CompTia A+ 1101 Practice Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following locations are you likely to find the antenna wires located within a laptop or mobile device?

Located under the keyboard
Positioned around the Display Panel
Laying on top of the battery
Connected externally via USB

A

Positioned around the Display panel

OBJ-1.2: The antenna wires for the wireless cards and cellular radios are usually routed around the screen within the casing of the laptop or mobile device. The antenna connections can be tricky to install/remove and are delicate. When updating or replacing a wireless or cellular card, the technician must be careful to reconnect the antenna wires and reinstall them in the proper location. External antennas are available only when connected to an external wireless card.

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2
Q

Both Apple and Samsung have released their own version of contactless mobile payment solutions. For example, Apple Pay allows users to place their iPhone or Apple Watch within an inch of a credit card machine at a store to make a payment. Which of the following wireless technologies do these types of payment systems rely upon?

A

NFC

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3
Q

Susan, a computer technician, received a complaint from a client about an issue with their laptop. Based on the symptoms observed, she believes that there is an issue with the laptop’s memory. Which of the following symptoms was MOST likely observed during their troubleshooting?

Incorrect time in the BIOS
Distended Capacitor
POST code beeps
Continuous reboots

A

Continuous reboots

OBJ-5.2: A bad or faulty RAM module can cause system reboots, diminished system performance, and slow loading of websites and programs. This gradual deterioration of performance, especially with memory-intensive programs, may indicate a problem with the laptop’s system memory. The system memory should be tested and replaced (if needed) to allow the laptop to begin working efficiently.

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4
Q

Which cloud computing concept is BEST described as focusing on the replacement of applications and programs on a customer’s workstation with cloud-based resources?

PaaS
DaaS
SaaS
IaaS

A

SaaS vs Software as a Service

OBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

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5
Q

Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 480 Mbps?

USB 1.0
USB 2.0
USB 3.0
USB 1.1

A

USB 2.0

OBJ-3.1: USB 2.0 can support data rates up to 480 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

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6
Q

You work as a computer technician for a production company that travels worldwide while filming and editing music videos. Due to the nature of video editing, you will be building a video production workstation for the company that will have the maximum amount of RAM, an 8-core CPU, a dedicated GPU, and a redundant array of solid-state devices for storage. You are now determining which power supply to install in the system. What is the MOST important characteristic to consider when choosing a power supply?

Number of SATA connectors
Input Voltage
Amperage of 12V rail
Efficiency rating

A

Input Voltage

OBJ-3.5: This question provides you with many details, but the key phrase in finding the answer is in the first sentence. This computer will be traveling worldwide, and the most important consideration will be the input voltage. If you choose a 120-volt power supply, it would be destroyed if plugged into a 240-volt outlet (commonly used outside the United States). Conversely, if you use a 240-volt power supply and plug it into a 120-volt outlet, it will not function due to the lower voltage. Therefore, you need to pick a power supply with dual voltage selection capability for maximum compatibility worldwide.

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7
Q

Samantha, a consultant, is working onsite at a large corporation’s headquarters this week. She takes out her iPad and attempts to launch an application. She notices that the application will not launch, even though she is connected to the wireless network and has properly established internet connectivity. Which of the following should she do to fix this issue and allow the application to launch properly?

Ship the Ipad back to Apple to replace it under the AppleCare Warranty
Factory reset the tablet, reload the latest iOS, reinstall the application then launch the app
Close all open applications, shut down the iPad, power on the iPad, and then launch the app again
Charge the battery and then try reloading the application

A

Close all the open applications, shut down the iPad, power on the Ipad, and then launch the app again

OBJ-5.5: Applications often run in the background and do not get properly closed when you finish using them. This can cause them to hang and lock up when a user tries to reopen them. By closing all open applications, shutting down the iPad, then rebooting it and launching the app again will ensure that the application is freshly loaded and overcome many issues. This will ensure that the cache is cleared before attempting to reload the application. While a factory reset and iOS reload would also work, it would take much longer and cause extensive data loss on the device.

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8
Q

The touch screen on your Windows 10 laptop is not working properly. You have been asked to troubleshoot the laptop. What should you check FIRST?

Device Manager
Digitizer Settings
System configuration
Performance Monitor

A

Digitizer Setting

OBJ-5.5: Most laptops have a digitizer and an LCD screen if they are touchscreen devices. The digitizer is a piece of glass glued to the LCD’s surface and is used to capture your touches and translate them into input for your system. If the touch screen is not working, but the display doesn’t look cracked or broken, this is often a sign that the digitizer settings are incorrect or the digitizer is defective.

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9
Q

Jason booted up a Windows 10 laptop and noticed that the icon appeared very large and the image appeared blurry. What is the most LIKELY cause of these issues?

Incorrect Resolution
Incorrect cable used
Faulty digitizer
Incorrect color depth

A

Incorrect Resolution

OBJ-5.4: This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, if the computer rebooted into Safe Mode, it will default back to 800x600 pixel resolution instead of the 16:9 ratio of 1920x1080 pixels used by modern laptops. This is also referred to as VGA mode

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10
Q

Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct?

The 5.0 Ghz frequency has fewer channels available than 2.4Ghz
The 5.0 Ghz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4Ghz using the same power levels
The 5.0 GHz frequency is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 Ghz
The 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 Ghz

A

The 5.0Ghz frequency is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4Ghz

OBJ-2.3: The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The longer wavelength gives it the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels as the 5.0 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency.

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11
Q

Which of the following is an open-source wireless communication protocol operating in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation?

Zigbee
Z-Wave
Bluetooth
NFC

A

Zigbee

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12
Q

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) infrastructure?

Digital Subscriber line
Cable Modem
Software-defined Networking
Optical network terminal

A

Cable Modem

OBJ-2.2: A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems.

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13
Q

Which of the following requirements should you consider when selecting the type of processors, storage, and RAM to utilize in a virtualization environment?

Resource Requirements
Security Requirements
Emulator Requirements
Network Requirements

A

Resource Requirements

OBJ-4.2: Before you purchase a system to use as a virtualization environment, you should look at the minimum requirements for all operating systems you intend to host as guest VMs. This will ensure you can balance the performance needed and maintain a smooth-running environment without numerous conflicts or issues.

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14
Q

Your desktop computer is currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to avoid having to expand again next year while still meeting your need to store more data?

50TB SAN
3TB HDD
5TB NAS
1TB SSD

A

3TB HDD

OBJ-3.3: Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the size of the storage being installed and not the storage speed. Therefore, we should choose the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) over the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) due to its larger size.

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15
Q

What type of connector provides power to an internal hard drive from the computer’s power supply using a 4-pin connector?

Molex
Thunderbolt
SATA
SCSI

A

Molex

OBJ-3.1: A Molex connector provides DC power to the various drives inside a computer case. Molex and Mini-Molex are both 4-pins connectors, with Mini-Molex only being used to support floppy disk drives. The large-sized one is used for hard disk drives, CD-ROM drives, and DVD drives. SATA connectors have 15 pin and 7 pin varieties. Thunderbolt has 20 and 24 pin varieties. SCSI has 50 and 36 pin varieties.

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16
Q

Jason’s laptop display appears to be extremely dim. He set the brightness to the highest level and attempted to adjust the control, but the image still appears extremely dim. Jason notices that if he points his smartphone’s flashlight at the screen, then he can see the image better. Which of the following components on the laptop should he replace to fix this issue?

Digitizer
Inverter
LCD panel
Graphics Card

A

Inverter

OBJ-5.4: The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight.

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17
Q

Your company has recently migrated much of your data center to the cloud. Now, your boss needs a method to monitor all services used in supporting your customers to be properly billed based on their usage. Which of the following cloud computing concepts is your boss describing?

Rapid Elasticity
Measured Services
Resource Pooling
On-demand

A

Measured Services

OBJ-4.1: Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use.

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18
Q

You are building a Desktop PC for a newly hired employee at Dion Training. The computer’s motherboard doesn’t have a wireless network adapter integrated into it, so you need to purchase an expansion card to provide this functionality. Which of the following motherboard connections will most likely be used to connect the wireless network adapter card?

PCIe x1
AGP
eSATA
PCIe x16

A

PCIe x1

OBJ-3.4: PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has several PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Network adapters and Wi-Fi network cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x1 expansion slots or a USB connection for their connectivity. Graphics cards usually rely on a PCIe x16 expansion slot. eSATA is an external SATA port used to connect an external storage device such as a hard drive. The accelerated graphics port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard that was originally designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. AGP has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds.

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19
Q

Dion Training has recently purchased a new wireless printer and has asked you to configure it in their office. You have installed the necessary printer drivers on your workstation and have plugged the printer into the power outlet. You just configured the printer to connect to the guest wireless network. Next, you try to print a test page, but nothing prints out. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the printer not printing the test page?

You forgot to configured your workstation as a print server
You didn’t enable DHCP on your workstation
You connected the printer to the guest network instead of the corporate wireless network
You didn’t configure the printer to use the Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)

A

You connected the printer to the guest wireless network instead of the corporate wireless network

OBJ-5.6: Most corporate wireless networks are configured as two separate networks: one for the corporate wireless network traffic and another for any guests that might connect to the wireless network while visiting your offices. These two wireless networks are isolated from each other, so if you connect the printer to the guest wireless network then the workstations will be unable to reach the printer and print out any documents or test pages.

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20
Q

Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Europe and Japan due to government regulations?

11
13
6
1

A

13

OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.

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21
Q

A client reports that their workstation is continually crashing when using certain applications on their macOS system. The system will stop working and display a spinning rainbow pinwheel on the screen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this error?

Failure or corruption of the memory
Failure of the graphics card
Failure of the processor
Failure of the power supply

A

Failure or corruption of the memory

OBJ-5.2: On a Mac (OS X) system, the “Pinwheel of Death” is used to indicate an error. The pinwheel appears as an endlessly spinning rainbow mouse pointer displayed on the screen. This usually occurs due to a memory failure or memory corruption in the system. The pinwheel is like the BSOD used in Windows. The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a “stop screen” that appears when the Windows operating system detects a critical error and literally stops the system so that the error doesn’t cause any loss of data. All operating systems have some form of “stop screen,” but the Windows version got the name BSOD since it was a screen with a full blue background and white text containing troubleshooting information and error codes.

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22
Q

You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur?

Proxy Server
TACACS+ server
DHCP Server
DNS Server

A

DHCP server

OBJ-2.4: A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server use to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching an end user.

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23
Q

You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to send their emails when out of the office. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to send their mail?

IMAP
POP3
SMTP
HTTPS

A

SMTP

OBJ-1.4: You should configure SMTP since it is the only protocol used to send emails. POP3 and IMAP are used to receive emails. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

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24
Q

Molly enjoys playing an online MMORPG each day after work. To access the game, she simply enters the website address and logs in to begin playing. Today, she tried to access the game from her laptop at work, but she couldn’t launch the game. What is most likely causing the issue?

Poor WiFi Connection
Incorrect NIC settings
Blocklisted by Firewall
Metered Services

A

Blocklisted by Firewall

OBJ-4.1: The company firewall may be blocking any gaming-related websites and applications to improve security. Adding the website or a category of websites to the firewall’s blocklist would prevent all corporate users from accessing the content. When using cloud-based resources, it is important that all of the right ports and protocols are allowed through the firewall.

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25
Q

A customer contacts the service desk because their laptop will not power on when plugged in, and the battery is dead. The service desk replaces its battery, connects it to a different power adapter, and the laptop works all day until the battery runs out. Now, the laptop won’t turn on, and the battery won’t charge. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue?

Replace the power adapter
Replace the DC Jack
Connect the laptop to a 220V outlet
Replace the battery

A

Replace the DC Jack

OBJ-5.5: This scenario indicates that the DC jack is faulty. Since the battery was replaced and the laptop continues to work, this indicates it isn’t a battery issue but is, instead, most likely a DC jack issue. The DC jack often gets broken on a laptop, and if the jack is broken, the device cannot charge or receive power from the power adapter or wall outlet.

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26
Q

Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants?

On-Demand
Resource Pooling
Metered Services
Rapid Elasticity

A

Rapid Elasticity

OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization’s data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider.

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27
Q

You have been asked to fix an old computer whose CD-ROM has stopped working. The CD-ROM drive is using a 40-pin ribbon cable, and you suspect the cable is defective. Which cable should you buy to replace the cable?

