes are inside switches > called layer 3 switches
  • Connects diverse network types on same router (i.e. LAN, WAN, copper, fiber)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a wireless access point (WAP)?

A
  • A WAP is a bridge (Extends wired network onto wireless network)
  • Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC address
  • A wireless router = A router + WAP in a single device
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a Wireless LAN Controller?

A
  • Centralized management of WAPs
  • Performance/security monitoring
  • Configure/deploy changes to all sites
  • Uses proprietary tech (i.e. Cisco)
  • Can be cloud-based
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a firewall?

A
  • Filters traffic by port number (OSI Layer 4, TCP/UDP)
  • Some can filter based on application
  • Can encrypt traffic in/out of your network (VPN)
  • Can proxy traffic (Sits in middle to intercept request and send/receives for you)
  • Sits on the ingress/egress (enter/exit) of the network
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a cable modem?

A
  • Broadband network (i.e. Shaw)
  • Transmission across different frequencies (5/2.4 Ghz)
  • Data on the cable network (DOCSIS > Data Over Cable service interface specification)
  • Multiple services (i.e. Data, voice, video)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a DSL Modem?

A
  • DSL/ADSL = Asymmetric Digital subscriber line
  • Uses telephone lines (RJ11) instead of cable lines of cable modems
  • Called ADSL cuz download speed is faster than upload speed (asymmetric)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is PoE?

A
  • Power over Ethernet

- Power provided on an Ethernet cable (1 wire for both network/electricity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is EoP?

A
  • Ethernet over Power, AKA PLC (Power line communication)

- Provides ethernet over power cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

802.11a (Frequency, Max MIMO stream, Max throughput per stream, max total throughput)
MIMO = Multi-input/output (multi-receivers to receive/send data)

A

Frequency: 5 GHz
Max MIMO streams: N/A
Max throughput (per stream): 54 Mbit/s
Max throughput (total): 54 Mbit/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

802.11b (Frequency, Max MIMO stream, Max throughput per stream, max total throughput)

A

Freq: 2.4 GHz
Max MIMO streams: N/A
Max throughput (per stream): 11 Mbit/s
Max throughput (total): 11 Mbit/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

802.11g (Frequency, Max MIMO stream, Max throughput per stream, max total throughput)

A

Freq: 2.4 GHz
Max MIMO streams: N/A
Max throughput (per stream): 54 Mbit/s
Max throughput (total): 54 Mbit/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

802.11n (Frequency, Max MIMO stream, Max throughput per stream, max total throughput)

A

Freq: 5 GHz or 2.4 GHz
Max MIMO streams: 4 MIMO
Max throughput (per stream): 150 Mbit/s
Max throughput (total): 600 Mbit/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

802.11ac (Frequency, Max MIMO stream, Max throughput per stream, max total throughput)

A

Freq: 5 GHz
Max MIMO streams: 8 MU-MIMO
Max throughput (per stream): 866.7 Mbit/s
Max throughput (total): ~6.8 Gbit/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

802.11 @ 2.4 GHz non-overlapping channels?

A

Channel 1, 6, or 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

RFID name/examples

A

Radio Frequency ID

  • Anything that needs to be tracked via radar tech (i.e. animal/pet ID, access badges)
  • Mostly 1 way communication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

NFC name/examples

A

Near field communication

  • 2 way wireless communication (builds on RFID)
  • Ex. Cell phone credit card payments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

IPv4 (bits, bytes, octet)

A

Internet Protocol v4 (xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx)

-Total = 32 bits/4 bytes (8 bits or 1 byte/octet x 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

IPv6 (bits, bytes, octet)

A

Internet Protocol v6 (16x’s multiply by 8 sections)
-Total = 128 bits/16 bytes (16 bits or 2 bytes x 8 sections)
Ex. fe80::5d18:652:cffd:8f52 (Skip consec 0’s & replace w/ ::)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are cable crimpers used for?

A
  • Pinches the insulator so that it’s tightly wrapped around the wire
  • Pushes down copper tips in connectors so that it makes contact with copper wires inside insulation (i.e. RJ45)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are multimeter used for?

A
  • Checks AC/DC in wall outlets/wires/batteries
  • Continuity testing for cable connectivity, fuse status (if it still works), wire mapping (which pins are connected to which)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are tone generator used for?

A
  • One is connected to a wire and the other part touches wire to determine the beep
  • Where does that wire go?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are cable testers used for?

A
  • Attaches each end of a wire into a device and identify missing pins/crossed wires from head to toe
  • Once plugged, both devices will do a countdown flash for #’s in sync and if something isn’t working, there will be a discrepancy in light flash.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are loopback plugs used for?