IDE
SATA
eSATA
USB

A

IDE

OBJ-3.1: An IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) cable is an older cable interface that used to be used for the transmission of data between the motherboard and various internal devices like hard drives and CD-ROM drives. An IDE cable is a 40-pin ribbon cable that operated at relatively slow speeds (less than 50 Mbps). IDE cables were also known as PATA (Parallel ATA) cables, as opposed to SATA (Serial ATA) cables. You will rarely come across an IDE cable in use today, but if you are working on a very old computer in an office (legacy machine) then you may find one in use.

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28
Q

Dion Training wants to install a network cable to run a television signal between two buildings. Which of the following cable types should it utilize?

Shielded
Coaxial
Plenum
Fiber

A

Coaxial

OBJ-3.1: A coaxial cable is a cable used to transmit video, communications, and audio. A coaxial or coax cable is most commonly used as a cable to connect a TV to a cable TV service. Coaxial cables are a specialized type of copper cabling that uses a copper core to carry the electrical signal while being enclosed by plastic insulation and shielding to protect the data transmission from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). An optical fiber consists of an ultra-fine core of glass to carry the light signals surrounded by glass or plastic cladding, which guides the light pulses along the core, and a protective coating. The fiber optic cable is contained in a protective jacket and terminated by a connector. Fiber optic cables use light signals to carry data across a cable at extremely high bandwidths.

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29
Q

Which of the following virtualization concepts refers to a VM’s ability to have memory allocated for its use?

Resource Pooling
Measured Service
Synchronization
Virtual Application Streaming

A

Resource Pooling

OBJ-4.1: Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices and share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Virtual application streaming allows an application to be delivered to a workstation from the cloud.

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30
Q

You have decided that you wanted to install a second operating system on your computer. After installing the OS and rebooting the computer, you see the “Operating System Not Found” error on your display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error?

Windows Startup Services are not properly running
The MBR bootloader was installed accidentally
An incompatible partition is marked as active
An unsupported version of Linux is installed

A

An incompatible partition is marked as active

OBJ-5.3: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active.

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31
Q

Tom is running some new Cat 5e cabling in an office building to connect a few offices. The ceiling is constructed as a drop ceiling with fluorescent lights and does not have any cable trays. Due to the proximity of the fluorescent lights to the cable being run, what type of CAT 5e cable should be run?

UTP
STP
Coaxial
Fiber

A

STP

OBJ-5.7: STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) is a type of cabling that can help prevent electrical interferences or cross-talk. A cross-talk is when electrical interference data passing through can cause CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) errors. A CRC is used to calculate the before and after checksum is made when transferring data. If electrical interference gets in the way, such as proximity to fluorescent light bulbs, it can cause data to be corrupted and produce an error. UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) is cheaper and easier to work with but is subject to interference. Coaxial and fiber are not types of CAT 5e cabling. Coaxial and fiber are not Cat 5E cable types and cannot be used for this network.

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32
Q

You are configuring a new client workstation on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?

APIPA
Static
Dynamic
Link-Local

A

Dynamic

OBJ-2.5: A dynamic IP address should be used for client workstations and devices to ensure they are easy to configure and less prone to human error. When configuring a dynamic IP address, the DHCP server should issue the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address to the workstation or device. A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.

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33
Q

A computer technician is building a server that will run multiple virtual machines simultaneously. Which CPU technology should be selected so that the processor can utilize two logical cores?

Dedicated GPU
Hyper Threading
32-bit CPU
Multi Core processor

A

Hyper threading

OBJ-3.4: HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. This allows the system to run multiple cores for each operating system in a virtualized environment. Since the question asked about logical cores and not physical cores, the answer is hyperthreading and not a multi-core processor. A 32-bit CPU is a hardware item and used by low-end notebooks or thin clients. A dedicated GPU is a graphics card and would not help with running multiple virtual machines.

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34
Q

You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices?

HTTPS
IMAP
POP3
SMTP

A

IMAP

OBJ-1.4: You should configure IMAP because it will leave the email on the server and allow for synchronizing the mail to all devices, including each email’s read state. If you configure POP3, the mail is downloaded to the device and removed the mail from the server’s mailbox by default. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

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35
Q

Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose in order to deliver virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet on a per-user license basis?

SaaS
PaaS
DaaS
IaaS

A

DaaS

OBJ-4.1: Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription. DaaS is often combined with Virtual Desktop Infrastructure. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis. Software as a Service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.

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36
Q

You are connecting a laptop to a brand new digital high definition TV. Unfortunately, the laptop is a little outdated and only has an analog display output. Which of the following adapters could you use to convert the signal from analog to digital for use with the new television?

VGA to DVI-D
DVI-D to HDMI
S-Video to RCA
HDMI to VGA

A

VGA to DVI-D

OBJ-3.1: Since this question asks you to select the converter that can convert a signal from analog to digital, you need to consider which of the connectors are analog and digital. S-Video, RCA, and VGA are all analog. HDMI and DVI-D are both digital. Therefore, the correct answer is VGA (analog) to DVI-D (Digital). HDMI to VGS would be digital to analog. S-Video to RCA would be analog to analog. DVI-D to HDMI would be digital to digital.

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37
Q

Your computer keeps losing track of time and the date in the system. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this issue?

The memory is corrupted
Power supply is faulty
CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced
The motherboard’s device drivers need to be updated

A

CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced

OBJ-5.2: Most motherboards (especially older ones) have a small coin-sized battery installed on them to power the CMOS RAM when the computer is powered down. This is where the BIOS settings and date/time are saved when power is removed from a workstation. If a computer continually loses track of the day/time, this is a classic sign that the CMOS battery is dead and needs to be replaced. Please note that some newer motherboards have replaced the need for a CMOS battery by replacing it with an area of nonvolatile memory used instead to store the BIOS settings and the date/time. Most CMOS batteries last for three years.

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38
Q

A computer technician is replacing a failed power supply in a customer’s gaming workstation that contains multiple hard drives and a dedicated graphics card. Which of the following are the two most important things for the technician to consider when selecting a power supply replacement for this system? (Select TWO)

Wattage rating
Dual Rail
Number and types of connectors
Dual Voltage

A

Wattage Rating,
Number and types of Connectors

OBJ-3.5: The technician must ensure that they select a new power supply with a high enough wattage rating and the right number/type of connectors. Since this is a gaming workstation with several hard drives and a dedicated graphics card, it is likely to require a large wattage rating and many connectors. Wattage defines the amount of power needed to power all the hardware in the system. The number of connectors defines the number of devices that can be powered from the power supply. The number of connectors defines the types of devices that can be powered from the power supply.

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39
Q

During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true?

A virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancing
A virtual machine has more downtime than a physical server
A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server
Both a virtual machine and a physical server has the same downtime

A

A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server

OBJ-4.1: A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.

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40
Q

You are installing a new projector in a customer’s home theater room. After connecting the projector and powering it on, you notice some odd debris displayed on the screen. Which of the following should you do to correct this

Adjust incorrect color pattern
Clean artifacts on the protective glass
Degauss the projector
Replace the bulb with the correct lumens

A

Clean artifacts on the protective glass

OBJ-5.4: Based on the situation described, there appears to be some odd debris being displayed on the screen. This sounds like some artifacts or debris on the lens or protective glass of the projector. If this is cleaned, the image should be resolved back to a clear picture. This is the first and cheapest option to attempt. If this doesn’t work, then you may need to replace the bulb since a failing bulb can create artifacts, as well.

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41
Q

Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network?

445
443
389
425
427

A

427

OBJ-2.1: The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.

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42
Q

Which of the following technologies can provide the precise latitude and longitude of a device’s location when it is located outdoors?

GPS
WiFi
Cellular
Bluetooth

A

GPS

OBJ-1.4: Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. A mobile device can use its internal GPS, cellular, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi radios to identify its location. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver’s position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). The device’s GPS receiver can provide an accurate location up to 10 meters. Cellular radios can provide an approximate location based upon the triangulation of your position between different cellular towers. Bluetooth can be used within a building to provide an accurate of the device within 3-4 meters. Wi-Fi positioning systems use the signal strength or angle of arrival of a signal to determine the device’s location within 1-4 meters. The use of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi to determine the device’s location is known as an internal positioning system (IPS).

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43
Q

Tim, a help desk technician, receives a call from a frantic executive who states that their company-issued smartphone was stolen during their lunch meeting with a rival company’s executive. Tim quickly checks the MDM administration tool and identifies that the user’s smartphone is still communicating with the MDM, and displays its location on a map. What should Tim do next to ensure the stolen device’s data remains confidential and inaccessible to the thief?

Remotely encrypt the device
Perform a remote wipe of the device
Reset the device’s password
Identify the IP address of the smartphone

A

Perform a remote wipe of the device

OBJ-1.4: To ensure the data remains confidential and is not accessed by the thief, Tim should perform a remote wipe of the device from the MDM. This will ensure any corporate data is erased before anyone accesses it. Additionally, Tim could reset the device’s password, but if the thief can guess or crack the password, they would have access to the data. Identifying the smartphone’s IP address is not a useful step in protecting the data on the device. Additionally, devices should be encrypted BEFORE they are lost or stolen, not after. Therefore, the option to remotely encrypt the device is provided as a wrong answer and a distractor.

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44
Q

Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default?

427
3389
389
53

A

389

OBJ-2.1: The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The service location protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.

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45
Q

You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of “OS not found” is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error?

Replace the HDD with an SSD
Perform a chkdsk
Repair the GPT
Repartition the drive

A

Repair the GPT (Globally Unique Partition Table)

OBJ-5.3: The “OS not found” error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the ‘bootrec /fixboot’ command to fix the GPT.

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46
Q

Which cellular technology is comprised of HSPA+ and EV-DO to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols?

LTE
4G
5G
3G

A

3G

OBJ-1.4: 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps. 5G cellular technology is made up of three different types: low-band, mid-band, and high-band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an average speed of 55 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps. Mid-band 5G reaches an average speed of 150 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 1.5 Gbps. High-band 5G reaches an average speed of 3 Gbps with a theoretical speed of up to 70 Gbps.

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47
Q

Which of the following types of USB connections can support up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device?

USB 2.0
USB 1.1
USB 3.0
USB 1.0

A

USB 3.0

OBJ-3.1: USB 3.0 can support providing up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

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48
Q

Johnny is trying to download a file from a remote FTP server but keeps receiving an error that a connection cannot be opened. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve the problem?

Flush the DNS cache on the local workstation
Validate the security certificate from the host
Ensure that port 161 is open
Ensure that port 20 is open

A

Ensure that port 20 is open

OBJ-5.7: Executing an FTP connection from a client is a two-stage process requiring the use of two different ports. Once the user enters the name of the server and the login credentials in the FTP client’s authorization fields, the FTP connection is attempted over port 21. Once the connection is established, FTP sends the data over port 20 back to the client from the server. For FTP to function properly, you should have both ports 20 and 21 open.

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49
Q

A client has a workstation with a RAID 5 configuration and reports that slower than normal performance occurs when reading/writing files to the RAID. You run a diagnostic program against the RAID, and the system passes all of the diagnostic tests without any issues. While you are running the tests, though, you heard clicking noises coming from the RAID. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the slow performance being experienced by the client?

SSD
Cooling Fan
Hard Drive
RAID controller

A

Hard Drive

OBJ-5.3: Based on the symptoms described, the RAID itself is fully functional, so the RAID controller is not causing any problems. This could be caused by a failing hard drive or the system overheating due to the slow performance. Since there is a clicking noise, this is most likely a hard drive failure since a cooling fan makes a whirring or grinding noise instead. Therefore, we can assume the RAID is made up of magnetic hard drives, and one of those hard disks is starting to fail. To replace the hard drive, you need to find a comparable drive that will work in the array, reboot the computer, and enter the RAID setup program to rebuild the array after replacing that hard drive. If you use a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10, the system will continue to operate normally, but with slower performance, until you replace the hard drive and rebuild the RAID.

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50
Q

Which of the following is used to capture the logs from different devices across the network to correlate different events across multiple servers and clients?

DNS Server
DHCP Server
Proxy Server
Syslog Server

A

Syslog server

OBJ-2.4: A Syslog server is used to capture logs from different devices. It allows for the correlation of logs to simplify log review and an analyst’s ability to respond to alerts. For example, Syslog messages can be generated by Cisco routers and switches, servers and workstations, and collected in a central database for viewing and analysis. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture.

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51
Q

You are setting up a projector and a laptop for a big presentation in the Dion Training conference room. You start up the presentation software and mirror the laptop’s display to the projector. The image on the screen from the projector is flickering intermittently, but the image on the laptop’s display is working with no issues. You attempt to change the laptop’s resolution to a lower setting and a higher setting, but still, the projector’s flickering persists. Which of the following steps should you attempt NEXT?

Change the color depth setting on the projector
Change the aspect ratio from 16:9 to 4:3 on the laptop
Ensure the display cable is securely connected to both the projector and the laptop
Ensure the projector’s power cable is connected securely

A

Ensure the display cable is securely connected to the projector and the laptop

OBJ-5.4: A flickering image on a projector is a common issue that can occur if the display cable between the laptop and the projector is not connected securely. This is especially common with older-style display cables like VGA and DVI. Therefore, it is important to ensure a VGA or DVI cable is properly secured using the cable’s thumbscrews to prevent flickering of the image.

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52
Q

What describes how many times the image on the monitor changes per second?

Frame Rate
Refresh Rate
Aspect Ratio
Resolution

A

Refresh Rate

OBJ-1.2: Refresh rate is defined by the vertical scan frequency of a monitor and how many times in one second an image can be redrawn on the screen. LCD monitors have a fixed refresh rate based on the specifications of their panel. Generally, a monitor is rated with a refresh rate of 60 Hz, 72 Hz, or 120 Hz, with the higher refresh rate being considered better quality and easier on the user’s eyes. For high-performance gaming systems, a 120 Hz monitor is desired for smoother motion and graphics. The aspect ratio is defined as the ratio of width to height in a display. The frame rate is defined as the number of times the image in a video stream changes per second as expressed in Hertz (Hz) or Frames per Second (fps). The yaw rate is a made-up term for the exam and is used as a distractor in this question. The resolution is the measure of the number of picture elements (pixels) that an imaging device can use to sample or display the image as measured in pixels per inch (PPI).

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53
Q

Dion Training uses a large laser printer to print documents in its office. The laser printer has recently begun creating printouts that contain a double image or ghost image appearance to them. Jason just printed out a test page, Which of the following components is most likely to cause a ghost image to appear on the printout such as the one above?

Scanner Assembly
Toner cartridge
Fuser
Drum

A

Drum

OBJ-5.6: Double images or ghost printing occurs when an image or text is repeated more than once on a printed page. This often occurs due to an issue with the drum unit. If the drum unit is not being properly charged by the corona wire, ghost prints can become a problem with the unit.

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54
Q

Your laptop currently has a 128 GB SSD installed and currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Still, you don’t want to sacrifice data access speed for increased storage. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to store more data while maintaining fast data access speeds?

3TB HDD
5TB NAS
1TB SSD
50TB SAN

A

1TB SSD

OBJ-1.1: Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the storage’s speed being installed and not the storage size. Therefore, we should choose the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) over the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) due to its faster speeds.

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55
Q

You are trying to select the best device to install to proactively stop outside attackers from reaching your internal network. Which of the following devices would be the BEST for you to select?

Proxy Server
IPS
Syslog Server
IDS

A

IPS or Intrusion prevention system

OBJ-2.4: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a form of network security that detects and prevents identified threats. Intrusion prevention systems continuously monitor your network, looking for possible malicious incidents, and capturing information about them. An IPS can block malicious network traffic, unlike an IDS, which can only log them. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.

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56
Q

You are attempting to troubleshoot a computer for a user. When you attempt to turn on the computer by pressing the power button, the computer turns on, and the fan spins normally. There is no output displayed on the screen from the PCIe x16 video card. You turn off the computer, remove the processor and the memory, and attempt to power on the computer again. During the boot-up sequence, you do not hear any POST beep codes, but the fans still spin normally. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his issue?

The CMOS battery needs to be replaced
The motherboard has failed and needs to be replaced
The power supply’s voltage switch is set to 240V, but the power outlet is providing 110V
The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer

A

The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer

OBJ-5.2: If your computer won’t boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won’t start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). One of the reasons your computer won’t boot but the fans spin could be a bad processor or memory chip. To isolate this as a reason, you should remove the processor and memory and then attempt to boot up the computer and listen for a POST beep code. In this case, we could eliminate the motherboard, processor, and memory as the issue’s source since no POST beep codes were heard. Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot.

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57
Q

Which of the following is the MOST dangerous type of threat when using virtualization?

VM Escape
Rogue VM
VM Sprawl
Virtual NIC duplication

A

VM escape

OBJ-4.2: VM escape refers to malware running on a guest OS jumping to another guest or the host. As with any other software type, it is vital to keep the hypervisor code up-to-date with patches for critical vulnerabilities. VM escape is the biggest threat to virtualized systems. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. VM sprawl is the uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs.

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58
Q

Which of the following DC voltages are not found within a printer when the laser printer converts AC power into DC power for use?

-5 VDC
+5 VDC
-24 VDC
+24 VDC

A

-24 VDC

OBJ-3.7: The DCPS (DC Power Supply/Source) of a laser printer is used to convert high voltage AC into lower voltage DC for the printer. The DCPS converts 115VAC or 220VAC power into +5 VDC and -5 VDC for use by the printer’s logic board, and +24 VDC to power the motors that feed the paper through the printing path in the last printer.

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59
Q

You are building a virtualization environment to host several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to the local corporate network and communicate with the host operating system, the other VMs, and the internal network clients. Still, they should not have access to the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?

Private
Internal
External
LocalHost

A

Internal

OBJ-4.2: If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

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60
Q

A network technician connects three temporary office trailers with a point-to-multipoint microwave radio solution in a wooded area. The microwave radios are up, and the network technician can ping network devices in all of the office trailers. However, users are complaining that they are experiencing sporadic connectivity. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

Split horizon
Throttling
Interference
Latency

A

Interference

OBJ-5.7: Microwave links require a direct line of sight (LoS) between the antennas to maintain a strong and effective link. These line-of-sight microwave link uses highly directional transmitter and receiver antennas to communicate via a narrowly focused radio beam. Since this microwave-based network is being run in a wooded area, there are likely some trees or leaves that are blocking the line of sight between the antennas. To solve this issue, they should trim the trees and branches to provide a clear light of sight or move the antennas to reestablish a clear line of sight. Latency is the time delay between when a packet is sent and received. While latency will increase with an obstructed microwave line of sight link, latency is an effect of this issue and not the cause of the issue. Throttling is the intentional slowing or speeding of an internet service by an Internet service provider to regulate network traffic and minimize bandwidth congestion. This again is not a cause of intermittent connectivity, but would instead occur if the microwave link was overutilized beyond its SLA contract limitations. Split horizon is a form of route advertisement that prohibits a router from advertising back a route to the same interface from which it learned it. This does not affect the issues experienced with the microwave line. Another way to approach this question is to use the process of elimination: throttling slows down the speed, and latency slows down speed even further. Split horizon prevents loops, so it only makes sense that interference is the correct choice since interference can cause drops in connections in many situations.

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61
Q

Which of the following devices have most of the same functionality as a personal computer but can be operated with a single hand?

Smartphone
Smartwatch
Laptop
Tablet

A

Smartphone

OBJ-1.4: A smartphone is a device with roughly the same functionality as a personal computer operated with a single hand. Most smartphones have a screen size between 4.5” and 5.7”. Leading smartphones provide high-resolution screens. Smartphones have fast multicore CPUs, anywhere between 2 and 6 GB system memory, and 16 GB+ flash memory storage. They come with premium front and back digital cameras, input sensors like accelerometers, and Global Positioning System (GPS) chips. They can establish network links using Wi-Fi and a cellular data plan. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A smartwatch is not a replacement for a laptop or desktop, but a high-end smartphone can be.

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62
Q

On Tuesday evening, the company just pushed a new Windows 10 security update to all of its workstations. On Wednesday morning, the help desk receives numerous complaints about the network being slower than normal. Previously, the network was baselined at 1 Gbps as each workstation uses a wired CAT 6 connection. Today, a technician ran a speed test and saw the network was only reaching speeds of 100 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the network slowdown?

The incorrect DNS server configuration is being used
The network card drivers were updated last night
The network was reconfigured from DHCP to static
The incorrect DHCP server configuration is being used

A

The network card drivers were updated last night

OBJ-5.7: Often, security updates, patches, and upgrades will reconfigure a network card’s drivers during a Windows security update. If this happens, the system may revert to a more generic version of the driver, decreasing speeds from 1 Gbps to 100 Mbps. The network card’s drivers should be rolled back to the previous driver to restore functionality and correct it. If there were configuration changes to the DNS or DHCP server, it would limit connectivity completely instead of simply slowing down the connection. If the network changed from DHCP to static assignments, the workstations would not get an APIPA address and would not have connected to the network at a slower speed.

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63
Q

Which of the following statements about an eSATA connection is correct?

eSATA is slower than USB 3.0
eSATA uses unshielded cables
eSATA is used to add additional internal devices
eSATA is used to add additional external devices

A

eSATA is used to add additional external devices

OBJ-3.1: The External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (or eSATA) is used for connecting external drives to provide additional storage. When connecting a cable to an eSATA port, you must use a shielded cable. SATA is an internal connector for adding storage, while eSATA is reserved for external use. USB 3.0 can operate at speeds up to 5 Gbps, while eSATA can operate at speeds of up to 6 Gbps.

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64
Q

What type of cloud model would allow the sharing of resources by multiple organizations to create a service that benefits all of its members?

A

Community Cloud

OBJ-4.1: A community cloud in computing is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns, whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. Community Cloud is a hybrid form of private cloud. They are multi-tenant platforms that enable different organizations to work on a shared platform. Community Cloud may be hosted in a data center, owned by one of the tenants, or by a third-party cloud services provider and can be either on-site or off-site. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.

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65
Q

Which of the following type of hard disk drives would be installed in a low-end office desktop?

7200 rpm
15,000 rpm
5400 rpm
10,000 rpm

A

5400 rpm

OBJ-3.3: Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used instead.

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66
Q

Which of the following ports is used by SNMP by default?

25
53
161
139

A

161

OBJ-2.1: The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.

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67
Q

A customer recently purchased a touchscreen laptop to use for her schoolwork. It has been working well for about 3 weeks, but today she has brought it into your store for repair because it is not working properly. When she touches an icon on the screen, the program fails to load. You look over the laptop, and the screen appears to be fully intact with no dark blobs or spider web cracks in the panel. You attempt to operate the laptop using the touchscreen, but it appears non-responsive to your touch. You can, however, click on the icons using the laptop’s touchpad without any issues. Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced?

GPU
LCD panel
Inverter
Digitizer

A

Digitizer

OBJ-1.2: The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. The LCD screen is the panel that is inside the device, which displays the image. You cannot get to the LCD without taking the device apart first. When only the touch screen is broken, you should still see what is happening on the screen, and the screen should still function as normal. When only the LCD is broken, you can still use the touchscreen, but the panel will have dark blobs or spider web cracks (or both). When both LCD and touchscreen are damaged, you may still be able to use portions of the touchscreen, and some parts of the LCD may display the image, but you will incur obvious difficulties in using the device as normal. The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.

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68
Q

Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP?

DHCP
HTTPS
TFTP
SNMP

A

HTTPS

OBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over TCP port 443. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper). The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.

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69
Q

What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?

Public
Loopback
Broadcast
Multicast

A

Loopback

OBJ-2.5: In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1. The loopback address is used to send a test signal sent to a network destination to diagnose problems. A broadcast address is an IP address that is used to target all systems on a specific subnet network instead of single hosts. A multicast address is a logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network that are available to process datagrams or frames intended to be multicast for a designated network service. The address shown is not a broadcast or multicast address. A public address is routable over the internet but ::1 is a loopback address and therefore not publicly routable on the internet.

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70
Q

You and your friends are hanging out in a bar downtown and notice that the entire area around the bar has a great wireless network called “Downtown Metro.” This wireless network was built by the city and currently covers about 5 square blocks of the downtown area. What type of network best classifies this wireless network?