A

-Used to send traffic out a particular interface, loop them around and send it back into the same interface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cable Category 3 (Max Ethernet Standard/Distance)

A

Ethernet Standard: 10BASE-T (10 Mbit/s)

Distance: 100M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cable Category 5 (Max Ethernet Standard/Distance)

A

Ethernet Standard: 100BASE-TX (100 Mbit/s), 1000BASE-T (1000 Mbit/s)
Distance: 100M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cable Category 53 (enhanced) Max Ethernet Standard/Distance

A

Ethernet Standard: 100BASE-TX (100 Mbit/s), 1000BASE-T (1000 Mbit/s)
Distance: 100M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cable Category 6 (Max Ethernet Standard/Distance)

A

Ethernet Standard: 10GBASE-T (10 Gbit/s)

Distance: 37-55M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cable Category 6A (Augmented) - Max Ethernet Standard/Distance

A

Ethernet Standard: 10GBASE-T (10 Gbit/s)

Distance: 100M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is UTP/STP?

A 
UTP = Unshielded twisted pair 
STP = Shielded twisted pair
60
Q

What does U, S, F stand for?

What is the general format?

A

U = Unshielded
S = Braided shielding (flexible)
F = Foil shielding (rigid)
General format = (Overall cable)/(individual pairs) TP

61
Q

What is S/FTP and F/UTP?

A 
S/FTP = Braided shielding (overall cable) + Foil shielding (individual pairs)
F/UTP = Foil shielding (overall cable) + Unshielded twisted pair
62
Q

568A Termination Standard? (1-8)

A
  1. Green/White
  2. Green
  3. Orange/White
  4. Blue
  5. Blue/White
  6. Orange
  7. Brown/white
  8. Brown
63
Q

568B Termination Standard? (1-8)

A
  1. Orange/White
  2. Orange
  3. Green/white
  4. Blue
  5. Blue/white
  6. Green
  7. Brown/white
  8. Brown
64
Q

Thunderbolt v3 throughput

65
Q

USB 3/3.1/3.2 throughput

A

5 Gbit/s, 10 Gbit/s, 20 Gbit/s

66
Q

What is DB-9/RS-232 serial cable connector used for?

A

-Serial connection built for modem comms
Ex. Modems, printers, mice, networking
-Used for configuration port (Serial console interface)

67
Q

SATA 2, 3, 3.2 throughput?

A

3 Gbit/s, 6 Gbit/s, 16 Gbit/s with 1 meter range

68
Q

What is RJ11 connector used for?

A

Connecting a telephone or analog modem to your plain old telephone system (POTS)

69
Q

What is RJ45 connector used for?

A

Wired Ethernet connection

70
Q

What is RS232 connector used for?

A

Serial communication standard (i.e. Modems, printers, mice, networking, config port for firewalls/switches)

71
Q

What is a BNC connector?

A
  • Bayonet Neill-Concelman Connector
  • Plug in and twist to lock
  • Commonly used for coaxial cable connector
72
Q

What is a F-connector?

A
  • Cable television/modem connector

- A thin pin and then lots of twisting to secure it

73
Q

What is the difference betwen eSATA and SATA for design?

A
  • eSATA has ears on both sides with a rectangle in the middle
  • SATA has a single ear on the side and a L shape in the middle
74
Q

What is DRAM?

A

Dynamic Random Access Memory - The memory on the DIMM.

75
Q

What is SDRAM?

A

Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory - Found on today’s modern computers.
-Synchronous with common system clock > Queue up one process while waiting for another (Speed advantage)

76
Q

SDR vs DDR

A

Single Data Rate Memory - Pull 1 bit of data per 1 clock cycle. (6 clock cycle in total)
Dual Data Rate Memory - Pull 2 bits of data per clock cycle. (12 clock cycle in total)

77
Q

What is even parity (RAM)?

A
  • Adds up the bits (1/0s) for a total of 8 bits > If it is odd #, then add a parity bit (1) to ensure it’s even.
  • Once parity bit has been added and transaction occurred inside the RAM, write back this info into storage device, but check first.
  • If everything (including parity) = odd, then it’s a corrupt file.
78
Q

SATA bandwidth throughput ? (What does AHCI stand for?)

A
  • SATA is designed for hard drives (uses Advanced Host Controller Interface) to move drive data to RAM
  • SATA revision 3 ~ 600MB/s.
79
Q

M.2 SSD throughput? (What does NVMe stand for?)

A

Non-volatile memory express

  • M.2 ~ 4 Gbyte/s or faster
  • SSD may also use AHCI as well.
80
Q

What are the 5 components that make up a hard disk drive? (Outside > Inside)

A

-Actuator > Arm > Head > Platter > Spindle

81
Q

What is RAID 0?

A
  • File blocks are split between 2 or more physical drives (Striping)
  • High performance, no redundancy
  • A drive failure breaks the array
82
Q

What is RAID 1?