PAN
LAN
WAN
MAN

A

MAN

OBJ-2.7: A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. This usually works by providing municipal broadband via Wi-Fi to large parts or all of a municipal area by deploying a wireless mesh network. A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. The typical deployment design uses hundreds of wireless access points deployed outdoors, often on poles. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.

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71
Q

You just heard of a new ransomware attack that has been rapidly spreading across the internet that takes advantage of a vulnerability in the Windows SMB protocol. To protect your network until Microsoft releases a security update, you want to block the port for SMB at your firewall to prevent becoming a victim of this attack. Which of the following ports should you add to your blocklist?

514
123
445
143

A

445

OBJ-2.1: Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 139 and 445, and is a network file sharing protocol that runs on top of the NetBIOS architecture in Windows environments. When the WannaCry ransomware was spreading rapidly across the internet, you could help protect your organization’s network by blocking ports 139 and 445 at your firewall to prevent your machines from getting infected over the internet. Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses port 123 and is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.

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72
Q

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the power supply needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?

Incorrect date/time on the workstation
Burning smell
Distended capacitors
Continuous reboot

A

Burning Smell

OBJ-5.2: A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

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73
Q

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a CAT 5e network cable?

RJ11
F Type
RJ45
Molex

A

RJ 45

OBJ-3.1: RJ-45 refers to a cable termination specification that specifies physical male and female connectors and the pin assignments of data jacks that can be used for networks and VOIP telephone cables. RJ-45 is an 8-pin/8-position plug or jack commonly used to connect computers onto Ethernet-based local area networks (LAN) and consists of two wiring schemes: T568A and T568B. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A Molex connector is used to provide power to internal components of a computer from the power supply.

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74
Q

Tamera was responding to a complaint that one of the employees is having problems with the wired network connection on their laptop. She investigated the issue to see why it will not connect to the network. Tamera looked at the indicator lights, but she doesn’t see the blinking she expected to view. Instead, the light is steady. What is MOST likely the issue?

Intermittent connectivity
Low RF signal
No network connectivity
Incorrect TCP/IP configuration

A

No network connectivity

OBJ-5.7: If the lights are steady on a network interface card (NIC), it indicates that there is no network activity. If it is blinking, this indicates that data is passing over the NIC to the network. Even if there were an incorrect TCP/IP configuration or intermittent connectivity, there would be blinking lights to indicate transmission attempts. Since this is a wired network connection, it cannot be a low RF signal as that is a wireless network problem.

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75
Q

Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access http://www.diontraining.com but can access https://www.diontraining.com?

445
53
443
80

A

80

OBJ-2.1: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the basis for the World Wide Web. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. A client connects to the HTTP server using its TCP port (the default is port 80) and submits a resource request using a Uniform Resource Locator (URL). HTTPS (HTTP Secure) uses port 443. In this question, it states that the user can access HTTPS but not HTTP, indicating that port 80 is blocked. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.

76
Q

Dion Security Group has established a Security Operations Center (SOC) that operates 24/7. They have several 65” plasma TVs at the front of the room that are used as computer displays to show open tickets. You turned off the televisions to clean the screens and noticed that the company logo is still visible in each of the screens’ upper left corners. Which of the following should you do to correct this?

Degauss the television
Replace the plasma TVs
Replace the video card
Replace the HDMI cable

A

Replace the Plasma TVs

OBJ-5.4: The logo in the upper left corner has been burned into the display since it is a static image. This is common with plasma displays and TVs. To fix this, you need to replace the TVs. If you plan to have a lot of static content on a display, you should use an OLED or LED display instead. If burn-in was experienced on old CRT monitors, you could run a degaussing program to erase the burn-in. Unfortunately, this will not work for plasma, LED, or OLED displays, though.

77
Q

Jason has just returned to his office after vacation and is attempting to access diontraining.com. He receives an error that he cannot connect to the website. He then tries to connect to the company’s local intranet server, which he can connect to without any issues. Next, he pings the IP address for diontraining.com and gets a successful connection. Finally, he tries to ping diontraining.com by its domain name, and then he receives an error. Which of the following commands should Jason enter NEXT to try and resolve this issue?

ipconfig/release
ipconfig/renew
ipconfig/all
ipconfig/flushdns

A

ipconfig/flushdns

OBJ-5.7: Whenever you have an issue where you can ping the server’s IP, but you cannot access it by its domain name, it has something to do with DNS. Being able to troubleshoot issues with internet connections is an important part of being an IT technician or administrator. The ipconfig /flushdns command provides you with a means to flush and reset the contents of the DNS client resolver cache. During DNS troubleshooting, if necessary, you can use this procedure to discard negative cache entries from the cache, as well as, any other dynamically added entries. Resetting the cache does not eliminate entries that are preloaded from the local Hosts file. To eliminate those entries from the cache, remove them from the hosts.ini file instead.

78
Q

You just rebooted your Windows 10 workstation, and the desktop’s background picture looks strange. Upon closer examination, you notice that only a few hundred unique colors are being shown in the image. Which of the following settings should you reconfigure?

Refresh rate
Color depth
Resolution
App size

A

Color depth

OBJ-5.4: Color depth is either the number of bits used to indicate the color of a single pixel in a bitmapped image or video frame buffer or the number of bits used for each color component in a single pixel. In Windows 10, you can display up to 32-bits of color depth if your monitor supports it. A larger color depth number allows more unique colors to be displayed. If you only have 4-bit color, for example, you can only have 16 colors. With an 8-bit color depth, you can see 256 colors. Normally, most Windows systems are set to 16-bit (65,536 colors), 24-bit (16.7 million colors), or 32-bit (4.2 billion colors).

79
Q

Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv4 address?

192.168.1.254
192:168:1:55
00:AB:FA:B1:07:34
::1

A

192.168.1.254

OBJ-2.5: An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost.

80
Q

Dion Consulting Group is working with a new laptop manufacturer. The manufacturer wants to create the thinnest and lightest laptops in the world. To do this, they need to choose the right technology for their displays. Which technology should Dion Consulting recommend to allow for the thinnest laptop displays?

LED
IPS
LCD
OLED

A

OLED

OBJ-1.2: An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as a darker room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. A light-emitting diode (LED) display is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source.

81
Q

You work for the city’s Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV). There are five DMV locations spread out across the city that you have been asked to connect with a network. You have created a list of requirements for this network, including that it must be wired and support at least 1 Gbps of bandwidth. Which of the following network types would MOST likely be used for the DMV to connect their internal networks across the city securely?

PAN
MAN
WAN
LAN

A

MAN

OBJ-2.7: A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. This is the most appropriate choice based on the requirements provided. MAN is a term applied to the interconnection of local area networks (LANs) or campus area networks (CANs) across a city into a single larger network. A MAN is larger than a CAN or LAN but smaller than a WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.

82
Q

Your friend just gave you his old laptop. Whenever you turn on the laptop, though, a blank screen appears and asks you to enter an administrative password before the computer attempts to boot up. Unfortunately, your friend never gave you the password for this laptop. Which of the following actions should you take to resolve this issue and get past this password screen?

Remove the CMOS battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, and then power on the laptop
Remove the laptop’s battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, and then power on the laptop
Press and hold the power button down for a few minutes, then attempt to power on the laptop
Disconnect the hard drive from the motherboard for a few minutes, reconnect it , and then power on the laptop

A

Remove the CMOS battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery and then power on the laptop

OBJ-5.2: This blank screen asking for the administrative password appears to be a BIOS password required to be entered before the laptop is allowed to boot from the hard disk. Your best option is to clear the CMOS forcibly to remove the BIOS password from a workstation or laptop. To clear the CMOS, you must remove the CMOS battery from your computer, wait a few minutes, reinsert the CMOS battery, and then attempt to power on the computer again. This will cause the information stored in the CMOS (for example, BIOS settings and passwords) to be erased and restored to its default configuration. Removing and reinserting the laptop’s battery will not reset the BIOS password. Disconnecting and reconnecting the hard drive will not reset the BIOS password.

83
Q

You want to build a new gaming computer but intend to reuse as many of the parts as possible from your old computer. You have determined that the motherboard and the case will be reused, and you will purchase a new graphics card, sound card, network interface card, and a USB 3.0 expansion card to increase your system’s overall speed and performance. You are a bit worried that your old computer’s power supply may not be able to support all of these new expansion cards.
Which of the following cards is MOST likely to consume the most power during operations and require you to purchase a new power supply to support it?

USB 3.0
Sound Card
Graphics Card
NIC

A

Graphics Card

84
Q

You are trying to install Hyper-V on a new laptop, but you keep receiving an error during installation that the software cannot be installed. Which of the following characteristics of the laptop’s processor should you investigate as the MOST likely issue?

Virtualization (VT) support
Number of cores available
Cache size
Hyper-threading (HT) technology

A

Virtualization (VT) support

Obj 3.4 CPU Virtualization is a hardware feature found in all current AMD & Intel CPUs that allows a single processor to act as if it was multiple individual CPUs. This allows an operating system to more effectively & efficiently utilize the computer’s CPU power to run faster. This is enabled or disabled on supported processors within your system’s BIOS. HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits.

85
Q

You are building a new server and want to ensure that its memory can allow the server to continue working even if there is an issue that corrupts data held within the memory modules. Which of the following types of memory should you select for the server?

Non-Parity
Single-channel
ECC
Dual Channel

A

ECC

Obj 3.2 Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops.

86
Q

You are troubleshooting a workstation with four identical memory sticks installed, one in each of the slots labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4. The motherboard has a marking near the memory slots that says, “quad-channel support.” Based on what you observe, how many channels are being used by the motherboard’s memory?

A

Four Channels

Obj 3.2 Since the motherboard says it supports quad-channel, and four sticks of memory are installed, it would be using four channels. By using a motherboard that supports a quad-channel memory controller, the motherboard is able to transfer up to 256-bits of memory per transactions (4 x 64-bits) to increase the bandwidth available for data transfer.

87
Q

Which of the following types of memory relies on temporary storage space on the hard drive that is used when there is insufficient physical memory available to perform a given task?

VRAM
SODIMM
Virtual Memory
ECC

A

Virtual Memory

Obj 3.2 Virtual memory is an area on the hard disk allocated to contain pages of memory. When the operating system doesn’t have sufficient physical memory (RAM) to perform a task, pages of memory are swapped to the paging file. This frees physical RAM to enable the task to be completed. When the paged RAM is needed again, it is re-read into memory. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display.

88
Q

Which of the following types of display connectors uses a thunderbolt cable and was designed as a competitor to HDMI?

VGA
DisplayPort
eSATA
DVI

A

DisplayPort

Obj 3.1 DisplayPort uses a thunderbolt cable to connect a monitor to the computer. DisplayPort supports both copper and fiber-optic cabling. DisplayPort was created as a royalty-free standard to compete with HDMI. The digital video interface (DVI) was designed to replace the VGA port used by CRT monitors.

89
Q

Which version of USB can operate at speeds of up to 5 Gbps?

A

USB 3

Obj 3.1 USB 3 can support speeds of up to 5 Gbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

90
Q

What is the max length of a USB 3.0 cable if you want to use it at full speed?

A

3 meters (9ft)

91
Q

What is the max length of a USB 2.0 cable if you want to use it at full speed?

A

5 meters (15ft)

92
Q

What is the max transfer rate of USB 3.2 Gen 2?

A

10Gbps

93
Q

What is the max transfer rate of USB 3.2 Gen 2x2?

A

20Gbps

94
Q

Longer cables are more likely to have what? (select three)

Higher chances of resistance
Speed increase
Speed deterioration
Signal deterioration

A

Higher chances of resistance
Speed deterioration
Signal deterioration

95
Q

True/False A short cable will give you more performance

A

True

96
Q

A user wants to charge their iPad as fast as possible before a meeting. He plugs it into a USB 2.0 port in his PC, but it seems to be charging slowly. The user contacts I.T., based on this information which option provides the BEST solution for the user?

Plug the iPad to an available USB 3.0 port on PC
Plug the iPad to a wall outlet
Use another USB 2.0 port since the original is having issues
Plug the iPad to an available USB 3.0 port and turn on airplane mode on the iPad

A

Plug the iPad to a wall outlet

USB 2.0 is limited to 0.2 amps of power. USB 3.0 is limited to 0.9 amps (4.5 watts) of power, vs the wall outlet providing 2.0 amps of power to the device.

97
Q

What ports do FTP and SFTP utilize?

21,22
22,23
20,21
21,23

A

21,22

OBJ-2.1: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22. Port 23 is used by Telnet. If this were a question on the real exam, you would see a list of ports on one side and a list of protocols on the other, and you would drag and drop each one to match them up. (It might also have 4-6 different pairs to match up.)

98
Q

Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101?

Unmanaged Switch
Hub
Wireless Access Point (WAP)
Router

A

Router

OBJ-5.7: A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate.

A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.

99
Q

Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee’s office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee?

Install the Operating System
Install the necessary applications
Connect the device to a second monitor
Connect the thin client to a printer
Install the latest security updates
Connect the thin client to the network

A

Install the necessary applications
Install the latest security updates
Connect the thin client to the network

OBJ-4.2: A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.

100
Q

When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following hardware types is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network?

VDI
VNC
VPN
Virtual NIC

A

Virtual NIC

OBJ-4.2: A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.

101
Q

Which of the following is used when a CDMA smartphone attempts to connect to the cellular network while traveling? (Select ANY that apply)

PRL
Firmware
Baseband
PRI

A

PRL
PRI

OBJ-1.4: The PRI and PRL must be updated and referenced when traveling. The preferred roaming index (PRI) is an index that works with the PRL to provide the best data/voice quality to a phone while roaming. The preferred roaming list (PRL) is a database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower. The baseband is the embedded operating system in the firmware of a smartphone or other cellular device. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types. The baseband and firmware would not be updated or changed based on your location. The baseband is changed or updated when a security update is needed.

102
Q

Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow for both onsite systems and cloud services to work together seamlessly. What type of cloud model should you recommend?

A

Hybrid Cloud

OBJ-4.1: A hybrid cloud model allows for the seamless integration of both onsite and cloud services to the end-user simultaneously. Hybrid clouds can be cost-efficient, flexible, easy to migrate to a complete cloud solution in the future, and require less maintenance than completely onsite options.

103
Q

Which of the following cables supports both charging and data transfer with a non-directional connector inserted into a port on the device?

Mini-USB
USB A
USB C
Micro-USB

A

USB C

OBJ-3.1: USB-C can be inserted in any direction since it is designed as a non-directional connector. There are many other variations of USB cables in use today such as Micro-USB, Mini-USB, USB-A, and USB-B that can only be inserted into the port in a single direction due to the physical shape of their connector. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops.

104
Q

Jason is building a new gaming computer for his son. Jason has calculated that the required wattage needed is 420 watts to the video card and all of the other internal devices. Which of the following power supplies should Jason purchase to meet the minimum power requirements for this computer?

750 W
350 W
525 W
250 W

A

525 W

OBJ-3.5: When purchasing a new power supply, it is important to understand the wattage requirements. Since the new computer needs a minimum of 420 watts of power, you must find a power supply that is large enough to meet this demand. In this case, the minimum rating that would meet this requirement is the 525-watt power supply. If a power supply doesn’t have a high enough wattage rating to provide the power needed, some or all of the devices will not power on or function properly. If a power supply is chosen that is too large, it will generate excessive heat that can overheat the computer and its components.

105
Q

Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device?

802.3at
802.11ac
802.3af
802.11s

A

802.3af

OBJ-2.2: Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.

106
Q

What is the name of the networking protocol used by macOS to find available printers on the network to use?

A

Bonjour

OBJ-3.6: Bonjour, Apple’s zero-configuration networking protocol, automates certain aspects of network configuration; the protocol enables devices connected to the local area network to discover and connect automatically. Businesses can use Bonjour to make the sharing of files and devices easier; the technology works with wired and wireless LANs. After enabling Bonjour on a workstation, other computers on the network can detect and install printers or scanners attached to the workstation or access files from shared folders.

107
Q

Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass?

Transfer roller
Pick Roller
Duplexing assembly
Transfer belt

A

Transfer belt

OBJ-3.7: The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.

108
Q

Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one?

Cellular card
DC Jack
Screen
Battery

A

DC Jack

OBJ-1.1: It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.

109
Q

On Saturdays, your best friend goes to the local farmer’s market to sell his homemade craft root beer. He wants to add the ability to take credit card payments from customers on his mobile phone. Which of the following devices should he purchase and configure?

DB-9 reader
Bluetooth Reader
Memory Card Reader
IR Reader

A

Bluetooth Reader

OBJ-1.3: A Bluetooth card reader can be used to capture the purchaser’s credit card details. These Bluetooth card readers may support magnetic card reading capabilities (swiping a card), smart chip reading capabilities (chip and pin), or even NFC reading capabilities (Google Pay, Apple Pay, etc.). For example, in the United States, Square’s mobile payment terminal is popular for small businesses and entrepreneurs. By capturing the credit card details electronically (instead of just typing them in), the merchant pays a lower payment processing fee and saves on credit card fees charged when a customer makes a purchase.

110
Q

The printer in the Dion Training offices routinely has issues anytime there is a power outage. The printer is a multi-function, network-enabled printer that connects directly to the network switch using a CAT 5e cable. Which of the following should you do to resolve this continuing issue?

Configure a static IP for the printer
Disable the SSID broadcast on the wireless access point
Rollback the print drivers on the print server
Update the print drivers on each employee’s machine

A

Configure a static IP for the printer

OBJ-5.7: Since the problem always occurs after a power outage, the printer is likely turning on faster than the DHCP server. This could lead to the printer not getting a new IP address properly or the clients not locating the printer on the network. Therefore, you should configure a static IP for the printer (and any servers) on the network. Servers and shared printers should use a static IP instead of a dynamic assignment to prevent issues.

111
Q

What devices should be configured with static IP’s instead of dynamic IP addresses to prevent issues?

A

Servers and Shared Printers

You should configure a static IP for the printer (and any servers) on the network. Servers and shared printers should use a static IP instead of a dynamic assignment to prevent issues. If there is a power outage it is possible that the printer and servers are back online faster than the DHCP server would be able to.

112
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered part of the Internet of Things?

Smart TV
ICS
SCADA
Laptop

A

Laptop

OBJ-2.4: Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems, industrial control systems (ICS), internet-connected televisions, thermostats, and many other things examples of devices classified as the Internet of Things (IoT). A laptop would be better classified as a computer or host than part of the Internet of Things. The Internet of things (IoT) is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines provided with unique identifiers (UIDs), and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

113
Q

Which of the following is the virtualization technology supported by most modern Intel processors?

VT
Intel-V
AMD-V
HT

A

VT

OBJ-3.4: To use virtualization and have virtual machines running on a single workstation, you need to have a CPU specifically designed to support virtualization. For Intel processors, they must support VT or Virtualization Technology. If you are using an AMD processor, it should support AMD-V (AMD’s virtualization technology). HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. Intel-V is a made-up term used as a distractor on this question.

114
Q

Several users at an adjacent office building report intermittent connectivity issues after a new flag pole was installed between the two offices. The network technician has determined the adjacent office building is connected to the main office building via an 802.11ac bridge. The network technician logs into the AP and confirms the SSID, encryption, and channels are all correct. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue?

Bandwidth saturation
Signal attenuation
Incorrect antenna type
DHCP exhaustion

A

Signal Attenuation

OBJ-5.7: The most likely reason is signal attenuation from the new flag being placed between the signal path which may be obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas. Based on where the flag is precisely located, it is possible to only block the signal when the wind is blowing in a certain direction. This would lead to the intermittent connectivity experienced by the users caused by the signal attenuation when the flag is blocking the communication path between the antennas.
DHCP exhaustion occurs when the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses and stops issuing DHCP bindings. If DHCP exhaustion occurred, the users would not have received an IP address and they would have no connectivity instead of intermittent connectivity. The question does not mention anything about the antennas being moved or replaced recently, so it is unlikely to be an issue with the antennas since they worked previously with the same wireless network and distanced. Bandwidth saturation occurs if too many devices are on one WAN link, but nothing in the question indicates that more users have been added and causing an issue.

115
Q

You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize?

Channel 12
Channel 9
Channel 11
Channel 10

A

Channel 11

OBJ-2.3: With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.

116
Q

You have just installed a second monitor for a salesperson’s workstation. The user wants to clone the display so that both monitors show the exact same image. This will allow them to see one of the displays while their customer sees the other from across their desk. When you connect the second monitor and clone the display, the second monitor displays text twice as large as the other monitor. Which of the following settings should you configure?

Color depth
Refresh rate
Resolution
Extended mode

A

Resolution

OBJ-5.4: Most monitors have a default or native resolution. When you first connect a monitor to a Windows workstation, this native resolution is detected, and Windows attempts to configure itself automatically. If this creates an imbalance between the two monitors, a technician can adjust the screen’s resolution by changing it in the Display settings area of Windows 10. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Refresh rate is the measure of how fast an image can be updated on a monitor or display. If a monitor has a lower refresh rate, then blurring and ghosting can occur. The extended mode allows the Windows output to be stretched across two or more monitors as if they were a single monitor. This can be configured under the Display settings in Windows 10.

117
Q

What type of cloud service provides instant access to servers and switches, quickly provisioned, and available for management over the internet?

A

IaaS

OBJ-4.1: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software.

118
Q

You connect a VOIP device on a user’s desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch?

CAT 6
Coaxial
CAT 3
Fiber

A

CAT 6

OBJ-2.2: VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device’s power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.

119
Q

What is the simplest and most cost-efficient way to allow other network users to access a printer if the printer does not have an RJ-45 or WiFi adapter available?

Order a printer port converter to share a non-networked printer
Establish a printer share on the network switch
Establish a print share on the local host
Order another printer with network capabilities and share it on the network

A

Establish a print share on the local host

OBJ-5.6: The simplest and most cost-efficient way to share a printer is to share the printer via the local host and allow sharing across everyone to access the printer. While this costs nothing to establish and requires no additional hardware, it does require that the local host remains on 24 hours a day so that others can print to it at any time. If you are willing to spend a little money, though, you can purchase a wireless print server or a new network-capable printer instead.

120
Q

Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network?

Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it to the network
Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB
Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround
Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network

A

Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network

OBJ-3.6: The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.

121
Q

You are installing Windows 2019 on a rack-mounted server and hosting multiple virtual machines within the physical server. You just finished the installation and now want to begin creating and provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following should you utilize to allow you to create and provision virtual machines?

Terminal Services
Disk Management
HyperVisor
Device Management

A

Hypervisor

OBJ-4.2: A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor, is a process that creates and runs virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor allows one host computer to support multiple guest VMs by virtually sharing its resources, like memory and processing. To create and provision virtual machines within the Windows 2019 operating system, you can use a Type II hypervisor like VM Ware or VirtualBox. Disk Management is a system utility in Windows that enables you to perform advanced storage tasks. Device Manager is a component of the Microsoft Windows operating system that allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. Remote Desktop Services, known as Terminal Services in Windows Server 2008 and earlier, is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allow a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection.

122
Q

Which of the following network configurations on a virtual machine are used to prevent the VM from accessing the internet, but still allow it to communicate with other VMs on the host and the host itself?

External
Local Host
Internal
Private

A

Internal

OBJ-4.2: Virtual machines can have their network configured as internal to prevent them from communicating with the internet. When configured to internal, the VMs can communicate with each other and the host machine. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

123
Q

You are setting up a new wireless network at the local branch of your community’s public library. Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue?

Disable the Broadcast SSID option for the wireless access point
Enable DHCP inside of your laptop’s network adapter settings
Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS Server
Disable the Windows Firewall to ensure it isn’t blocking your access to the website

A

Verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server.

OBJ-5.7: Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.

124
Q

Jason presents a “how to pass your certification exams on the first attempt” lesson for his students using an overhead projector. After 24 minutes, the project goes blank. Jason allows the students to take a 15-minute coffee break while he attempts to turn the project back on. The project runs for another 4 minutes and then turns off again. What is MOST likely wrong with the projector and the laptop setup?

The laptop’s display driver needs to be updated
The sleep setting on the laptop is too short
The projector is overheating
The HDMI cable is unplugged

A

The projector is overheating

OBJ-5.4: The most likely cause is that the projector is overheating. A faulty or clogged cooling fan could cause this. If the projector overheats, it will turn off the projector’s bulb to reduce the machine’s heat load. The laptop’s sleep setting is not the cause since it is randomly turning off at different amounts of time.

125
Q

Eleanor, a user, contacts the help desk to report that her workstation will not boot up this morning. The help desk technician verifies that the workstation’s memory, power supply, and monitor function properly. The technician believes that the hard drive is not recognized by the system based on an error message displayed on the screen. Which of the following error messages was being displayed?

OS not found
BIOS ROM checksum error
NTLDR not found
No boot device is available

A

No boot device is available

OBJ-5.3: “No boot device available” is an error message that indicates the workstation is not recognizing the hard drive. If the error message were “Operating system not found” or “NTLDR not found,” this would indicate that the hard drive was recognized but that the Windows OS was not installed properly. The “BIOS ROM checksum error” would indicate an issue with the BIOS, not the hard drive.

126
Q

Tom, a salesman, is trying to print a 3-page report to the network printer located in the Sales department’s office space. He walks over to the printer but doesn’t see the pages in the printer’s output tray. He checks the on-screen display of the printer, but he doesn’t see any errors listed. Tom tries a few more times, but he gets the same results. Frustrated, Tom selects the network printer for the Customer Service department and sends his print job there. He walks over to their offices and finds his 3-page report sitting in that printer’s output tray. Tom asks you to help him solve this printing problem. What action should you take FIRST to help solve Tom’s problem?

Stop and Restart the PC’s print spooler service using your admin account
Verify that Tom has been sending the document to the correct network printer’s queue
Ask one of Tom’s coworkers to attempt to print something to the Sales department’s printer to verify it is working properly
Log in to the network’s print server, stop and restart all of the shared printer queue, and then try to reprint the document

A

Verify that Tom has been sending the document to the correct network printer’s queue

OBJ-5.6: The first thing you should do is verify that this problem is not caused by user error. To do this, you should verify which network printer queue Tom had been sending the document to the first few times. You may wish to ask a coworker to print to the Sales department’s printer, but that would be your second step AFTER verifying the user was printing to that print queue properly first. Since the print job was successful once Tom switched to another printer, the PC’s print spooler worked properly, so you don’t need to restart it. You should not restart all of the shared printer queues unless it is necessary because this would affect all company employees and is not necessary to solve this issue.

127
Q

Which of the following is a security concern when dealing with virtual machines?

Resource Pooling
Virtual NIC
symmetric multiprocessing
Rogue VM

A

Rogue VM

OBJ-4.2: The process of developing, testing, and deploying images brings about the first major security concern with the virtual platform itself. This is the problem of rogue VMs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs is referred to as VM sprawl. After all, it is a lot easier to add a guest image to a server than it is to plug a new hardware server into the network. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is the processing of programs by multiple processors that share a common operating system and memory. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs.

128
Q

Dion Training has recently installed a new VoIP telephone service in their offices. The employees are now complaining that their phone calls are being dropped during the middle of their conversations. The company has a single 48-port gigabit ethernet layer 3 switch that supports their desktops, laptops, and VoIP devices. Which of the following should the company do to prevent VoIP calls from dropping?

Increase the MTU
Configure the DHCP server
Enforce MAC filtering
Implement QoS

A

Implement QoS

OBJ-5.7: To prevent the calls from being dropped, quality of service should be implemented on the switch. Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets’ timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads. MAC Filtering refers to a security access control method whereby the MAC address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. MTU is the largest unit that can be transmitted across a network. If the MTU is set at a value above 1500, the network is configured to support jumbo frames.

129
Q

A computer technician tries to determine if a computer with an Intel i7 processor has virtualization enabled to run a second operating system within VirtualBox. Which of the following should be checked to determine if the system can run a virtual machine?

Enable virtualization within the BIOS
Enable virtualization within Windows
Verify AMD-V is installed
Verify Hyper-V is installed

A

Enable virtualization within the BIOS

OBJ-4.2: By checking the settings in the BIOS, it can be determined if virtualization was enabled. For an Intel processor, this option is usually listed as VT (Virtualization Technology). For an AMD processor, this is usually listed as AMD-V. Virtualization allows the system to run another operating system within a virtualized environment, such as VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V.

130
Q

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to create network infrastructures within the cloud?

SDN (Software defined networking)
Digital Subscriber Line
ONT (Optical network Terminal)
Cable Modem

A

SDN or Software defined networking

OBJ-2.2: Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.

131
Q

You have been assigned a trouble ticket for a workstation that is unable to boot. When you arrive at the workstation, you recognize an error message on the screen that reads, “Error loading operating system, BOOTMGR is missing, Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart.” Which of the following actions should you take first?

Reboot the computer and allow it back into Windows
Reboot the computer into recovery mode and initiate the disk restoral process
Reboot the computer into BIOS to see if the boot order is set to HDD
Reboot the computer into Windows 10 repair console and enter “Bootrec/fixmbr” at the command prompt

A

Reboot the computer into Windows 10 repair console and enter “Bootrec/fixmbr” at the command prompt

OBJ-5.3: To troubleshoot the failed boot, you must reboot the computer and enter into recovery mode. In Windows 10, you will need to boot from the installation disc, select “Repair your computer”, and then enter the command-line interface (CLI). From the CLI, enter the command “bootrec /fixmbr” to repair the master boot record. Once completed, reboot the computer and allow it to load into Windows.

132
Q

An auto mechanic needs to purchase a new printer for their shop. The printer will be used to create estimates and invoices for their customers. The printer must support the ability to create duplicate invoices using multiple sheets of paper separated by carbon paper using tractor-fed paper. Which of the following types of printers should be used?

Inkjet
Impact
Laser
Thermal

A

Impact

OBJ-3.7: An impact or dot-matrix printer is an older type of printer that works by pressing a ribbon of ink onto the top sheet of paper using a series of dots. This is called an impact printer because it pushes the ribbon against the paper to create the image or text using a series of dots to create the image or text. These printers are most commonly used when multiple copies of a document must be created at once (like a 3-part form or contract to be signed). As these older printers are being retired and it is harder to find impact printers to purchase, most organizations are now switching to laser or inkjet printers and requiring customers to sign multiple copies of the same invoice after they are printed using a laser printer. Thermal printers are commonly used for receipts such as those at the grocery store or a restaurant.

133
Q

A customer wants to enable TPM to add password protection as the system boots up for an added security layer. Which of the following should you check to determine if TPM is enabled on the system?

Device Manager
BIOS Settings
Computer Management
System Management

A

BIOS Settings

134
Q

What is the purpose of utilizing secure boot?

A

Provide security for the OS

The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system during the start up process.

135
Q

Which option would you MOST likely use to configure PXE to set up remote imaging on a computer during a deployment?

BIOS boot option
Windows boot option
Power management option
Secure boot option

A

BIOS boot option

Obj 3.4
To configure a computer to utilize the PXE boot option, you need to configure it under the BIOS boot option. The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client/server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator. Secure boot is a security system offered by UEFI that is designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Power management allows Windows to reduce or turn off the power supplied to hardware components to save energy.

136
Q

You have been asked to configure your neighbor’s SOHO network. Your neighbor wants to build a Minecraft server so that all their friends can play together over the internet. When configuring their firewall, where should you place the server?

WAN
MAN
LAN
Perimeter Network

A

Perimeter Network

OBJ-2.5: A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request. If the request is valid, it re-transmits it to the destination. External hosts have no idea about what is behind the perimeter network so that the intranet remains secure. A perimeter network can be implemented using either two firewalls (screened subnet) or a single three-legged firewall (one with three network ports). In this SOHO network, it would use a single three-legged firewall approach to separate the perimeter network from the LAN and WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers a geographical area equivalent to a city or municipality.

137
Q

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 9.6 Gbps?

802.11g
802.11a
802.11b
802.11ax
802.11n
802.11ac

A

802.11ax

OBJ-2.3: The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.

138
Q

A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician powers on the system, the fans spin, and the motherboard’s LEDs light up. Unfortunately, the computer does not successfully complete the POST and the monitor remains blank. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect to the motherboard?

SATA 15 pin power cable
Case Fan 4 pin power cable
CPU 8 pin power cable
Motherboard 24 pin power cable

A

CPU 8 pin power cable

OBJ-5.2: Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the 8-pin CPU power cable. Without the CPU receiving power, the POST test cannot be run and the system will not boot up. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard’s LED would not be lit. If the SATA 15-pin power cable was not connected, the system could still complete the POST and a “bootable device not found” error would be displayed on the monitor. If the case fan’s power cables were not connected, the fans would not be spinning. Therefore, the right answer must be that the CPU power cable was not properly connected by the technician.

139
Q

An employee is complaining that their workstation is not booting into Windows when they reboot their machine. You noticed that during the reboot, the system is loading into a PXE-based OS. What should you do next?

Press F12 to boot into boot mode and select the correct device
Boot into BIOS and select the HDD from the boot order
Reboot PC to determine if it will boot from the HDD
Boot into recovery mode to fix the boot order

A

Press F12 to boot into boot mode and select the correct device

OBJ-5.3: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) is a network boot execution process allowing you to retrieve an image from a PXE server. It is often used for reimaging computers in corporate deployments. To boot from the hard drive instead, the BIOS’s boot order should be changed from PXE to HDD. Rebooting the workstation will just reload the PXE-based OS again. Since the system is booting to the PXE environment, it is bypassing the internal hard drive’s OS making recovery mode an invalid choice.

140
Q

Your company’s file server is using a RAID 5 configuration. You just received an alert from the server that states that “RAID is degraded” and that the “Local Disk 0, Physical Disk 3 has failed”. Which of the following is the BEST way to fix this error?

Reconfigure the RAID 5 to a RAID 0 to avoid any downtime, then rebuilt the array during the next authorized maintenance period, and confirm that the RAID is no longer report itself as degraded.

Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace the physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the raid is no longer reporting itself as degraded.

Format local disk 0, manually configure a new RAID using the remaining good drives from the RAID 5 and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded.

Replace physical disk 3 immediately, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded.

A

Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace the physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the raid is no longer reporting itself as degraded.

OBJ-5.3: Since a RAID 5 has some built-in redundancy, it will continue to operate while in this degraded state without any additional redundancy since one of the drives has failed. It is best to schedule an authorized downtime period, replace the failed drive, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded. During the rebuilding of the array, the system may perform extremely slowly, and users may experience a loss of service, which is why scheduling some downtime is necessary. Formatting the logical drive or changing a RAID 5 to a RAID 0 will cause data loss, and therefore they are not the correct answers.

141
Q

Your company is currently using a 5 GHz wireless security system, so your boss has asked you to install a 2.4 GHz wireless network to use for the company’s computer network to prevent interference. Which of the following can NOT be installed to provide a 2.4 GHz wireless network?

802.11b
802.11n
802.11g
802.11ac

A

802.11ac

OBJ-2.3: Wireless networks are configured to use either 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz frequencies, depending on the network type. 802.11a and 802.11ac both utilize a 5.0 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11b and 802.11g both utilize a 2.4 GHz frequency for their communications. 802.11n and 802.11ax utilize either 2.4 GHz, 5.0 GHz, or both, depending on the Wi-Fi device’s manufacturer. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 5.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds.

142
Q

A customer called the service desk and complained that they could not reach the internet on their computer. You ask the customer to open their command prompt, type in ipconfig, and read you the IP address. The customer reads the IP as 169.254.12.45. What is the root cause of the customer’s issue based on what you know so far?

A

Their workstation cannot reach the DHCP server

OBJ-5.7: Since the customer’s IP address is 169.254.12.45, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.

143
Q

You have just installed a new hard disk drive into your computer, but the motherboard does not recognize it within the BIOS/UEFI. You have verified the drive is properly connected to the motherboard and the power supply with the correct cables, but it still is not recognized. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this problem?

Format the new hard drive as NTFS
Format the new hard drive as FAT32
Configure a RAID in the BIOS/ UEFI
Update the firmware of the motherboard

A

Update the firmware of the motherboard

OBJ-5.3: This type of error (drive not recognized) is usually the result of the motherboard’s firmware not supporting a newer hard drive model or the cables not being properly connected. Since we already established that the cables were properly connected, we have to consider the firmware as the issue. To troubleshoot this issue, you should restart the computer and enter the BIOS/UEFI configuration. If the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the hard drive, then the motherboard’s firmware will need to be updated. If the BIOS/UEFI cannot detect the hard drive, then the operating system cannot detect the drive either (since it relies on the underlying BIOS/UEFI to make the connection). This means that you cannot format the hard drive or configure a RAID.

144
Q

Dion Training uses a VoIP conferencing solution to conduct its weekly staff meetings. When Jason is talking, some of the employees say it sounds like he is speeding up and slowing down randomly. Tamera is sitting in the office with Jason, and she says Jason is speaking at the same rate the entire time. Which of the following network performance metrics would be most useful in determining why the VoIP service is not presenting a consistent pace when delivering Jason’s voice over the network?

Jitter
Throughput
Latency
Bandwidth

A

Jitter

OBJ-5.7: Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients. A jitter is simply a variation in the delay of the packets, and this can cause some strange side effects, especially for voice and video calls. If you have ever been in a video conference where someone was speaking and then their voice started speeding up for 5 or 10 seconds, then returned to normal speed, you have been on the receiving end of their network’s jitter. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance.

145
Q

You just replaced a failed motherboard in a corporate workstation and returned it to service. About an hour later, the customer complained that the workstation is randomly shutting down and rebooting itself. You suspect the memory module may be corrupt, and you perform a memory test, but the memory passes all of your tests. Which of the following should you attempt NEXT in troubleshooting this problem?

Remove and reseat the RAM
Replace the RAM with ECC modules
Reset the BIOS
Verify the case fans are clean and properly connected

A

Verify the case fans are clean and properly connected.

OBJ-5.2: If a workstation overheats, it will shut down or reboot itself to protect the processor. This can occur if the case fans are clogged with dust or become unplugged. By checking and reconnecting the case fans, the technician can rule out an overheating issue causing this problem. Since the memory was already tested successfully, it does not need to be removed and reseated, or replaced with ECC modules. The BIOS is not the issue since the computer booted up into Windows successfully before rebooting.

146
Q

You have signed up for a web-based appointment scheduling application to help you manage your new IT technical support business. What type of solution would this be categorized as?

A

SaaS

OBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.

147
Q

Which of the following is a public IP address?

172.18.2.68
68.24.91.15
192.168.1.45
10.0.1.45

A

68.24.91.15

OBJ-2.5: IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.

148
Q

John connected his MacBook to the corporate network and is trying to print to the office’s large network printer. John notices that the print job is failing to print. The other employees in the office are having no issues printing from their Windows workstations. Which of the following should be done to resolve John’s issue?

Install and enable the OS X printing option on the network printer
Restart the print spooler on the print server
Enable Bonjour on John’s MacBook
Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server

A

Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server

OBJ-3.6: You should install the print drivers for OS X (macOS) on the print server to ensure compatibility with MacBooks and iMac devices. Since the Windows users can print to the network printer without any issues, the printer and the network are working properly. Instead, the most likely explanation is that the print server does not have the print drivers for OS X (macOS) installed on it.

149
Q

Dion Training wants to create a DNS record to enter DKIM or SPF information into the domain name system to help prevent from spam coming from their domain. Which type of DNS record should be created?

SOA
TXT
PTR
SRV

A

TXT

OBJ-2.6: The DNS text (TXT) record lets a domain administrator enter text into the Domain Name Systems. The TXT record was originally intended as a place for human-readable notes. However, now it is also possible to put some machine-readable data into TXT records. TXT records are a key component of several different email authentication methods (SPF, DKIM, and DMARC) that help an email server determine if a message is from a trusted source. A DNS service (SRV) record specifies a host and port for specific services such as voice over IP (VoIP), instant messaging, and others. A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain. PTR records are used for the Reverse DNS (Domain Name System) lookup. Using the IP address, you can get the associated domain/hostname. An A record should exist for every PTR record.

150
Q

You are building a virtualization server that runs on Windows Server 2016. The server will host multiple virtual machines, each with a different operating system. Which type of hypervisor should you select for this environment?

Type 2
Type 1
Bare metal
IaaS

A

Type 2 hypervisor

OBJ-4.2: A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing operating system. In this case, the scenario states that the virtualization server is already running Windows 2016, so you must install your hypervisor on Windows 2016. A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as bare metal, uses a specialized hypervisor OS to run the virtual machines (such as VM Ware’s ESXi). Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

151
Q

You are configuring a new server for a client. The client has purchased five 1 TB hard drives and would like the server’s storage system to provide redundancy and double fault tolerance. Which of the following configurations would BEST meet the client’s requirements?

RAID 5
RAID 1
RAID 10
RAID 0

A

RAID 10

OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides for redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 5 is a redundant array of independent disks configuration that uses disk striping with parity, but it only provides single fault tolerance. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

152
Q

A company has just installed a VoIP system on its network. Before the installation, all of the switches were replaced with layer 3 multilayer switches to allow for the VoIP devices to be placed on separate VLANs and have the packets routed accurately between them. What type of network segmentation technique is this an example of?

Honeynet implementation
Performance Optimization
Separate public/private networking
Compliance Enforcement

A

Performance Optimization

BJ-5.7: Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) performance optimization can help a business improve the quality of its video and audio communications over the Internet by decreasing the size of the broadcast domain through the creation of VLANs. Each VLAN can contain the VoIP devices for a single department or business unit, and traffic is routed between the VLANs using layer 3 multilayer switches to increase the performance of the voice communication systems. Performance optimization helps companies bolster the availability, accessibility, security, and overall performance of their networks. Compliance enforcement involves dividing up one network into smaller sections to better control the flow of traffic across the network and to restrict confidential data to a specific network segment based on a specific regulation or contractual requirement, such as PCI DSS segmentation requirements. A honeynet is an intentionally vulnerable network segment that is used to observe and investigate the attack techniques of a hacker or adversary. Separate public/private networking involves segmenting the network into two portions: public and private. This is often used in cloud architectures to protect private data.

153
Q

You are troubleshooting a storage issue on a customer’s computer. During the computer’s operation, you hear a loud, rhythmic sound. Which of the following storage components is likely failing?

HDD
m.2
SSD
RAM

A

HDD

OBJ-5.3: A hard disk drive (HDD) is a mechanical storage device that relies on a storage platter and a read arm. When a hard drive begins to fail, the drive will begin to make a loud clicking noise. This noise is usually rhythmic since the failed spot makes the noise every time the drive rotates during the read/write process. The other options (M.2 PCIe, SSD, and RAM) have no moving parts; therefore, no rhythmic noise would be created during their failure.

154
Q

A client’s laptop appears to have been infected with malware. You have begun troubleshooting, established a plan of action, and have already implemented your proposed solution. According to the best practice troubleshooting methodology, what is the NEXT step you should take?

A

Verify Full system functionality

OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

155
Q

Sally just purchased a new iPhone and AirPods to listen to her music. After setting up the new iPhone, she can get online and watch YouTube, but her wireless headphones aren’t working. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?

The phone is in airplane mode
Cellular is not enabled
Bluetooth is not enabled
WiFi is not enabled

A

Bluetooth is not enabled

OBJ-5.5: Since Sally can connect to the internet, either her cellular or WiFi is enabled, and the phone would not be in airplane mode. Since AirPods work over Bluetooth, it is most likely that the Bluetooth is not enabled on the new phone and should be turned on. Once Bluetooth is enabled, the Airpods will need to be paired to the device to begin using them.

156
Q

You have just installed a second monitor for a bookkeeper’s workstation so they can stretch their spreadsheets across both monitors. This would essentially let them use the two monitors as one combined larger monitor. Which of the following settings should you configure?

Resolution
Refresh Rate
Color Depth
Extended mode

A

Extended mode

OBJ-5.4: The extended mode allows the Windows output to be stretched across two or more monitors as if they were a single monitor. This can be configured under the Display settings in Windows 10. Refresh rate is the measure of how fast an image can be updated on a monitor or display. If a monitor has a lower refresh rate, then blurring and ghosting can occur. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Most monitors have a default or native resolution. When you first connect a monitor to a Windows workstation, this native resolution is detected, and Windows attempts to configure itself automatically. If this creates an imbalance between the two monitors, a technician can adjust the screen’s resolution by changing it in the Display settings area of Windows 10.

157
Q

You see some fading across your papers when printing things using a laser printer. The black color appears to be more faded than the other colors on your documents. What is the BEST solution to this problem?

Increase the temperature of the fuser element
Change the feed rate of the printer
Replace the toner cartridge in the printer
Clean the printer’s transfer roller

A

Replace the toner cartridge in the printer

OBJ-5.6: A symptom of low toner is faded or faint colors in your printed papers. Most modern printers will also indicate the amount of toner left using their on-screen display and present a warning message for low toner and an error message when the printer is completely out of toner. With color laser printers, there are four different toner colors used during printing: black, cyan, magenta, and yellow. If only the black appears to be faded, it is possible that it is running low on toner. This is a common problem since most employees print more black and white documents than color documents which leads to the black toner normally running out before the other colors.

158
Q

An Android user recently cracked their screen and had it replaced. If they are in a dark room, the phone works fine. If the user enters a room with normal lights on, then the phone’s display is dim and hard to read. What is MOST likely the problem?

Defective Display
Faulty ambient light sensor
Auto-brightness is enabled
Low battery

A

Faulty ambient light sensor

OBJ-5.5: The ambient light sensor appears to be broken or malfunctioning. The ambient light sensor may be too sensitive as it is taking in more light than usual. This can occur if the sensor is faulty or if the screen was replaced incorrectly, and the technician forgot to install the black gasket around the ambient light sensor. The auto-brightness setting being enabled would increase the brightness in a lit room and decrease the brightness in a dark room. If the device has a low battery, it may dim the display to save battery life but it would still be readable. If the display was defective, it would be difficult to read in all light conditions and not just in the bright room.

159
Q

A technician has installed an 802.11n network, and most users can see speeds of up to 300Mbps. A few of the users have an 802.11n network card but cannot get speeds higher than 108Mbps. What should the technician do to fix the issue?

Upgrade the WLAN card driver
Rollback the firmware on the WLAN card
Install a vulnerability patch
Upgrade the OS version to 64-bit

A

Upgrade the WLAN card driver

OBJ-5.7: Wireless N networks can support up to 600Mbps with the network cards’ proper software drivers. Without them, they can only achieve 108Mbps since they cannot communicate with the increased data compression rates. Wireless network interface card drivers are software programs installed on your hard disk that allow your operating system to communicate with your wireless and network adapters. Wireless and network driver problems usually occur due to missing, outdated, or corrupt drivers.

160
Q

What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures

161
Q

What is the third step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

Test the theory to determine the cause

162
Q

What is the sixth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

Document findings, actions and outcomes

163
Q

You are working as a network technician and have been asked to troubleshoot an issue with a workstation. You have just established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology should you perform NEXT?

A

Test the theory to determine the cause

164
Q

Dion Training’s multifunction laser printer recently had a paper jam. An employee pulled the paper out of the rollers to clear the jam. Unfortunately, the device still has a paper jam error displayed on the screen and will not print. You have been called to fix this issue. Which of the following should you attempt FIRST?

Replace the pickup rollers
update the drivers on the print server
Verify the paper path and its sensors are not blocked
Replace the toner cartridge

A

Verify the paper path and its sensors are not blocked

OBJ-5.6: Often, employees will pull the jammed paper out of a printer to clear a paper jam. This can lead to small bits of paper being left in the path or in front of a blockage sensor. As a technician, you should always check the entire path is clear and the sensors are not blocked first if the printer claims there is a paper jam as this is the most likely cause of a continued paper jam error.

165
Q

Your son accidentally knocked his laptop off his desk while it was charging. Your son picks up the laptop and notices that the laptop’s battery will no longer charge. You begin to troubleshoot the problem to identify the cause. You ensure the laptop is connected to the power adapter and that the power adapter is plugged into a power outlet, but the laptop’s battery will still not charge. Which of the following components was MOST likely damaged when the laptop was knocked off of the desk?

DC jack
Battery
Hard drive
Power Adapter

A

DC Jack

OBJ-5.5: One of the most important parts of any good laptop is the DC power jack. This item allows you to charge your battery and provides you with a steady source of electricity. If it fails, your laptop will lose power and eventually be unable to turn it on. If your battery won’t charge or will only charge if the connection is made at a certain angle, this is usually an indication that the DC power jack has failed. To rule out the battery or power adapter as the source of the problem, you can use a multimeter to ensure they are providing the right amount of power.

166
Q

You have been asked to troubleshoot a digital projector in the home theater in your neighbor’s basement. Your neighbor attempted to replace the projector’s bulb, but after running for a few minutes, a message appears on the screen, and the projector turns itself off again. Based on these symptoms, what are the MOST likely causes of the projector continually turning off after just a few minutes of usage with a new bulb? (Select TWO)

The bulb’s life counter needs to be reset
The video driver on the media play needs to be updated
A higher lumen bulb must be installed
Incorrect video resolution setting
The cooling fan needs to be cleaned or replaced
The brightness needs to be increased

A

The bulb’s life counter needs to be reset
The cooling fan needs to be cleaned or replaced

OBJ-5.4: Most projectors keep track of the life of a bulb/lamp using a life counter. If you forget to reset the life counter after replacing the bulb/lamp, the projector can often turn itself off since it believes the bulb/lamp still needs to be replaced. Another cause of a project turning itself off is when it overheats. This can be caused by an overly dirty cooling fan or a failed cooling fan. To solve this issue, simply clean or replace the cooling fan to prevent the projector from overheating.

167
Q

Which protocol operates over port 137 by default?

A

NetBios

168
Q

You are configuring a print server on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?

Dynamic
APIPA
Static
Link-local

A

Static

OBJ-2.5: A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly.

169
Q

You are currently conducting passive reconnaissance in preparation for an upcoming penetration test against Dion Training. You are reviewing the DNS records for the company and are trying to identify which of their servers accept email messages for their domain name. Which of the following DNS records should you analyze?

TXT
NS
MX
SRV

A

MX or Mail Exchange

OBJ-2.6: Mail Exchange (MX) records are used to provide the mail server that accepts email messages for a particular domain. Nameserver (NS) records are used to list the authoritative DNS server for a particular domain. Text (TXT) records are used to provide information about a resource such as a server, network, or service in human-readable form. They often contain domain verification and domain authentications for third-party tools that can send information on behalf of a domain name. Service (SRV) records are used to provide host and port information on services such as voice over IP (VoIP) and instant messaging (IM) applications.

170
Q

Your company has an office in Boston and is worried that its employees may not reach the office during periods of heavy snowfall. You have been asked to select a technology that would allow employees to work remotely from their homes during poor weather conditions. Which of the following should you select?

IDS
VLAN
NAT
VPN

A

VPN

OBJ-2.6: A remote-access VPN connection allows an individual user to connect to a private network from a remote location using a laptop or desktop computer connected to the internet. A remote-access VPN allows individual users to establish secure connections with a remote computer network. Once established, the remote user can access the corporate network and its capabilities as if they were accessing the network from their own office spaces.

171
Q

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?

802.11g
802.11a
802.11b
802.11ax
802.11n
802.11ac

A

802.11a

172
Q

Which of the following devices could be used to extend transmissions of a signal over longer distances by receiving and retransmitting a given signal at the lowest cost?

Firewall
Switch
Router
Repeater

A

Repeater

OBJ-2.2: A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter.

173
Q

Dion Training has just installed a web server for a new domain name. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow users to reach the website using its domain name and then redirect clients to the proper IPv6 address for the server?

SOA
A
MX
AAAA

A

AAAA

OBJ-2.6: An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. A Start of Authority (SOA) resource record indicates which Domain Name Server (DNS) is the best source of information for the specified domain.

174
Q

Which of the following provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism to positively identify an organization as the authorized sender of email for a particular domain name?

SPF
DMARC
SMTP
DKIM

A

DKIM

OBJ-2.6: DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism. This can replace or supplement SPF. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public key as a TXT record in the DNS server. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) uses a DNS record published by an organization hosting an email service. The SPF record identifies the hosts authorized to send emails from that domain, and there must be only one per domain. SPF does not provide a cryptographic authentication mechanism like DKIM does, though. The Domain-Based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework can ensure that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC relies on DKMI for the cryptographic authentication mechanism, making it the incorrect option for this question. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol for electronic mail transmission, which does not utilize cryptographic authentication mechanisms by default.

175
Q

Which of the following printer configuration settings controls the size of the paper used for the print job?

Tray
Quality
Duplex
Orientation

A

Tray

OBJ-3.6: The tray setting is used to define what type of paper is being used by a printer. The tray setting is commonly set to auto, letter in the United States, or A4 in Europe. The quality setting is used to define the overall output characteristics of the print job. If the best setting is used, the printer will use more ink/toner in producing the image and printer more slowly. If the Fast, Draft, or Low settings are used, the printer will use less ink/toner and print more quickly. Page orientation is how a rectangular page is oriented for normal viewing. The two most common types of orientation are portrait and landscape. Duplex printing is a feature of some computer printers, multi-function printers (MFPs), and copy machines that allow the printing of a sheet of paper on both sides automatically. Without this capability, print devices can only print on a single side of the paper, sometimes called single-sided printing or simplex printing. With duplex printing, information is printed on the front side of a piece of paper, and then the paper is automatically fed back through the printer to print the information on the backside of the paper.

176
Q

You are working as a technician for a college. One of the professors has submitted a trouble ticket stating that the projector connected to the workstation in his classroom is too dim. You look at the image being projected on the wall and notice it is dim, but the image appears to be displayed clearly and correctly. What is the FIRST thing you should do to make the image brighter?

Modify the workstation’s video resolution
Update the video driver on the workstation
Replace the bulb in the projector
Increase the contrast on the projector

A

Increase the contrast on the projector

OBJ-5.4: If the image being displayed is dim, this could be an issue with your project’s contrast. By increasing the contrast, you can increase the amount of light reflected from an all white image and an all black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the brighter the whites will appear in the image. For example, if you have a projector with a 3000:1 contrast ratio, this means that the white image is 3000 times brighter than the black image. The higher the contrast ratio, the more detail you can see on the projected image, regardless of whether it is numbers, pictures, graphs, text, or video. Contrast is what makes it possible for us to see the subtle shades of colors. If the project supports the contrast or contrast ratio adjustment, you should increase the contrast to brighten the screen’s image.

177
Q

Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer?

DSL
Fiber
Satellite
Cable

A

DSL

OBJ-2.7: DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). “Fiber to the X” (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user’s network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user’s home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). HFC (Hybrid Fiber Coax) is similar to FTTN/FTTC, except that coaxial cable is used from the cabinet to the home to increase the speed (generally 300-500 Mbps). A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. Satellite systems provide far bigger areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. A Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) microwave antenna is aligned to an orbital satellite that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite.

178
Q

Which option would you MOST likely use to configure PXE to set up remote imaging on a computer during a deployment?

Power management configuration
Windows boot menu
BIOS boot menu
Secure boot configuration

A

BIOS boot menu

OBJ-3.4: To configure a computer to utilize the PXE boot option, you need to configure it under the BIOS boot option. The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client/server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator. Secure boot is a security system offered by UEFI that is designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Power management allows Windows to reduce or turn off the power supplied to hardware components to save energy.

179
Q

You want to boot from a removable USB device to troubleshoot your Windows 10 laptop. During your rebooting of the machine, which key should you press to enter the boot order menu?

Command + R
F12
F11
F8

A

F12

OBJ-3.4: F12 is the most commonly used key used to enter the BIOS / UEFI boot order menu. The boot order is a menu that allows you to select which device you wish to boot from, such as the hard drive, DVD, or a removable USB device. F11 during the boot up process will cause the system to boot into recovery mode on a Windows workstation. F8 is used to invoke the Advanced Boot Options menu to allow the selection of different startup modes for troubleshooting. This is done as part of Windows and not the BIOS / UEFI. The command + R is used on the OS X system to boot into recovery mode.

180
Q

What network device uses ACLs to prevent unauthorized access into company systems?

A

Firewall

OBJ-2.4: A firewall is a network security device designed to prevent systems or traffic from unauthorized access. An ACL is a list that shows which traffic or devices should be allowed into or denied from accessing the network. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations. An IDS uses signatures, not ACLs. Content filtering is the use of a program to screen and/or exclude access to web pages or emails deemed objectionable. A load balancer distributes a set of tasks over a set of resources to make their overall processing more efficient.

181
Q

What is the name of the printer concept that is used a page description language that produces higher quality outputs at the expense of speed?

Printer control language
PostScript
Line Printer Daemon
Internet Printing Protocol

A

PostScript

OBJ-3.6: Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PS produces higher quality outputs. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers. PostScript (PS) is the page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.

182
Q

John is setting up 100 Windows 10 computers for a new corporate office. He wants to ensure that unauthorized applications are prevented from being installed during the bootup process. What feature should he ensure is enabled?

BIOS password required
RAM integrity checking
Full disk encryption
Secure boot

A

Secure boot

OBJ-3.4: The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process. Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system. The OEM can use instructions from the firmware manufacturer to create Secure boot keys and to store them in the PC firmware. When you add UEFI drivers, you’ll also need to make sure these are signed and included in the Secure Boot database. Full disk encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. RAM integrity checking is conducted by default on most systems during the initial boot process but it doesn’t check the contents of the memory for malware. The BIOS password would prevent the system from booting up without the correct password being entered, but this would not prevent unauthorized applications from being installed during the bootup process.

183
Q

Peter is attempting to print to his office printer, but nothing comes out. Yesterday, his printer was working just fine. Peter does not notice any errors on the taskbar’s printer icon. Which of the following actions should Peter try FIRST to solve this issue?

Check the status of the print server queue
Check that the printer is not offline
Cancel all documents and print them again
Check to ensure the printer selected is the default printer

A

Check the status of the print server queue

OBJ-5.6: When this issue occurs, it is often because the system properly sent the print job to the print queue, but the print queue has become stuck. If no error is shown in the taskbar’s printer icon, the user should open the print queue to determine if the print job has become stuck. If it is, then the print queue can be emptied or reset.

184
Q

Which of the following devices should be installed as an intermediary between your clients and the web servers they want to connect to make an HTTP request from the client, check it, and then forward it to its destination?

File Server
DHCP Server
Proxy Server
DNS Server

A

Proxy Server

OBJ-2.4: A proxy server takes a whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination computer on the Internet. When the reply comes back, it checks it and then shuttles it back to the LAN computer. A proxy can be used for other types of traffic too. A proxy server can usually operate either as a transparent service, in which case the client requires no special configuration or as a non-transparent service that requires configuration. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching a user.

185
Q

Which of the following BEST describes how a DHCP reservation works?

By letting the network switches assign IP addresses from a reserved pool
By leasing a set of reserved IP addresses according to their category
By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope
By assigning options to the computers on the network priority

A

By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope

OBJ-2.6: When the client requests an IP address by sending a message on the network to the DHCP server, the DHCP server will assign an IP from its DHCP scope to the client and reserve it based on its MAC address. DHCP reservations allow the DHCP server to pre-set an IP address to a specific client based on its MAC address. This ensures that the client will always get the same IP address from the DHCP server when it connects to the network. DHCP reservations are usually used with servers or printers on your internal network and are rarely used with end-user or client devices.

186
Q

Which of the following technologies combines the functionality of a firewall, malware scanner, and other security appliances into one device?

UTM
IDS
IPS
Syslog

A

UTM

OBJ-2.4: A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance enforces a variety of security-related measures, combining the work of a firewall, malware scanner, and intrusion detection/prevention. A UTM centralizes the threat management service, providing simpler configuration and reporting than isolated applications spread across several servers or devices.

187
Q

A user called the help desk to complain about an issue with their laptop’s keyboard. Every time they type a word like “help” or “none,” it is displayed as something cryptic like “he3p” or “n6ne”. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue with the laptop keyboard?

The keyboard is faulty and needs to be replaced
The keyboard has some crumbs or debris that has fallen under the keys
The NumLock has been enabled for the laptop
The keyboard driver needs to be updated

A

The NumLock has been enabled for the laptop

OBJ-5.5: Most keyboards have a numeric side (numbers only) and an alphanumeric side (numbers and letters and symbols). However, to minimize space usage, companies create some keyboards with the alphanumeric side only. This is quite common in laptops that insist on minimizing space for the sake of portability, as seen on mini-laptops and notebooks. Usually, the alphanumeric side is split into function keys (F1 to F12), followed by numeric keys (0-9), and then alphabetic keys (A-Z). To fix this, the fastest way to do this is to turn off NumLock using your laptop keyboard. If you hit the NumLock key, it will turn off. A light beside the key or on the laptop’s top will go off to confirm that the NumLock is disabled.