A
  • File blocks are duplicated between 2 or more physical drives (Mirroring)
  • High redundancy (Drive failure doesn’t affect data availability)
  • Slow performance due to duplicating everything
83
Q

What is RAID 5?

A
  • File blocks are striped, along with a parity block (Stripe with Parity)
  • Requires at least 3 disks
  • Efficient use of disk space + high redundancy (data available after drive failure)
84
Q

What is RAID 10?

A
  • The speed of striping + redundancy of mirroring

- Best of both worlds (Requires at least 4 disks)

85
Q

PCI vs. PCIe throughput?

A

PCI - Peripheral Component Interconnect (Parallel)
(133 MB/s - 533 MB/s depending on bus version)

PCIe - Communicates Serially
(250 MB/s - 4 GB/s per lane depending on version)

86
Q

What does LGA stand for? Where do the pins go?

A

Land Grid Array - Pins go on the motherboard.

87
Q

What does PGA stand for? What do the pins go?

A

Pin Grid Array - Pins on the CPU.

88
Q

Mobo components using (12 v, 3.3 v)

A

12v- Fans, PCIe adapters, hard drive motors

3v - RAM slots, m.2 slots, logic circuits

89
Q

What are the 7 steps of printing?

A
  1. Processing (Build entire page in memory)
  2. Charging (Prepare drum with a - electrostatic charge)
  3. Exposing (Write the image with the laser)
  4. Developing (Add toner to the charged areas of imaging drum)
  5. Transferring (Move the toner from the drum to the paper)
  6. Fusing (Heat/pressure)
  7. Cleaning (Remove excess toner)
90
Q

What are the 7 steps of troubleshooting?

A
  1. Identify the problem
  2. Establish a theory
  3. Test the theory > Is it working?
  4. Create a plan of action
  5. Implement the solution
  6. Verify full system functionality
  7. Document findings
91
Q

What is change management and the 6 steps associated with it?

A
  1. Plan for a change
  2. Estimate the risks associated with the change
  3. Have a recovery plan if change doesn’t work
  4. Test before making the change
  5. Document all of this and get approval
  6. Make the change
92
Q

What kind of memory is BIOS stored in a regular PC?

A

ROM (Read-only memory)

93
Q

What are the standard rotational speeds of a hard drive?

A

5,400, 7,200, 10,000 rpm

94
Q

What is the standard voltage for AC in US?

A

110v to 120v (220v to 240v is sometimes used, but not the standard)

95
Q

What is the standard voltage for AC in Europe?

A

220v to 240v

96
Q

Which 2 SATA-based formats does a laptop SSD come in?

A

1.8 inch (m.2) and 2.5 inch

97
Q

Which part of a computer is used with older display tech to convert DC power to AC power?

A

Inverter (Found in displays that uses CCFL - Cold Cathode fluorescent lamps)

98
Q

What are the ranges of private IPv4 addresses?

A
  1. 0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255,
  2. 16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255,
  3. 168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
99
Q

When manually configuring TCP/IP settings on a computer in a SOHO network, what address should you enter as the default gateway address?

A

The internal address of the Internet router
Note: The default gateway address = the address a computer sends traffic to if it has no other route in its routing table.

100
Q

A user who travels extensively with her laptop needs to protect sensitive data stored on her hard drive. Which feature of Windows Ultimate allows for encryption of the entire drive?

101
Q

A user enters the Windows command line prompt to create a new directory. What is the command to accomplish this?

A

MD - Make Directory (or MKDIR)

102
Q

What feature of the NIC allows for a powered down or sleeping PC to power on when a job is received?

A

Wake-on LAN

103
Q

What utility can you use to eliminate any temporary files from your hard drive?

A

Disk cleanup

104
Q

If your server in the networking room catches fire, how should you put out the fire?

A

Use a class C fire extinguisher

105
Q

Who administers the SDS (safety data sheet)?

Note: SDS is used for guiding the disposal of computing devices.

A

OSHA (The Occupational Safety and Health Administration)

106
Q

How can you tell how much of a surge can be handled by a surge suppressor?

A

Joule rating

107
Q

What is a form of malware that has the ability to replicate without any intervention?

108
Q

When someone is assigned only the rights/privileges necessary to do her job, this is referred to as___

A

Principle of least privilege

109
Q

A user frantically calls you to obtain sensitive information like username/password, what is this fraudulent activity called?

A

Social Engineering

110
Q

DVI cable adaptability

A

DVI-A = Analog
DVI-D = Digital
DVI-I = Digital or Analog
DVI -A/D = Digital AND Analog

111
Q

What type of transmissions is allowed for DisplayPort and HDMI cables?

A

Digital audio/video

112
Q

What are examples of mass storage device interfaces?

A

SATA, IDE/PATA, SCSI (Small computer system interface)

113
Q

What does USB-to-Ethernet converter enable as a connectivity?

A

802.3 connectivity

114
Q

What are the characteristic features of SAS(Serial Attached SCSI)? (Name 3)

A
  • Serial interface
  • Point to point connection
  • Doesn’t require bus termination
115
Q

What is the way to identify logical partitions on a SCSI hard drive?

A

LUN (Logical Unit Number)

116
Q

What is SCSI ID used for?

A

Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain

117
Q

What is the max allowable # of devices that can be attached to a parallel SCSI bus?

A

16 devices

118
Q

What is the max allowable cable length of Parallel ATA (PATA) interface?

119
Q

What is the max # of devices that can be attached to a PC via a single PATA cable?

120
Q

How many pin connectors for a PATA cable?

A

40-pin connectors

121
Q

List 3 characteristics of PATA cable?

A

Cable consisting of 40 wires, 80 wires and ribbon cable

122
Q

What does SATA revision 3.2 specify?

A

Max cable length = 1 meter and 16 Gbps data transfer rate

123
Q

How many pins does the SATA interface specification define data cable connector consisting?

124
Q

What does POTS stand for and type of cable interface is required for the modem?

A

POTS = Plain old telephone service, RJ-11 is required

125
Q

When a SIM is moved from one phone to another, all incoming calls will follow the SIM. What identifier is used for this feature?

A

IMSI (International Mobile Subscriber Identifier)

126
Q

What is the important voltage to check for PCIE adapters?

127
Q

What protocol is the best choice for consolidating log files from all firewalls, switches and routers?

A

Syslog (System logging protocol)

128
Q

What should be used to block all known malicious data from entering the network via the Internet?

A

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

129
Q

What protocol is commonly used by Apple products to locate music, photos and other resources?

130
Q

What is the difference in layout between LGA and PGA?

A

LGA = Pins on motherboard, PGA = Pins on CPU

131
Q

What is the storage capacity of the following:

  • CD-ROM
  • DVD-ROM single layer
  • DVD-ROM dual-layer
  • Blue ray single layer
  • Blue ray dual layer
A 
CD-ROM = 700 MB
DVD-ROM SL = 4.7 GB
DVD-ROM DL = 8.5 GB
Blu Ray SL = 25 GB
Blu Ray DL = 50 GB
132
Q

What is the most commonly used main memory for PC?

A

SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory)

133
Q

What can be used with a passive adapter to connect a DisplayPort monitor?

A

DisplayPort is compatible with both HDMI and DVI-D.

134
Q

What are the specs for a Multimode fiber? Single mode fiber?

A

Multimode fiber can be used to transmit 10 Gbit/s network signals over a distance of around 550 meters.
Single mode fiber = long distance over 80km

135
Q

A mobile provider has remotely updated the list of available connections when phone is used outside of home service area. What describes this update?

A

Preferred Roaming List - Describes list of available services when the primary mobile provider’s network isn’t available.

136
Q

What is IMEI used for?

A

IMEI - International Mobile Station Equipment Identity > Identifies a physical mobile device like a unique ID.

137
Q

What does orchestration mean?

A

The orchestration process provides a method to completely automate the building/tearing down of cloud services.

138
Q

What technology best provide health info for a hard drive?

A

S.M.A.R.T (Self-monitor, analysis and reporting tech) provide extensive metrics about health/potential errors of a hard drive.

139
Q

What type of paper is used for pulling through via holes on the side of the paper?

A

Tractor paper = often used to pull pages through paper path of an impact printer.

140
Q

What does MDM stand for and what does it do?

A

Mobile device manager - Provides centralized management for mobile devices like phones/tablets.

141
Q

What can be used to disable the optical drive for all OS systems on a desktop computer?

142
Q

Where are UEFI BIOS configuration settings stored?

A

Hard drive

143
Q

What are the max RAM per DDR?

A 
DDR = 4GB per DIMM?
DDR2 = 8 GB per Dimm
DDR3 = 16 GB per Dimm
DDR4 = 64 GB per Dimm
144
Q

What is used as a connection for a SAS drive?

A

SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) drive uses a single point-to-point connection between the drive and controller/mobo.

145
Q

What is the difference between Ad Hoc mode vs. Infrastructure mode?

A

Ad Hoc Mode (WLAN) - Decentralized type of network and wireless devices communicate directly with each other rather than using a bridge, like an access point.

  • It is peer to peer level and doesn’t require infrastructure setup and administration.
  • Security/performance (w/ scaling) is an issue, but if y’all trust each other, then its fine.

Infrastructure Mode (WLAN): Centralized wireless network and more common in organizations.

  • Wireless devices communicate with a WAP and not with each other.
  • WAP = layer 2 device and acts as a bridge between wireless and wired devices.

CompTIA A+ (Core 1) (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions